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VNSG 1400 Unit 5

TJC VNSG 1400 Unit 5 c.sanders

QuestionAnswer
Accommodation Process in which the lens of the eye changes shape to view objects that are near or distant.
Acoustic neuroma Benign Schwann cell tumor that progressively enlarges and adversely impacts cranial nerve VIII, which consists of the vestibular and cochlear nerves.
Astigmatism Visual distortion caused by an irregularly shaped cornea.
Audiometry Precise measurement of hearing acuity.
Caloric Stimulation Test Test that assesses the vestibular reflexes of the inner ear that control balance.
Cataract Disorder in which the lens of the eye becomes opaque.
Central vision Ability to discriminate letters, words, and the details of any image.
Cochlear implant Device that is surgically placed in the inner ear and connected to a receiver in the bone behind the ear to improve hearing.
Conductive hearing loss Hearing loss that is due to interference in the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
Conjunctivitis Inflammation of the conjunctiva.
Corneal transplantation Replacement of abnormal corneal tissue with healthy donated corneal tissue.
Corneal trephine Surgical procedure in which a small hole is produced at the junction of the cornea and sclera to provide an outlet for aqueous fluid.
Decibel Unit for measuring the intensity of sound.
Diplopia Double vision.
Electronystagmography Method used to evaluate vestibular function, the mechanisms that facilitate maintaining balance, by measuring the duration and velocity of eye movements during caloric stimulation.
Emmetropia Normal vision, in which light rays are bent to focus images precisely on the retina.
Endophthalmitis Disorder in which all three layers of the eye and the vitreous are inflamed.
Enucleation Surgical removal of an eye.
Glaucoma Eye disorder caused by an imbalance between the production and drainage of aqueous fluid.
Hordeolum (Sty)Inflammation and infection of the Zeis or Moll gland, a type of oil gland at the edge of the eyelid.
Hyperopia Farsightedness; people who are hyperopic see objects that are far away better than objects that are close.
Intraocular lens implant Artificial lens that is inserted in the eye to improve or restore vision.
Iridectomy Surgical or laser procedure in which holes are made in the iris to increase drainage of aqueous fluid.
Keratitis Inflammation of the cornea.
Keratoplasty Corneal transplantation.
Labyrinthitis Inflammation of the labyrinth of the inner ear.
Macular degeneration Breakdown of or damage to the macula, the point on the retina where light rays converge for the most acute visual perception.
Mastoidectomy Surgical procedure performed to remove diseased tissue from the mastoid process.
Mastoiditis Inflammation of any part of the mastoid process.
Ménière's disease Term given to the episodic symptoms created by fluctuations in the production or reabsorption of fluid in the inner ear.
Myopia Nearsightedness; people who are myopic hold things close to their eyes to see them well.
Myringoplasty Surgical repair of a perforated eardrum.
Myringotomy Incisional opening of the eardrum to allow drainage, ease pressure, and relieve pain.
Near point Closest point at which a person can clearly focus on an object.
Nystagmus Uncontrolled oscillating movement of the eyeball.
Ophthalmoscopy Examination of the fundus or interior of the eye.
Otalgia Sense of fullness or pain in the ears.
Otitis externa Inflammation of the tissue within the outer ear.
Otitis media Inflammation or infection in the middle ear.
Otosclerosis Disorder characterized by a bony overgrowth on the stapes that is a common cause of hearing impairment among adults.
Otoscope Hand-held instrument used to inspect the external acoustic canal and tympanic membrane.
Ototoxicity Detrimental effect of certain medications on the eighth cranial nerve or hearing structures.
Photophobia Sensitivity to light.
Presbycusis Hearing loss associated with aging.
Presbyopia Condition in which visual accommodation, the ability to focus an image on the retina, gradually declines with aging, as a result of lens inelasticity.
Proptosis Disorder in which an extended or protruded upper eyelid delays closing or remains partially open.
Ptosis Drooping of the eyelids.
Refraction Changing of direction and speed of a ray of light.
Retinal detachment Disorder in which the sensory layer becomes separated from the pigmented layer of the retina.
Rinne test Test used to measure hearing loss by comparing bone conduction and air conduction of sound using a tuning fork.
Romberg test Test used to evaluate a person's ability to sustain balance.
