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HGTC 221 Burns 1
Burns NUR 221 Test 3
Question | Answer |
---|---|
True or False? There is no pain with Full thickness Burns. | False. With full thickness burns, there is bound to be areas of partial thickness burns in periphery, which are incredibly painful. Full thickness burns themselves are painless. |
Hallmarks of superficial burns…. | Painful, no edema, redness, blanched with pressure |
Hallmarks of Partial thickness burns… | blistered, moist, painful |
Hallmarks of full thickness burns: | dry, discolored, no pain |
Treat burn patients with falls and electrical injuries as… | potential cervical spine injuries |
Patients with potential cervical spine injuries will have there neck braces removed when? | After X-ray confirms absence of spine injury |
A client went to the beach and was sunburned. Which is a proper classification of this burn? | A sunburn is a superficial burn. |
A full-thickness burn is identified by: | the destruction of the entire dermis |
With partial degree (2nd-degree) burns, skin regeneration begins to take place: | in 2-4 weeks |
Plasma seeps into the surrounding tissues after a burn. The greatest amount leaks out in: | 24-36 hours |
As fluid is reabsorbed after injury, renal funtion retains a diuresis for up to: | 2 weeks |
Fluid shifts during the 1st week of the acute phase of a burn injury that cause massive cell destruction result in: | hyperkalemia |
Plasma leakage produces edema, which increases: | the hematocrit level |
Normal hematocrit: | males- 42-54%, females 38-46% |
The leading cause of death in fire victims is believed to be | carbon monoxide intoxication |
A serious GI disturbance frequently seen with a major burn is: | paralytic ileus |
A child tips a pot of boiling water onto his bare legs. The mother should: | immerse child's legs in cool water |
As 1st priority of care, a patient with a burn injury will need: | an airway established |
Eyes that have been irritated or burned with a chemical should be flushed w/ cool, clean water: | immediately |
A nurse knows that a burn injury of 25% of total body surface area is classified as: | moderate |
Electrolyte changes in the 1st 48 hours of a major burn include: | base bicarbonite deficit |
The Evans formula for replacing fluid lost during the 1st 24-48 hours recommends the administration of: | colloids, electrolytes, glucose |
One parameter of adequate fluid replacement is an hourly urinary output in the range of: | 30-50 mL |
During the fluid remobilization phase, the nurse knows to expect the following: | hemodilution, increased urinary output, sodium deficit |
What would the nurse NOT expect during fluid remobilization? | metabolic alkalosis |
Fluid and electrolyte changes in the emergent phase of burn injury include__________, ____________, and ___________ | base bicarbonite deficit, elevated hematocrit, sodium deficit |
Fluid remobilization usually begins: | after 48 hours, when fluid is being reabsorbed from interstitial tissue |
Wound cleansing and debridement usually begin when eschar begins to separate at: | 1.5 to 2 weeks |
Leukopenia within 48 hours is a side effect associated with topical antibacterial agent: | sulfadiazene, silver (Silvadene) |
Biologic dressings that use skin from living or recently deceased humans are known as: | homografts (think of that homo with the skin suit from "Silence of the Lambs") |
An example of a permanent burn wound covering that is used to support an autograph is: | Alloderm |
The most likely prescribed anlagesic for acute burn pain is: | morphine sulfate |
The recommended route for administering low-dose narcotics is: | intravenous |
The backbone of nutritional support during burn injury is | High protein, high calorie (up to 5,000 calories/day) |
Early indicatators of late-stage septic shock include: | decreased pulse pressure, pale, cool skin, renal failure. |
Early indicators of late-stage septic shock DO NOT include: | a full, bounding pulse |
The 2 age groups most at risk for burn injury are: | the very young and elderly. |
The majority of burns occur… | at home, in the kitchen |
Burn injuries are classified according to ____________, and_____________ | depth of injury, extent of injured body surface area |
List 2 pulonary complications that occur secondary to inhalation injuries | acute respiratory failure, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) |
The leading cause of death in thermally injured patients is | sepsis |
The 1st priority of on the scene care for a person with burn injury is to | prevent injury to the rescuer |
List 4 collaberative problems for a patient in the emergent phase of burn injury: | acute respiratory failure, distributive shock, acute renal failure, compartment syndrome |
