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Question | Answer |
---|---|
The title associated with a 2W131 is an aircraft armament | apprentice. |
What grade restrictions apply to the 3– and 5–skill levels? | nun |
Which major command (MAJCOM) representatives meet periodically with the Air Force career field manager to develop a list of the basic skills required to perform the duties of a 2W1? | Functional managers |
What is the primary document used to identify life cycle education and training requirements? | Career field education and training plan. |
What is used as a paper back up to the training business area (TBA)? | tba is exclusively paperless |
The Air Force Training Evaluation Program evaluates training received by graduates of | formal courses |
Where is internal information obtained from for the Air Force Training Evaluation Program? | Trainees while they are enrolled in a course. |
The actual number and types of munitions the Air Force is going to procure and provide to a unit to conduct their training is the unit’s | allocation. |
Which element in the munitions storage area is responsible for the coordination of all movements of munitions both within and outside the munitions storage area? | Munitions control. |
An effective Air Force maintenance management system must have | 1)a well-organized management structure, 2) latitude for MAJCOMs 3)efficient method of reporting maintenance data. |
In conjunction with using qualified technicians to evaluate personnel and equipment, what other method do organizations use to achieve standardization? | Standard practices and strict technical data usage |
What are the two categories of maintenance? | On-equipment and off-equipment. |
What are the three different types of wings? | 1)Operational, 2)Air Base, 3)Specialized Mission. |
Who supports flight-line munitions loading/unloading and weapons maintenance operations? | Weapons section. |
Which maintenance complex element is responsible for munitions loading/unloading during daily aircraft training, operational test and evaluation, and contingency operations? | Loading element. |
Which armament flight section performs time compliance technical orders, inspections, and maintenance on assigned armament systems, guns, pylons, racks, launchers, and adapters? | Armament maintenance. |
Who is considered the key individual in the application of maintenance resources to meet mission requirements? | wing commander |
Who is primarily responsible for monitoring certification and recurring training documents to ensure all load crew members complete required proficiency and academic training? | Loading standardization crew. |
Who ensures the required number of load crews are trained and certified as specified in the Unit Committed Munitions List (UCML) to perform the mission and maintains load crew integrity during training and evaluations to the maximum extent possible? | Weapons section NCOICs. |
What is the quality assurance (QA) program? | A dynamic inspection system to improve combat capability. |
Which staff function determines aircraft and equipment condition and personnel proficiency (including the quality of training)and to increase reliability and maintainability? | Quality assurance |
What staff function manages the material deficiency reporting and technical order (TO) improvement reporting programs, tracks technical data currency, applicability and usability, and maintains a central TO file? | Quality assurance. |
Which system’s purpose is to store maintenance data needed by major commands and other agencies to manage and track maintenance resources worldwide? | Integrated Maintenance Data System.(IMDS) |
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screens are oriented by | task |
What is the central component of the Integrated Maintenance Information System (IMIS)? | Maintenance server unit (MSU). |
To select an application on the Integrated Maintenance Information System (IMIS) desktop, the user can tab through the applications or | USE the mouse genius its a computer! |
Which Air Force technical order (AFTO) form is used to document each discrepancy discovered by the pilot or maintenance personnel and to document any corrective action you complete to correct a discrepancy? | 781A. |
Which aircraft form is primarily used to document calendar item inspections and delayed discrepancies? | 781K |
Which Air Force technical order (AFTO) is used for maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items? | AFTO Form 95 |
Which Air Force technical order form is used to document information and maintenance actions pertaining to aerospace ground equipment (AGE)? | AFTO Form 244/245. |
Which condition tag is used to identify unserviceable (condemned) material? | DD Form 1577 (red). |
What is the purpose of a special-purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) | To assist maintenance in accomplishing the mission. |
The allowance standard (AS) prescribes the amount of | equipment you are authorized |
What 13-digit number is assigned to all items in the supply system? | National stock number |
What is the primary objective of the repair cycle asset control system? | Bring about the economy of spares procurement through effective management of assets. |
What document identifies equipment, hardware, software, and facilities which are nuclear certified? | Master nuclear certification list. |