Sensorineural hearing loss Hearing loss that is the result of nerve impairment.
Sign language Method of communication that uses a hand-spelled alphabet and word symbols.
Speech reading Perception of conversation by following the movements of a speaker's lips.
Stapedectomy Surgical procedure to improve hearing loss in which all or part of the stapes is removed and a prosthesis is inserted.
Tinnitus Disorder in which a client hears buzzing, whistling, or ringing noises in one or both ears.
Tonometry Measurement of intraocular pressure.
Trabeculoplasty Procedure in which a laser beam is directed at the trabecular network in the eye.
Tuning fork Instrument that produces sound in the same range as human speech; used to screen for conductive or sensorineural hearing loss.
Tympanotomy Incisional opening of the tympanic membrane.
Uveitis Inflammation of the uveal tract.
Visual acuity Ability to see far images clearly.
Visual field examination Measurement of peripheral vision and detection of gaps in the visual field.
Visually impaired Condition in which visual acuity is between 20/70 and 20/200 in the better eye with the use of glasses.
Weber test Test used to measure hearing loss by striking a tuning fork and placing its stem in the midline of the client's skull or center of the forehead; a person with normal hearing perceives the sound equally well in both ears.
The outer ear consists of: a) Pinnab) External acoustic meatusc) Tympanic membrane
Who would be at a greater risk for Glaucoma?A ) 19 year old white female with Astigmatism B ) 23 year old black male with 20/20 vision C ) 48 year old diabetic black male D ) all of the above C ) 48 year old diabetic black male
Your patient has just received a cochlear implant. In your patient teaching you would be sure to inform him that he should...A ) Avoid subways B ) Never have a MRI C ) Never have a CT D ) Take Tylenol B ) Never have a MRI
What is radial keratotomy? Surgical procedure in which a series of tiny shallow incisions are made in the cornea to flatten it and reduce refractive error.
A patient comes in to the ER with a pencil sticking out of his eye. What should the nurse do first or instruct her patient to do? Tell the patient to lie down in the bed and remain still while keeping his head elevated and avoiding any further trauma to the eye
The classic symptoms of Meniere's disease are: Hearing lossTinnitusVertigo
The patient scheduled to undergo lens implant with cataract surgery asks how long it will take for vision to become normal. The nurse responds that vision changes as the eye heals and that visual stability takes approximately: 2 weeks
While doing your initial assessment on a pt you find out that the pt is color blind. You as a nurse know that this means the patient has something wrong with:A ) Sclera B ) Iris C ) Cones D ) Lens C ) Cones
You know your patient understands how to take care of their ear infection when they comment: I understand that dizziness and N/V may occur. I will notify my doctor if these symptoms become unbearable
Type of hearing loss associated with age?A ) conductive B ) mixed C ) sensorineural D ) presbycusis D ) presbycusis
You are using the whisper test to assess hearing problems in an elderly patient. How close do you stand to the patient?A ) 6-12 inches B ) 24-48 inches C ) 12-24 inches D ) 48-96 inches 6-12 inches
A patient comes into the doctor's office with on cut on his cornea. What test would the doctor perform to examine the eye?A ) Visual Field Examination B ) Amster Grid C ) Slit Lamp D ) Retinal Angiography C ) Slit Lamp
Is wax build-up a hygiene problem? No
What is the vascular layer of the eye? Uvea
What test is the most accurate way to measure intraocular pressure? Tonometry
What is the major concern with glaucoma? Increased intraocular pressure
A patient comes to the ER complaining of burning, itching and sensitivity to light. The patient may be experiencing what? Blepharitis
An elderly patient comes in complaining of her central vision being impaired. What part of the eye is being affected? Macula
BCVA stands for: Best Corrected Visual Acuity
What vision is lost first in glaucoma? Peripheral
What is the normal reading of the tonometry test? 10-21 mmHg
What type of eye sight is associated with loss of near vision in the older adult? Presbyopia
The type of hearing loss associated with age: Presbycusis
When putting ear drops in an infant, how do you position the ear? Pull down and back to straighten the canal.
