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CT Registry Prep 1

Question	Answer
_______ blood pressure indicates the pressure within the arteries during cardiac contraction, should be less than ____	systolic 120
_______ blood pressure is measured during relaxation of the heart and should be less than _____	diastolic 80
_____ is a device used to measure pulse and respiratory status. can be placed ____, ____, or ____. Should be within ________	pulse oximeter, finger, toe, or earlobe, 95% to 100%
Normal respiration for child	20-30 resp
__________ refers to the series of blood flow related events that occur from the beginning of one heartbeat to that of the next.	cardiac cycle
It is the frequency of the _________ that determines the patients heart rate.	cardiac cycle
__________ is a graphic representation of the electrical activity of the heart. Used during cardiac CT to evaluate heart rhythm and cycle	electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
Atrial systole is contractions of left and right atria, corresponds with the ______	p wave
Ventricular systole is contractions of the left and right ventricle, corresponds with the beginning of the ______	QRS complex
Complete cardiac diastole is a period of ______ after heart contracts, corresponds with the T wave	Relaxation,
Cardiac CT images are typically reconstructed from the data acquired during ________	diastolic phase
Patients with _____ heart rates exhibit longer diastolic phases, which yield higher quality cardiac CT exams	slower
________ may be used to reduce the patients heart rate for cardiac CT. 65 beats is prefered for optimal imaging.	Beta-adrenergic (b-blockers)
If not contraindicated, sublingual ________ may be used before cardiac CT to cause dilation of coronary vessels improving the vision	nitoglycerine
Normal adult patient temperature	97.7 F- 99.5 F (36.5 C- 37.5 C)
Normal respiration for adult	12-20 resp
Normal adult patient pulse	60-100
Normal patient blood urea nitrogen (BUN)	7-25 mg/dL
Normal patient creatinine (Cr)	.5-1.5 mg/dL
Normal patient GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate)	Adults 90-120ml/min can decrease with age 70+/- 14 mL/min/m men & 60+/- 10mL/min/m women
Normal patient PT (prothrombin time)	12-15 sec
Normal patient PTT (partial thromboplastin time)	25-35 sec
Normal patient INR (international normalized ratio)	.8-1.2
Normal patient platelet count	140,000-440,000 uL of blood
Is the approximation of creatinine clearnace or the rate by which creatinine is filtered from the blood	GFR (glomerular filtration rate)
Is a measure of blood coagulation	PT (prothrombin time)
Is utilized for diagnosing deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism	d-dimer
The presence of elevated _____ in the blood may indicate recently degraded blood clots	d-dimer
If d-dimer is elevated, testing such as CT _____ of the pulmonary arteries may be indicated	angiography
Injection of medication or contrast into blood stream is a type of _____ administration	parenteral
The volume of contrast is administered at a slow rate over a long period Is called	drip infusion
The volume of contrast is pushed into the blood at a rapid rate Is called	bolus injection
power injectors are capable of consistently injecting large volumes of contrast agent at a flow rate of up to ________	5-6 mL/sec
For flow rates up to 3mL/sec, a _______angiocath is used	22 gauge
For flow rated exceeding 3mL/sec, a ________or larger is used	20 gauge (Possible 18 for trauma)
Flushing the tubing with _____ saline immediately after contrast bolus allows for reduction of contrast agent and a streaking artifact	30-50ml
In the event of extravasation, remove catheter, apply __________ compress	warm and moist
______ contrast agents belong to a class of substances known as radiopaque contrast media (RCM)	positive
Examples of 2 radiopaque contrast media (RCM )	barium and iodine
_________ describes the contrast agents propensity (natural tendency) to cause fluid from outside the vessel to move into blood stream	osmolarity
_______ contrast media have greater osmolarity (double of non ionic) due to more iodine (salt) atoms per molecule. Water soluble and mostly harmless to body but have more side affects.	ionic
______ contrast media have low osmolality and less toxicity fewer side affects are non salt chemical compounds.	non ionic
______ contrast media have the same osmolality as blood and can be offered to improve pt comfort and reduced potential of side effects	iso-osmolar (IOCM)
an example of non-ionic iso-osmolar contrast	Iodixanol-Visipaque