List 3 disorders of wound healing: | hypertrophic scarring, keloid formation, contractures |
An ER client has a blood pressure of 96/62 and has full thickness burns on the chest and neck. The nurse's immediate response is to: | Call the physician and prepare to intubate the client (clients w/ burns to the face are at increased risk for inhalation injury. The edema that results can be sudden and occlude airway almost immediately) |
The nurse is caring for a client with full thickness burns on 50% of his body. The spouse asks why he looks so puffy. The nurse's best response is: | The burn causes his fluids to shift into his tissues and that is causing the puffiness. |
The nurse assesses that a client is at risk for developing DIC. Which lab finding should be reported to the physician immediately? | Fibrinogen level 110mg/dL. (Normal adult level is 140-400 mg/dL) A decreased level indicates an excessive use of fibrinogen during clotting process. |
The most frequent thermal injury is: | scald injuries |
debridement | removal of foreign material and devitalized tissue until surrounding healthy tissue is exposed |
eschar | devitalized tissue resulting from a burn |
Advise parents to set water heater no higher than: | 120 F |
Factors in determining depth of burn: | How injury occurred, causative agent, temp of agent, duration of contact w/ agent, thickness of skin |
In the palm method, the size of the patient's palm is approx ____% of TBSA | 1% |
In the rule of nines, which body parts are represented as 9%? | Each arm and the head |
Which is the most precise method for determining burn injury and more appropriate for children? | Lund and Browder Method |
After an electrical burn, a cardiac monitor should be used for how long? | For at least 24 hours or until patient is stable. Cardiac dysrhythmias are common after this type of injury. |
In the Lund and Browder method, assessments should be made when? | Initial evaluation on arrival of patient, and is revised on 2nd and 3rd postburn days, because demarcation usually is not clear until then |
Critical components of care a thermal burn injury are: | Prompt administration of IV fluids and and monitoring of urine output |
In a patient receiving fluid resuscitation, what urine output is expected? | 75-100 mL/hour |
Burns are caused by a transfer of_____________ to __________ energy from a | heat source, to the body |
Examples of thermal burns: | Sunburn, House fire, electrical |
Burns that do not exceed 25% TBSA produce a primarily_____________ | local response |
Major burn injuries________________, and may produce both_____________ and______________ | exceed 25% TBSA, local response, a systemic response |
Chemical burns are generally initially treated by… | rinsing off with running water |
During burn shock, serum sodium levels___________in response to fluid resuscitation | vary |
An escharotomy may be performed to | relieve the constricting effect of burned tissue |
During burn shock,_____________ is common | Hyponatremia (sodium depletion) |
Immediately after burn injury,________________ results from massive cell destruction | hyperkalemia (excessive potassium) |
Later in burn injury,____________ may occur with fluid shifts and inadequate potassium replacement | hypokalemia (potassium depletion) |
With a true electrical injury, there is a___________ and a (an)______________ | entrance wound, exit wound |
The systemic response in a major burn injury is cause by the release of _______________ and___________into the systemic circulation | cytokines, other mediators (these put patient at risk for distributive shock!) |
Systemic edema is usually maximal after___________ hours, and completely resolved in _____ days | 24-48 hours post-burn, 7-10 days |
In burns covering less than 25% of TBSA edema is | in burned and surrounding areas |
In burns over 25% TBSA, edema is | generalized |
Edema in burn wounds can be reduced by____________ | avoiding unnecessary overresuscitation |
Burn shock is a combination of which 2 types? | distributive and hypovolemic shock |
Fluid shifts and shock result in _______________ and___________________ tissue | hypoperfusion, organ hypofunction |
The most common cause of inhalation injury is__________ | carbon monoxide |
What is essential in accelerating the removal of carbon monoxide from the hemoglobin molecule? | Administering 100% oxygen (carbon monoxide competes with oxygen on hemoglobin molecule!) |
Upper airway injury results from… | direct heat or edema |
Upper airway injury is treated by_____________ | early nasotracheal or endotracheal intubation |
Inhalation below the glottis results from inhaling the products of | incomplete combustion or noxious gases (carbon monoxide biggest culprit) |