Otitis media can cause what type of hearing loss? Mixed
Sensorineural hearing loss is sometimes called: Nerve deafness
What 4 structures of the eyes are considered refractive media? Cornea, Aqueous humor, Lens, Vitreous humor
What are the three types of hearing loss? • Conductive• Sensorineural• Mixed
Mr. Miller shows to the ER stating that he is having trouble hearing. Upon assessment, you noticed that he has impacted cerumen and inflammation of the outer left ear. This may be a sign of: External ear condition such as Otitis Externa
What do the lacrimal glands produce? The lacrimal glands produce tears (water, NaCl, lysosome)
Which type of hearing loss involves the nerves? Sensorineural
What is the medical term for pink eye? Conjunctivitis
What type of drugs constrict the pupil? Miotics
Your 78 year old patient is complaining of seeing halos around lights. Your patient may have: Cataracts
What is the other name for the labyrinth? Inner ear
What are the three bones in the middle of the ear called? • Malleus• Incus• Stapes
Which type of bacteria is responsible for causing a stye to form? Staphylococcus aureus
A patient tells you that he has a 20/180 vision and asks you if that's a good vision number to have? As the nurse, you tell the client that they are only __ points away from being considered legally blind? 20
Which cranial nerve is damaged in ototoxicity? Eighth
Which 2 layers of the eye are separated when the retina becomes detached? The retina (sensory layer) pulls away from the choroid (pigmented layer).
What is the classification of the drugs: Carbachol (Miostat) and Pilocarpine (Pilocarpine)? Miotics
What is the medical term for nearsightedness? Myopia
A healthcare worker is mixing up chemicals. They accidently get splashed into the eye. What is the first thing they should do? Rinse the eye
What type of hearing loss results from interference with the transmission of sound waves from the external or middle ear to the inner ear? Conductive hearing loss
The lens is more convex on the posterior side and can change shape, a quality known as: accommodation
In normal people, painful sounds occur at _____ decibels. 120
_____ help reduce the discomfort of photophobia. Sunglasses
_____ are essential for preventing cataracts. Vitamins A and C
A sense of fullness or pain in the ears is referred to as: Otalgia
_____ can result when microorganisms spread from the eustachian tube to the middle ear during upper respiratory infections. Otitis media
True or False: When testing visual acuity, the nurse holds the Snellen eye chart approximately 12 inches from the client's face. False---When testing visual acuity, the nurse holds the Snellen eye chart 20 feet from the client’s face.
True or False: A tuning fork produces sound in the same range as human speech. True
True or False: Older adults form waxier cerumen and experience fewer impactions in the external acoustic meatus. False---Older adults experience more impactions in the external acoustic meatus.
True or False: To promote safety for older adults with visual impairments, their rooms should remain dimly lit at night. True
True or False: The nurse teaches the client who has undergone enucleation how to insert and remove the prosthetic shell immediately after the surgery. False---The nurse teaches the client who has undergone enucleation how to insert and remove the prosthetic shell 2 to 4 weeks after the surgery, when healing is complete.
True or False: The nurse advises the client with conjunctivitis to discard eye make-up items and not to use new make-up items until the problem clears. True
True or False: Treatment for otitis externa includes aspirating pus by needle and instilling mineral oil into the ear. False---Treatment for otitis externa includes warm soaks, analgesics, and antibiotics.
True or False: Assessment of the client recovering from stapedectomy begins 2 hours after administration of prescribed analgesics. False---Assessment of the client recovering from stapedectomy should begin 30 minutes after administration of prescribed antibiotics.
The type of vision that allows people to discriminate letters, words, and the details of any image. Central vision
The expected response during a caloric stimulation test. Nystagmus, a quivering movement of the eyes.
A small, thin film that contains eye medication. An ocular therapeutic system
The condition in which the outer layers of the retina break down over time and small yellowish spots (drusen) develop on the retina. Dry macular degeneration
A method of communication that uses a hand-spelled alphabet and word symbols. Sign language
The recommended protection for the ears when venturing into the woods or other areas with a high insect population. A hat with earflaps or a scarf.
The type of effects that nurses closely monitor for when administering salicylates, loop diuretics, quinidine, quinine, and aminoglycosides. Ototoxic effects
Uncontrolled oscillating movement of the eyeball: Nystagmus
Drooping upper eyelid: Ptosis
An extended or protruded upper eyelid that delays closing or remains partially open: Proptosis
What is the effect of this treatment mode recommended for clients with Ménière's disease? Low sodium diet Decreases edema
What is the effect of this treatment mode recommended for clients with Ménière's disease? Smoking cessation Prevents vasoconstriction, which interferes with fluid drainage.