Enteral Rectal Contrast Media (RCM) are administered	orally or rectally
Barium sulfate is used to opacify the GI tract, and typical transit time is______	30-90 min
3 Reasons barium is contraindicated (not used)	suspected perferation, future surgery, aspiration
3 negative contrastS used for CT are	water, air, and gas
The range of serum iodine concentration for adequate opacification during CT is ______	2-8mg/ml
Flow rate for central venous catheter	2mL/sec
3 examples of central venous catheters	subclavian lines, implanted access ports, and peripherially inserted central cath (PICC)
For studies of distal large bowel, contrast agent may need to be administered ______prior	4-6hrs
A ____ enema is used to opacify the rectum, the sigmoid, and the distal large bowel	150-300ml
Myelograms uses what method to inject contrast	intrathecally
Injecting contrast into joint space is what type of administration	intra-articular
2 pretreatments for patients that maybe allergic to contrast that are taken 24 hrs prior to exam are______	diphenhydramine HCL (benadryl) and a corticosteroid
People that are at increased risk for adverse reaction	asthma, allergies, renal disease, mult myeloma, diabetes mellitus, pheochromocytoma, sickle cell disease, hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease
contraindications for IV dye	allergy to iodine, allergy to iodinated contrast, renal insufficiency/failure
nausea and vomiting Is a	mild reaction
vasovagal response (Drop in heart rate and B/P making patient faint) is a	moderate reaction
tachycardia from hypotension (Low B/P) is a	moderate reaction
profound (severe) hypotension is a	severe reaction
laryngeal edema (throat swelling) is a	severe reaction
for a bronchospasm reaction to iv contrast what is used to treat	bronchodialator-inhaler
for a urticaria (skin rash) reaction to iv contrast what is used to treat	diphenhydramine-benadryl
for a hypotension reaction to iv contrast what is used to treat	elevate legs and iv fluids
cutaneous (skin) reaction to iv contrast are most common within ________ after administration	3hrs to 7 days
________ is a potentially serious delayed effect of contrast agent administration	contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
4 Groups of patients at risk for contrast induced nephrotoxicity (CIN) include __________	diabetes, myeloma, advanced age, cardiovascular disease
patients taking metformin are at increased chance of _______ when given IV dye	lactic acidosis
what dilates the vessels for cardiac studies	sublingual nitroglycerine
What phase of kidneys best show transitional cell carcinoma	excretory
A rim of viable ischemic (severely damaged) cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed _________	ischemic penumbra
arterial phase of liver time range of bolus tracking is ______	25-35 sec
portal hepatic phase of liver time the range of bolus tracking is _______	60-80 sec
equilibrium, wash out, or delivery phase of liver the range of bolus tracking is _______	3-4 min
arterial phase of pancreas the range of bolus tracking Is _______	20-30 sec
Delayed/Late arterial phase of pancreas the range of bolus tracking is _______	35-45 sec
venous phase of pancreas the range of bolus tracking is _______	60-80 sec
corticomedullary phase of kidney the range of bolus tracking is ______	30-40 sec
nephrographic phase of kidney the range of bolus tracking is _______	70-90 sec
excretory phase of kidney the range of bolus tracking is _______	2-3 min
A math/statistical method that allows for motion free images from helically acquired images	interpolation
________ is multiple detectors that are the same length	uniform matrix array
________ thinnest at center, surrounded by detectors of incrementally increasin widths of z axis	adaptive matrix array
________ narrow detectors are positioned midline flanked by wider detectors	hybrid matrix array
_________reduces image unsharpness & removes blurring	convolution
__________optimal level that is necessary for 3d recon on a ct scan to define region of interest (ROI)	threshold setting
2 forms of analytic image recon	fourier recon & filtered back recon
________ is the product of the X-ray tube current (in milliamperes) and exposure time per rotation (in seconds).	Tube current time product
the full width at half max (FWHM) of scanner is used to describe	spatial resolution