Who has ultimate responsibility for all property under his or her jurisdiction? | errrbody in AF |
What are two ways of being relieved of the responsibility for government property? | Turn-in and transfer |
A report of survey is an instrument used to | explain and record the circumstances involved in the loss of Air Force property. |
A report of survey must be initiated within how many days after the discovery of loss? | 30 days |
Which inspection is a between-flight inspection of aircraft or weapons system components when an immediate turnaround or a continuation flight is scheduled? | Thruflight |
Which inspection is performed after the last flight of the day or flying period? | Basic post operation. |
Which scheduled inspection is due when the required number of flying hours, rounds fired by a gun system, or calendar time has expired? | Periodic inspection. |
What kind of inspection must maintenance personnel perform on all newly assigned aircraft and equipment? | Acceptance inspection |
The purpose of the deficiency reporting (DR) system is to | ensure that the Air Force has a system to feedback deficiency data. |
Which type of deficiency limits or prevents a materiel from being used for its intended purpose? | Design deficiency |
Which type of deficiency normally results in an excessive consumption of maintenance man-hours? | Maintenance deficiency. |
Which deficiency is a failure of some internal component or subassembly of a piece of equipment because of materiel stress due to pressure and/or vibration or to excessive materiel wear? | Material deficiency. |
In which publication will you find information or the change or revision status of a technical order (TO)? | Index technical order |
Which electronic technical manual is available through the Integrated Maintenance Information System (IMIS) desktop and allows the maintainer access to all technical data required to perform a necessary maintenance procedure? | Interactive electronic technical manual |
How are changed pages in printed technical orders (TO) identified? | By change numbers printed at the bottom of the page in the corner beside the page number. |
Which accident prevention sign has white lettering on a green background? | General safety |
A face shield usually replaces goggles when | vision is critical |
What type of protective footwear is required when working around heavy, rolling, or falling objects? | Safety-toe shoes |
What type of gloves for arm and hand protection is needed when working around jagged objects, rough wood, or similar hazards? | Leather |
The temperature where a flammable liquid produces enough vapors to produce a flame if a source of ignition is supplied close to the surface is the | flash point |
The flash point of a liquid can be most easily avoided by | good ventilation or elimination of spark devices |
Which fire classification can be effectively extinguished by water? | Class A. |
Which fire classification covers flammable liquids? | Class B |
The fire extinguishers for which class of fires are never assigned numerical ratings nor given multipurpose ratings? | Class D. |
fires in electrical equipment are what class fires? | Class C |
What is the primary factor to consider when dealing with the potential harm caused by an electrical shock? | Current flow or amperage |
What amount of current flow causes a shock strong enough to be felt, but is normally harmless? | .001 amp. |
One of the purposes of electrical safety is to prevent | you from electrocution |
What do you do before testing and following repair actions of electrical equipment? | Visually check equipment |
Why do you visually inspect equipment before testing and following repair actions? | Check for obvious defects |
What effect does bonding have on static electrical charges? | Equalizes them. |
What is the primary hazard involved with working around fiber optics? | Damage to unprotected eyes |
What is considered the secondary hazard involved with working around fiber optics? | Needle-like structures that can easily be embedded into the skin or eyes |
During explosives operations, personnel who need to remove outer garments | must step out of the immediate area, remove the garment, ground themselves, and reenter. |
The cardinal principle in conducting any explosive operation concerning personnel limits is to expose the | minimum number of people to the minimum quantity of explosives for the minimum period. (PET,people,explosives,time) |
Explosive hazard class 1 items that are principally a blast hazard and expect to mass detonate when a small portion | 1 |
Which division of explosive hazard class 1 contains nuclear weapons? | 1 |
Which division of explosive hazard class 1 is principally associated with items that have a fragmentation and blast hazard? | 2 |
Which division of explosive hazard class 1 contains items that produce fires that burn vigorously and are difficult to put out? | 3 |
Which explosive hazard class 1 division would include items such as pistol and rifle ammunition or impulse cartridges? | 4 |
When are fire division symbols posted on or near nonnuclear explosive locations? | At the time the explosives are stored |
Parking areas for government vehicles may not be any closer than how many feet to an explosive area? | 25 |
At least, how many feet away from explosives sites must you remove support equipment before refueling it? | 50 |
What is the minimum withdrawal distance in feet for all nonessential personnel if munitions posted with a fire symbol 2 are involved in a fire? | 2500 |