Inhalation injury below the glottis is usually not a _____________ issue | airway issue (glottis doesn’t close) |
The cardinal sign of inhalation below the glottis is: | expectoration of carbon particles in the sputum. |
What is the leading cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with thermal injuries? | Sepsis |
Serious burn injury diminishes………. | resistance to infection |
Immunosuppression places the patient with burn injury at high risk for__________ | sepsis |
Any patient with possible airway injuries must be observed for at least __________ for respiratory complications because_____________ | 24 hours, airway obstruction may occur very rapidly or develop in hours. Decreased lung compliance, decreased arterial oxygen levels, and respiratory acidosis may occur over the 1st 5 days after a burn. |
The emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury involves… | onset of injury to completion of fluid resuscitation |
Priorities in the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury are.. | Prevent injury to rescuer, stop injury, ABCs, Start oxygen and large bore Ivs, Remove restrictive objects and cover wound, Do assessment and obtain history, Treat all pats w/ falls and electrical injuries as potential cervical spine injury! |
When inserting large bore Ivs during emergent phase, what are some guidelines? | At least 2, 18s, Acs if possible, must be away from burn and not distal to burn |
The four major goals relating to burns: | "Prevention, Institution of lifesaving measures for the severely burned person, Prevention of disability and disfigurement through early, specialized, individualized treatment, Rehabilitation through reconstructive surgery and rehabilitative programs |
In patients with scattered burns, the__________method is used. | palm |
Electrical burns can cause… | seizures |
Trauma causes the release of potassium into extracellular fluid resulting in: | hyperkalemia |
Sodium traps in edema fluid and shifts into cells as poatassium is released resulting in: | hyponatremia |
The recommended route for giving pain meds is: | IV (necessary due to altered tissue perfusion from burn injury) |
Patients with electrical burns should have an | EKG |
True or False? A blood pressure cuff can be placed around a patient's burned extremity? | True. The cuff must be of the correct size and with accommodations made for the bulky dressings |
Nausea and vomiting typically occur due to.. | paralytic ileus- therefore patient must be placed in a position to prevent aspiration and no fluid is given by mouth |
If a patient has contact lenses… | they must be removed immediately |
Survival of the patient with burn injury depends on… | adequate fluid resuscitation |
Signs of possible inhalation injury and risk of respiratory dysfunction | Erythma or blistering of lips or buccal mucosa, singed nostrils, burns of face, neck, or chest, increasing hoarseness, soot in sputum or tracheal tissue in respiratory secretions. |
"Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of a deep partial thickness burn? | No edema |
"What are characteristics of a deep partial thickness burn? | broken epidermis, edema, a mottled, red base, and a weeping surface |
True or False? Electrical burns can cause significant internal damage? | True. The devastating effects of electric burns can cause lifelong neurovascular problems. Entry and exit wounds exist with a true electric burn. |
"Which of the following phases of burn care encompasses the beginning of diuresis to near completion of wound closure? | Acute. |
What are local responses to burns? | acute inflammation, Intravascular coagulation, cellular enzymes and vasoactive substances, actiation of compliment, altered vascular permeability |
Anasarca | also known as "extreme generalized edema" is a medical condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space. Seen in burns over 25% TBSA |
What is an immediate nursing intervention in anticipation of post burn edema? | Remove patient's jewelry on affected extremities (rings, watches, earrings). DOCUMENT where items are kept and /or who they were given to due to liability issues! |
Occult blood in stools, regurgitation of "coffee ground" material from the stomach, or bloody vomitus may be a signs of: | Curling's ulcer |
Curling's Ulcer | an acute peptic ulcer of the duodenum resulting as a complication from severe burns. Give Zantac or nexium to reduce acid. |
What nursing interventions help with contractures? | Maintain positions of joints in alignment, perform gentle ROM exercises, Consult ot and PT for exercises and positioning recommendations |
Early signs of sepsis may include: | increased temperature, increased pulse rate, widened pulse pressure, and flushed dry skin in unburned areas |