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2AX5X Vol.1 URE
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1. (001) The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is | 2 |
| 2. (001) What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards? | 98 |
| 3. (001) Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures? | c. Manuals, TOs, and handbooks. |
| 4. (001) What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression | Initial |
| 5. (002) A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than | c. 0.1 percent. |
| 6. (002) Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by | c. DOD. |
| 7. (002) Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed | c. 90 days. |
| 8. (003) What affects radiation hazards? | b. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather. |
| 9. (003) The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft | d. allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. |
| 10. (003) The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side | b. 45°. |
| 11. (003) Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue? | c. A feeling of emptiness. |
| 12. (003) When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing | c. Weapons personnel. |
| 13. (003) Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar you must | c. remove all ammunition and explosives. |
| 14. (003) All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT (form)? | a. 55. |
| 15. (004) The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to | c. identify all possible sources of FOD. |
| 16. (004) Who is responsible for FOD prevention? | d. Everyone. |
| 17. (004) When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the | a. maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. |
| 18. (004) In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects? | d. QA. |
| 19. (005) The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is | c. green markings. |
| 20. (005) Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a | b. 20-foot radius. |
| 21. (006) Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check? | b. The aircrew. |
| 22. (006) When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the | d. nose of the aircraft and at a 45 angle outboard of the engine being started. |
| 23. (006) What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals? | b. AFI 11-218. |
| 24. (006) During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the “all clear to move” order? | d. Supervisor only. |
| 25. (007) What are the Air Force’s maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability? | c. Organizational, intermediate, and depot. |
| 26. (007) What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need? | b. Preventive. |
| 27. (008) Objectives of the MDD system include | d. collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. |
| 28. (008) What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database? | d. Select serially controlled and time change items. |
| 29. (008) What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil? | b. 781F. |
| 30. (008) The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder | c. after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing. |
| 31. (008) Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO | b. 781J. |
| 32. (008) Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting? | d. Item managers |
| 33. (009) The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the | d. unit level. |
| 34. (009) The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by | d. helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. |
| 35. (010) When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program? | a. Within 60 days of arrival. |
| 36. (010) The GAS is normally sent out | a. 90 days after graduation. |
| 37. (010) Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC? | d. CFETP, Part II. |
| 38. (011) The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time | d. visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. |
| 39. (012) Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency? | c. Reference. |
| 40. (012) What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs? | a. 1. |
| 41. (013) Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists twobpossible responses? | b. Remedy. |
| 42. (013) What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page? | b. Urgent action. |
| 43. (014) Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22? | b. 00-5-1. |
| 44. (014) Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency? | b. Urgent. |
| 45. (015) Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what’s on the form? | b. Pamphlet. |
| 46. (016) Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet? | b. B-2. |
| 47. (016) Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand? | c. B-4. |
| 48. (016) What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support? | b. 8,000. |
| 49. (016) On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is | c. 20 mph. |
| 50. (016) What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft? | b. Axle. |
| 51. (016) Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented? | d. Everyone. |
| 52. (016) GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted | d. green with a white band near the top. |
| 53. (016) When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by | c. qualified operators only. |
| 54. (017) What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC? | 49 |
| 55. (017) What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen? | c. 4,400 psig. |
| 56. (017) The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to | c. 3,200 psi. |
| 57. (017) The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of | a. 200 psi. |
| 58. (017) The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from | d. 150 to 280 °F. |
| 59. (017) What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner? | d. 20 mph. |
| 60. (017) The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from | b. 47 to 200 °F. |
| 61. (017) The A/M32A-86 generator set’s T-R produces | c. 28.5 VDC. |
| 62. (017) What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance? | c. A/M32A-60. |
| 63. (017) Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60? | d. 35C2-3-372-11. |
| 64. (017) The FL-1D floodlight consists of two | b. 1,000 watt lamp fixtures. |
| 65. (017) What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces? | d. 20 mph. |
| 66. (017) What is used to drive the MK-3A-1? | b. An electric motor. |
| 67. (017) How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated? | c. Number 1 and Number 2. |
| 68. (017) The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid? | b. 27 gallons. |
| 69. (017) The MB-4 Coleman incorporates | d. four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive. |
| 70. (017) What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman? | b. 20 mph. |
| 71. (017) What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer? | c. Hydraulic. |
| 72. (018) Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications? | c. Prevent corrosion. |
| 73. (018) How are special bolts identified? | d. The bolt head is marked with the letter S. |
| 74. (018) Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems? | Clevis |
| 75. (018) Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications? | d. An internal wrenching type. |
| 76. (018) Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the | d. groove on the end of the barrel. |
| 77. (018) Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal? | a. Soft rubber. |
| 78. (018) A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by | d. inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal. |
| 79. (018) What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing? | a. 15 to 20 inches. |
| 80. (018) The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than | b. 15 percent of wall thickness. |
| 81. (018) Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures? | b. 300 psi and below. |
| 82. (019) The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a | c. 24 inch length of wire. |
| 83. (019) When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series? | a. 3. |
| 84. (019) Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them? | d. Axially assembled retaining rings. |
| 85. (019) Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove? | b. Spiral retaining ring. |
| 86. (020) What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit? | d. Pin-and-socket contacts. |
| 87. (020) In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates | a. pin. |
| 88. (021) Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied? | a. Indicating type. |
| 89. (021) Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached? | b. Breakaway type. |
| 90. (021) Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the | b. maximum setting at least six times. |
| 91. (021) What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened? | b. Tension and torsion. |
| 92. (021) Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving? | a. Static. |
| 93. (022) Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to | d. move the decimal point. |
| 94. (022) When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the | b. touch-hold mode is in use. |
| 95. (023) Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts? | c. Feeler gauge. |
| 96. (023) What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer’s spindle and anvil? | b. 1.0 inch. |
| 97. (023) Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut? | c. Spring-joint calipers. |
| 98. (023) Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders? | d. Odd-leg caliper. |
| 99. (023) Which caliper has the words “IN” and “OUT” stamped on the frame? | a. Slide caliper. |
| 100. (024) Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced? | c. Supervisors at all levels. |
| 101. (024) Bench stock levels are established to provide a | b. 30-day usage. |
| 102. (024) Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods? | c. AF IMT 1297. |
| 103. (025) All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code? | d. ERRC. |
| 104. (025) Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and | c. AFTO Form 350. |
| 105. (025) Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters? | a. 1577-2 and 1577-3. |
| 106. (026) Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for | b. 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt. |
| 107. (027) Which insp is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific –6 technical order and is a thorough insp of the entire aerospace vehicle? | b. Periodic. |
| 108. (027) Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections? | c. Isochronal. |
| 109. (027) Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements? | d. Programmed depot maintenance. |
| 110. (027) Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in | b. inspection workcards. |
| 111. (028) Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems? | d. EOR. |
| 112. (028) The TH inspection is normally performed | b. after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. |
| 113. (028) Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days? | c. Calendar. |
| 114. (028) Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents? | d. Acceptance. |
| 115. (029) To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form | b. 1149. |
| 116. (030) Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance? | c. 1-1B-50. |
| 117. (030) What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity? | d. Aircraft weight. |
| 118. (031) Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy? | c. “TRIAGE”. |
| 119. (032) Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is | d. fabricated or manufactured. |
| 120. (032) Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is | d. exhausted or salvaged. |
| 121. (032) What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains? | c. Exfoliation. |
| 122. (032) What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal? | a. Stress. |
| 123. (033) Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in | d. TO 1-1-691. |
| 124. (033) After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery? | c. Sodium bicarbonate. |
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