The fundamental purpose of the United States’ nuclear arsenal is to | deter an enemy’s use of its nuclear arsenal or other weapons of mass destruction. |
Ensuring positive measures to prevent inadvertent prearming, arming, launching, firing, or releasing of nuclear weapons is | a nuclear weapon system safety standard |
Critical personnel reliability program (PRP) positions are positions where | close proximity to a nuclear weapon or critical component is required. |
When referring to the two-person concept, intentionally performing an incorrect procedure or unauthorized act involving a critical component defines which term? | Tamper. |
The no-lone zone requires strict adherence to all the requirements of the | two-person concept. |
Who is responsible for ensuring team members observe all safety and security requirements in a no-lone zone? | All personnel. |
What are used to verify a nuclear weapon system’s component or switch has not been tampered with or accidentally activated? | Seals |
What flagword is given to the unexpected detonation of a nuclear weapon that could not create the risk of war? | BROKEN ARROW. |
What flagword is given to the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component? | BROKEN ARROW |
What is the flagword given to the damage of a nuclear warhead that requires major rework, replacement, or examination or recertification by the Department of Energy (DOE)? | BENT SPEAR. |
Nuclear mishaps are investigated to | determine the cause and prevent recurrence |
A nuclear mishap final report must be submitted within what timeframe after the investigation is complete? | 30 days |
Which is not an operations security (OPSEC) objective? | Document accidents and perform corrective actions |
During normal conversations, you should avoid using what type of words to ensure maximum operational security? | Flag |
Damage and destruction to Air Force resources is described as | any willful act that renders Air Force equipment or property useless |
Which threat to Air Force resources is described as the willful or malicious destruction of property? | Vandalism. |
How are the values of Air Force resources described? | Monetary and military |
Which item is an example of a risk category I arms and munitions item? | Man-portable missiles and rockets in a ready to fire configuration |
Why does the Air Force implement and maintain the cybersecurity program? | To adequately secure its information and information technology assets. |
Why did the Department of Defense establish a cyber strategy? | To help defend against cyber-attacks. |
What is the unit of measure for movement of electrons through a conductor? | Amp. |
Wire-wound resistors are normally used in circuits where power requirements exceed | 5 watts |
What are the two basic components of a switch? | Contacts and actuators |
Which term refers to one of two or more positions that the switch can adopt? | Throw |
Circuit designers call a circuit switched by a relay the | controlled circuit |
What restores a solenoid to its de-energized state? | Spring. |
What three components are found in all circuits? | Power source, load, and conductor. |
Light emitting diodes are primarily used in weapons system applications as | status indicators |
You must visually inspect equipment before testing and following repair actions to | check for obvious defects |
What do you use to clean electrical equipment? | Only approved cleaning solvents |
When do you use compressed air for cleaning electrical equipment? the max pressure should not exceed how many psi | Only as a last resort, 30 psi |
What is chafing? | Constant friction (rubbing) between wiring harnesses and the structure to which they are attached. |
What is the most obvious indication of chaffing? | Exterior damage to cables |
To prevent chafing, the slack in a wiring harness between two support points normally should not exceed | ½ inch |
who should perform electrical repairs? | only competent qualified personel |
what should happen when voltage is applied to equipment being repaired or tested? | personel should remove all tool and equipment that's not essential to test from the bench |
what determines the correct depth to insert the tool | an indicating band on the working end of the tool |
What are the two operational modes of the Fluke 8025A digital multimeter? | Range and hold |
What are the three general types of electrical troubles that develop in electrical circuits? | Open, short, and grounded circuits. |
What is usually the first step in troubleshooting an electrical circuit? | Make a visual check for obvious defects. |
A good fuse or circuit breaker in a malfunctioning circuit normally indicates | an open in the circuit. |
Two high-value resistance measurements indicate a diode is | open. |
A standard diode used in a rectifier should have a reverse-to-forward bias ratio of | 10 to 1. |
What are job guides? | Step-by-step operational procedures |
How many levels of electrostatic discharge (ESD) components are there? | Two. |
What is the most important precaution the technician can take before handling electrostatic discharge (ESD) components? | Ensuring that they and their equipment are grounded. |
substances with tightly bound orbiting electrons held firmly in place by the nucleus.( wood, plastic, rubber) | Insulators |
substances with electrons bound loosely to the nucleus of an atom and are easily freed by a suitable force. (gold silver copper metal) | Conductors |