________noise- result of an insufficient xray photon flux per voxel	quantum
What causes a star like streak,	Metal artifacts
What can be done about streaking or what software can take the streaking out	reconstruction algorithms can be applied to smooth the streaks caused by the metal, interpolation
What cause streaks and blurring	motion artifact
Artifact that results from beam hardening and appears on image as a vague area of increased density in a somewhat concentric shape around the periphery of an image similar to the shape of a cup	Cupping or Beam Artifacts
Bands or streaks, reduced by thinner slices and computer algorithms	Partial volume artifact
Equipment miscalibration, poor gantry rigidity, tube wobble or a defective detector element causing a bright or dark ring	Ring artifact
What noise- signal maybe lost and noise introduced to the recon process by the various electronic components of ct	electronic
What noise- artifacts is viewed as noise	artifactual
What artifact occurs between contiguos sections due to inconsistant breathing	misregistration
areas of ct image that contain abrupt changes in tissue density are electricaly represented by ______	high spatial freq
the dimensions of a voxel are determined by multiplying the ________	pixel dimensions x slice thickness
the rate at which a quantity of xrays emitted from the tube pass through a unit area over a unit of time is called	photon flux
Iothalamate Meglumine (Conrad) and Diatrizoate Sodium (Gastroview and Hypaque) which have high osmolarity are what kind of contrast	ionic and developed first
Iopamidol (Isovue), Iohexol (Omni), Lopromide (Ultravist) are what kind of contrast	nonionic
iodixanol or visi is what kind of contrast	nonionic iso osmolar
the radiation dose index calculation that takes into accound the variations in absorption across the vield of view due to beam hardening is called ________	CTDIw (CT dose index weighted)
A math process that allows MDCT images to be recon at any point along the acquired volume is called___________	z-filtering
_________ is the measure of total radiation exposure for entire series of ct images	CTDI vol (CT dose index volume)
dose length product is calculated by multiple what	CTDI vol and total scan length
_________used to approximate the radiation dose for the ct section acquired during a helical scan	CTDI vol
quantity of xrays passing through a unit area. emitted from tube toward pt	photon fluence
Limited resolution on modern ct scanner	25 lp/cm
A high resolution comb is utilized by an MSCT detector array is used in an effort to reduce ______	Scatter
What is the distance between centers of 2 reconstructed ct images called	section interval
clinical indication of coronary artery calcium (CAC)	artherosclerosis
which are tissues other than the structure excluded by setting the threshold value and eliminating pixels above and below	3d shaded surface
when a sharp or high pass recon is used, it does so at the expense of losing	Contrast resolution
convolution enhances important characteristics of attenuation profiles thus reduces what	streak and star artifact
all mdct scanners that have 4 or more rows of detectors use ____________ not filtered back projection	cone beam reconstruction
spatial resolution is dependent on what two things	reconstruction field of view (fov) and image matrix
increasing matrix size will ______ voxel size	decrease
decreasing reconstruction fov will _____ voxel size	decrease
increase slice thickness by _______ voxel size	increasing
decreasing reconstruction fov will ________ pixel size	reduce
decreasing reconstruction fov will __________ spatial resolution	increase
decreasing reconstruction fov will ______ noise	increase
decreasing reconstruction fov will _______ size anatomy	increase
on mdct penumbra appears	on first and last slice
on sdct, penumbra appears	around every slice
5mGy= ___	.05 rad
1mGy=___	.01 rad
hypotension, gray tone to skin, tachycardia, cold clammy blue color, confusion Are symptoms of	Shock
osmolarity of plasma	285
a bone window utilizes a _____ ww (window width) and _____ wl (window level)	Wide High
soft tissues use a ww of ___________ and window level of ___________	300-400 0-50
cone beam artifact looks like _____ coming from structures around the _____ of the image	stars edge
Measure of total pt radiation dose over a given scan acquisition length and is proportional to scan length	dose length product (DLP)
units to express total pt dose	milligray (mGy) per cm