What is the effect of this treatment mode recommended for clients with Ménière's disease? Meclizine Suppresses the vestibular system
What is the effect of this treatment mode recommended for clients with Ménière's disease? Diazepam or other tranquilizers Controls vertigo during acute episodes
What is the effect of this treatment mode recommended for clients with Ménière's disease? Promethazine Controls nausea and vomiting
What is the effect of this treatment mode recommended for clients with Ménière's disease? Hydrochlorothiazide or other diuretics Decreases fluid in the endolymphatic system
What is the correct sequence of actions a nurse would take while examining the eye of a patient following an injury. 1-Gently inspect outr srfcs of eye;2-Darken room & shine penlight at eye to look for foreign body;3-Evert the lwr lid;4-Instruct pt to look up;5-Inspect inf conjunctival sac;6-Evert uppr lid;7-Direct the pt to look down;8-Perform gross vision assessment.
An inflammation of the uveal tract, which consists of the iris, ciliary body, and choroid. Uveitis
An inflammation of the cornea. Keratitis
Symptoms include blurred vision and photophobia. Pain varies with the person. The eye appears red and congested; the pupil reacts poorly to light. Uveitis
Symptoms include localized pain or the sensation of a foreign body in the eye. Blinking increases discomfort. Photophobia, blurred vision, tearing, purulent discharge, and redness develop. Keratitis
How would the nurse explain the importance of periodic blinking of the eyes to clients? Periodic blinking clears dust and particles from the surface of the eyes. During blinking, the eyelids spread tears, thereby continually bathing and lubricating the eye surfaces.
Why would the health care provider advise additional tests when results following a Romberg test are abnormal? Central nervous system lesions also may cause abnormal results following the Romberg test.
What types of clients would the nurse advise not to wear contact lenses? Use of contact lenses is likely to worsen problems for people with a history of recurrent eye infections, low tear production, or severe allergic reactions.
Why is it especially important that nurses ask clients with impaired vision their preferences for storing hygiene articles and other objects needed for self-care? Involving clients by asking their preferences promotes their control over the environment, which may be compromised because of their visual impairment.
Why is it important for a client with glaucoma to maintain regular bowel habits? Straining at stool can increase intraocular pressure, which already is elevated in clients with glaucoma.
Why might a nurse encourage a client with otitis externa to temporarily eat soft foods or consume nourishing liquids? Soft foods and nourishing liquids require minimal chewing, which can produce or potentiate discomfort in clients with otitis externa.
The nurse is assessing a client with a history of cataracts. What kind of finding would indicate that the client is experiencing a recurrence? The client reports that the visual image is blurred or cloudy. [A cataract blocks light from reaching the macula. As a result, the visual image becomes blurred or cloudy.]
What advice would the nurse give to a client who has just undergone fluorescein angiography? The nurse informs pt that IV fluorescein causes the skin to yellow slightly for 6 to 8 hrs. He or she also tells the client that the urine turns bright yellow, but the color becomes less noticeable over the following 24 to 36 hours as the dye is excreted.
The nurse is providing teaching for a client with blepharitis. What would be a good recommendation? Frequent washing of the face and hair is recommended in a client with blepharitis, which is associated with seborrhea of the face and scalp.
A client is scheduled to undergo a pneumatic retinopexy. The nurse teaches that the client must recline for approximately _____ hours before the procedure. 16 hours
A client is scheduled to undergo a pneumatic retinopexy. The nurse teaches that the client must recline for approximately 16 hours before the procedure and again assume a restricted position, for up to _____ hours each day for 3 weeks after the procedure. 8 hours
What actions would the nurse perform while administering ear drops to remove excessive cerumen? When administering ear drops to remove excessive cerumen: warm them by holding container in hand for a few mins or placing in warm water; do not insert syringe too deeply to avoid closing off auditory canal; direct flow twrd roof of the canal not eardrum.
A client arrives at the emergency department after an insect has entered his ear. What would the nurse instill into the client's ear to smother the insect? Mineral oil
Created by: pcasanders
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