Semi-conductors are used in solid-state devices; their resistance and conductivity fall between insulators and conductors. | Semi-conductors |
The difference in the number of electrons is the determining factor for the amount of pressure that is present;The electrical pressure that makes electrons flow through a conductor | electromotive force |
The unit of measurement of electrical pressure is | the volt |
is the movement of electrons through a conductor | Electrical current |
The unit of measurement for current | (amp |
Technicians measure the amount of electrons moving in units | coulombs |
The type of material is one of the factors that determines a conductor’s | resistance |
resistance change+temperature change= | temp coefficient |
Amperage refers to the | intensity of the current flow in a conductor |
If a temperature increase raises its resistance, the material has | positive temperature coefficient |
It has a________ ___________ if a temperature increase decreases the resistance. | negative coefficient |
The term current refers to??? | quantity of electrons flowing past a given point during one second. |
The amount of resistance present is measured in | ohms |
Any time a conductor serves as the path for electrons to flow through, a magnetic field | develops around the conductor |
Inside the coil, the lines are concentrated to form a more powerful field, while outside the coil they’re | spread out. |
If you wind several loops to form a coil, you’ll get a more powerful magnetic field | yea you will |
the larger the electric current, the more lines will be set up in the core and, thus, | strengthen the magnetic field. |
you eventually reach a point where further current increases add so few flux lines that it’s uneconomical and impractical to add more lines. At this point, the core is said to be | saturated. |
by definition is a device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy, | A bAtTerY |
This movement of electrons is how a battery generates | current |
will continue to occur as long as a continuous path for electrons is available (a closed circuit) and there are sufficient chemicals present for the reaction to continue. | well duh |
The flow of electrons in a battery is always from; it never changes direction. | the anode to the cathode |
A generator by definition is a device that converts mechanical energy into | electrical energy |
that a conductor carrying an electrical current develops a | magnetic field |
if a conductor is passed through a magnetic field so that it will pass through the magnetic lines of force, it will generate an | electric current. |
he electrons in the conductor will be drawn towards the side of the coil closest to the | north pole of the magnetic field |
static electricity is | electricity at rest. |
.electricity at rest. When an object gains or loses a large amount of electrons, it develops a | static” charge |
When they are physically close enough, they will “balance out,” resulting in | a spark |
Static charges held in insulators tend to remain in the | localized area of contact for long periods |
The conductivity of some insulators is increased by | the absorption of moisture under high-humidity conditions |
The opposition a conductor or insulator offers to the flow of electrons scientists call | resistance. |
Semiconductors have a high resistance to electron flow. When used in circuits, their principal function is to ______ current flow | oppose |
The most common material used in the manufacture of resistors is | carbon |
Resistors are designed to offer a predetermined | amount of opposition within a circuit |
Circuit designers use resistors to control the current flow and to keep it below the | maximum limit of the circuit |
the actual value of the resistors can vary by | 5-to-20% |
value of the resistors can vary by 5-to-20 percent. They are commonly found with power ratings | of ¼ to 2 watts |
The larger the physical size, | the larger the wattage rating is. |
Wire-wound resistors are generally used in a circuit where the power requirements exceed | 5 watts. |
(length = resistance) of high-resistance wire around ceramic material. The wire used has a specific amount of | resistance per foot. |
rheostat | 2 t's, 2 terminals, used to control current |
potentiometer | 3 t's, 3 terminals , used to control voltage |
a mechanical device used to connect and disconnect a circuit at will | A switch |
the moveable part of the switch that is manipulated to complete or open the electrical circuit or circuits to allow or inhibit the flow of electrons. | The actuator |
switch containing a spring or some other restoring force that returns the actuator to a certain position. | Biased switch |
If the current exceeds this specified amount, the heating effect of the greater current on the metallic link will cause it to | melt |
rated according to the ampere load they can carry without blowing | Fuses, 2 types regular and slow-blow. |
are used more extensively today than fuses because??? | they can be reset an indefinite # of times |
a electrically controlled magnetic device used for mechanically switching electrical circuits on or off is a | A relay |
The circuit switched by the relay is called the | controlled circuit, |
Basic relays are made to operate on | a very small amount of current |
Unlike the more common simple relays, a latching relay has | two de-energized states |