the 3d ct technique that includes all the voxel info in the recon model with adjustments to opacity	volume rendering
reformatted ct that lie perpendicular to the original plane	orthogonal
controlling factors for temporal resolution	gantry rotation speed and recon method
daily air and water calibrations are used to evaluate	linearity
3 Phases of tissue enhancement classifications are________	Bolus and Non-equilibrium and Equilibrium
linear attenuation coefficient for dense bone	.528
linear attenuation coefficient fo muscle	.237
linear attenuation coefficient for white matter	.213
linear attenuation coefficient for gray matter	.212
linear attenuation coefficient for blood	.208
linear attenuation coefficient CSF (cerebral-spinal fluid)	.207
linear attenuation coefficient for water	.206
linear attenuation coefficient for fat	.185
linear attenuation coefficient for lungs	.093
linear attenuation coefficient for air	.0004
ct # dense bone	+1500-2000
ct # muscle	+50 +65
ct # white matter	+40 +46
ct # gray matter	+35 +40
ct # blood	+30 +35
ct # csf	+15
ct # fat	-50 -100
ct # lungs	-550 -950
window level and window width of abdomen	+50 L +400 W
window level and window width of brain	+40 L +80 W
window level and window width of subdural	+50 -100 L +130-300 W
window level and window width of stroke	+35 L +10-30 W
window level and window width of lung	-600 L +1500 W
Window level and window width of liver	+40 L +150 W
Window level and window width of spinal bone	+400 L +1800 W
A patient that has severe vagal reaction to IV contrast that includes bradycardia. what do you give them?	Atropine
Test bolus and bolus triggering are used for _______	Ensuring imaging during peak enhancement regardless of patient age,disease, or cardiac output
in msct, the beam pitch is equal to _____	table feed per rotation divided by total collimation
calculation of the avg cumulative dose to each section within acquisition of multiple sections	msad (multi scan average dose)
if a person is left dominate, the posterior descending artery branches off of_______	left circumflex artery
if a person is right dominate, the posterior descending artery branches off of_______	right coronary artery
what quantifies effective dose	sieverts
test phantom of water is scanned at 5 ROI (region of interest) this is done to evaluate	cross field uniformity
Mild agatston score for calcium seen in heart	11-100
Moderate agatston score for calcium seen in heart	101-400
Extensive agatston score for calcium seen in heart	>400
normal range of cerebral blood volume contained within 100g brain tissue	4-5
Due to it inherent retrospective reconstruction capability the helical CT allows substantially better what?	longitudinal spatial resolution
smaller filament size _______	improves spatial resolution
What controls the volume of transmission data acquired for each gantry rotation	sampling freq or views per rotation
An increase in sampling frequency increases	spatial resolution
A technique that allows the user to select the pixels for a ct 3d reformat is called ________	thresholding
a decrease in apperature size will _____ noise	increase
International system SI unit of radiation dose expressed as absorbed dose and can be used for any type of radiation (alph,beta,neutron,gamma) and does not describe biological effects of radiation	gray (rad)
Biological effects of radiation are measured in units of	Sieverts (older version rem)
ability of a ct system to maintain constant Hounsfield units across homogenous (same) image	uniformity
isotrophic resolution is approached by using _____ _____ and ____ _____	thin slices, small dfov (display field of view)
dimensions of a voxel is found by using	pixel size and section width
high osmolar contrast has avg osmolarity of	1000-2400
a decrease in tube total rotation = ______ and _________	decrease in time decrease pt dose
decrease in total tube rotation from 360 to 180 is known as	half scan or segmenting
Gantry Control to amplifier to software & hardware (s/h) to Analog to Digital Converter (adc) to array processor to host computer to storage or console	CT system components left side
console to host computer to scan controller to digital to analog converter (dac) & high volt generator to gantry control then Gantry	CT system components right side
this is where instructional commands are entered, info about patient, image parameters, post process technique	console
Primary link between tech and other components of imaging system. It translates techs commands entered at the console into the computer language and passes it onto the scan controller or storage device is__________	host computer
host computer passes commands to this which is responsible for timing and operation correct performance of each CT system component once the scanner has been started controls high-voltage generator, gantry and patient tablet	scan control
The components that convert the digital commands coming out of the scan controller into analog commands that can be executed by the power producing and mechanical components	dac (digital to analog converter)
To save the digital data in case it is needed at any time in the future images of kept the long term storage by	Archiving
A pre-defined set of parameters that is used to run a CT scan for specific clinical application	Protocol
The negative terminal of the CT x-ray tube in the part of the tube with the negatively charged electrons flow into the tube from the high bolted generator	cathode
The positive terminal of the CT x-ray tube in the part of the tube where the target material is located	anode
A structure on the cathode terminal of the CT x-ray tube from which the electron beam is released	filament
The area on the anode target bombarded by the electron beam and a factor in determining the image resolution	focal spot
As the mA increases the number of photons	Increase
The perimeter that determines the energy level of x-ray photons produced by the x-ray tube	tube voltage kV
As the kV increases the penetrability of the photons	Increase
This restricts x-rays to only the selected cross-sectional region	Collimation
Has the collimation increases scatter production which results in patient does	decreases
What are the two types of detectors used in CT	Gas and solid state detectors
When a photon strikes an xenon atom the atom splits into an ion and an electron and can be measured as an	electrical impulse
Xenon gas detectors can only be used in what generation scanner which is giving a chamber aligned with the CT x-ray tube at all times because of the narrow chambers	Third
What is the most prevalent type of detectors used in today’s CT scanners	Solid state
Specialized computer component used to reconstruct a CT images	Array processor
A component that aids in the distribution viewing and storage facility for digital images across an imaging facilities computer network	picture archiving & communication system (PACS)
The standard used for communicating digital medical information which was established to improve workflow efficiency between imaging systems in healthcare environments worldwide	digital imaging & communications in medicine (DICOM)
low window level is	brighter
high window level is	darker
intrathecal injection goes into	subarachnoid space
patients vessels dilate to compensate for the increased volume of fluid. causes the flushed nausea feeling and is directly contributed to the total voume, rate of injection viscosity (Thickness) is what type of reaction	chemotoxic
What reaction- result of histamine being release	idiosycratic
The methods and tools used to protect patients in personnel from ionizing radiation exposure	Radiation safety
Radiologist or medical physicists who are approved by the NRC and state organizations to ensure that institutions comply with guidelines for radiation safety	Radiation safety officer
What stage in which the radiation can cause the most harm to the fetus due to the embryo being more sensitive to harmful effects of radiation than an adult	First trimester
medical wrong doing or failure to do something a professional negligence most common charge against healthcare workers	malpractice
breach or failure to fulfill expected standard of care and an unintentional arming of a person by acting in an improper way	negligence
the negligent act speaks for itself	res ipsa loquitor
Because in which a person is harmed because of another persons actions or failure to act. Examples are assault and battery and false imprisonment and malpractice	tort
Intentionally threatening or attempting to harm a person. And example is telling a person that he is going to do something that he does not want to	assault
Intentionally touching another person without a persons permission even if contact is not causing harm. Example is doing something to the patient that the patient has said they don’t want done	battery
Intentionally violating a persons freedom. Example is using restraints	false imprisonment

Created by: Reeni1995

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