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Patho Final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Leukemia is classified as: | Acute or chronic |
| A patient has a thrombosis. While reviewing the history the nurse found the patient has atherosclerosis. To which component of the Virchow triad does the atherosclerosis correlate? | Endothelial injury |
| Hypersplenism occurs when: | The spleen is overactive |
| The best treatment for multiple myeloma: | Chemotherapy |
| What type of cell is most affected by acute leukemia? | Blast cell |
| You observe a platelet count of 9000/mm3, which condition must you monitor for this patient? | Spontaneous bleeding |
| What symptoms should you assess for in a patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma? | Night sweats, low grade fevers and weight loss |
| A patient has lymphoblastic lymphoma. Which organ is most affected? | Thymus |
| A patient has multiple myeloma. Which area of the body does the nurse closely monitor for the tumor masses? | Bones |
| A patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which lab report should the nurse closely monitor for this patient? | Lymphocyte counts |
| Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the: | Left ventricle |
| One complication of sustained hypertension is | anemia |
| Mitogens such as angiotensin 2 and growth factors stimulate: | Smooth muscle proliferation |
| If a patient's history indicates cardiac valve disease is autosomal dominant, which diagnosis will the nurse observe written in the chart? | Mitral valve prolapse |
| Prinzmetal angina is caused by | vasospasm |
| A patient is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures does the nurse assess for this patient? | Right sided heart failure |
| A patient's coronary blood flow is insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of the myocytes. Which term will the nurse use to describe this process? | Myocardial ischemia |
| A nurse is asked why myocardial ischemia is usually reversible within 20 mins. What is the best answer? | Anaerobic metabolism maintains cellular integrity for approximately 20 mins |
| The main white blood cell that plays a role in development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis is the | macrophage |
| Secondary hypertension is caused by | An underlying disease process or medication that raises peripheral vascular resistance or cardiac output |
| High ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ration can be caused by: | obstruction to pulmonary blood flow |
| Dyspnea that occurs when someone lies flat and is common in individuals with heart failure | Orthopnea |
| All disorders associated with ARDS cause massive pulmonary | Inflammation |
| A patient has recently developed chronic bronchitis. Which assessment finding is typical for this patient? | A productive cough |
| What term is used to describe hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia? | Clubbing |
| A patient has pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath and hemoptysis. The PCP suspects a pulmonary embolus. Which lab tests should the nurse check to help confirm the diagnosis? | D-dimer levels |
| What assessment finding indicates that the patient is experiencing dyspnea | Feelings of shortness of breath |
| A patient in the ER reports coughing up blood, night sweats and recently "Feeling tired all the time". The patient is feverish. What medical condition does the nurse suspect? | Tuberculosis |
| An area where alveoli are ventilated but not perfused is termed: | Alveolar dead space |
| Obstruction to pulmonary blood flow results in | Decreased perfusion and a high V/Q ratio |
| A patient has non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL). When the nurse is reviewing the history, which finding is a risk factor for NHL? Appendectomy 1 year ago Bacterial infection Heart disease Organ transplant 2 years ago | organ transplant 2 years ago Causes of NHL include immunosuppression following organ transplantation, viral infection, and chemical exposure. |
| A patient has lymphoblastic lymphoma. Which organ is most affected? Thymus Thyroid Lungs Liver | Thymus The disease arises from a clone of relatively immature T cells that |
| A patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which laboratory report should the nurse monitor closely in this patient? Sodium levels Urine analysis Lymphocyte counts Schilling test | Lymphocyte counts Lymphocytopenia is a major problem in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). |
| A patient has infectious mononucleosis, which immune cells are most affected? T lymphocytes Neutrophils Basophils B lymphocytes | B lymphocytes Infectious mononucleosis (IM) is an acute infection of B lymphocytes (B cells) with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). |
| patients with liver disease typically have bleeding problems. Bleeding problems result from: thrombocytopenia and abnormal platelet functioning. increased protein C levels. decreased fibrinolytic activity. hypertension and fluid overload. | thrombocytopenia and abnormal platelet functioning. Thrombocytopenia and thrombocytopathies are manifestations of liver disease. |
| When a nurse observes a platelet count of 9,000/mm3, which condition must the nurse monitor for in this patient? Pernicious anemia Spontaneous bleeding Infection Sepsis | Spontaneous bleeding Spontaneous bleeding without trauma can occur with counts ranging from 10,000/mm3 to 15,000/mm3. |
| A nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which laboratory test should the nurse ask the primary care provider to order? Urinalysis D-dimer Arterial blood gases Potassium | D-dimer Detection of D-dimers is a widely used test for DIC. |
| A patient has a thrombosis. the patient has atherosclerosis. To which component of the Virchow triad does the atherosclerosis correlate? Endothelial injury Stasis of blood Hypercoaguability Volume of blood | Endothelial injury Endothelial injury to blood vessels can result from atherosclerosis (plaque deposits on arterial walls). |
| A patient has acute leukemia. A nurse recalls the cell most affected by this disease is a: mature cell. blast cell. differentiated cell. hypochromic cell. | blast cell. Acute leukemia is characterized by undifferentiated or immature cells, usually a blast cell. differentiated cell. |
| A nurse is teaching about obesity and adipokines. Which information should the nurse include? Obesity causes a decrease of: leptin. adiponectin. homocysteine. C reactive protein. | adiponectin. Obesity also causes decreased levels of adiponectin, which is a hormone that functions to protect the vascular endothelium and is anti-inflammatory. |
| A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis. The main white blood cell that plays a role in the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis is the: mast cell. neutrophil. macrophage. lymphocyte. | macrophage. Macrophages phagocytose lipids in the tunica media of the vessel wall and accumulate, forming the fatty streak. |
| If a patient has secondary hypertension, the nurse realizes that the patient has an abnormal blood pressure caused by: elevated levels of LDL. high sodium intake. genetics. an underlying disease. | Secondary hypertension is caused by an underlying disease process or medication that raises peripheral vascular resistance or cardiac output. |
| the patient has stenosis of a heart valve. How does the nurse interpret this finding? The valve: permits blood to flow backward. fails to shut completely. is constricted and narrowed. regurgitates and causes insufficiency. | s constricted and narrowed. In valvular stenosis, the valve orifice is constricted and narrowed, so blood cannot flow forward and the workload of the cardiac chamber proximal to the diseased valve increases. |
| A patient's coronary blood flow is insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of the myocytes. Which term will the nurse use to describe this process? Hypertension Metabolic syndrome Myocardial ischemia Diuresis | Myocardial ischemia Myocardial ischemia develops if the flow or oxygen content of coronary blood is insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of myocardial cells. |
| A nurse is asked what causes Prinzmetal angina. How should the nurse respond? Prinzmetal angina is caused by: blood clots in the coronary artery. hypoxemia from respiratory disease. vasospasm. deep vein thromboses. | vasospasm. Prinzmetal angina is a special type of chest pain that occurs transiently at rest because of vasospasm. |
| normal blood pressure Systolic pressure greater than 140 mm Hg and diastolic pressure greater than 90 mm Hg Systolic pressure less than 150 mm Hg and diastolic pressure less than 100 mm Hg Systolic pressure less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic pr | Systolic pressure less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure less than 80 mm Hg According to JNC VII, normal blood pressure is a systolic pressure less than 120 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of less than 80 mm Hg. |
| Mitogens, such as angiotensin II, and growth factors stimulate: smooth muscle proliferation. endothelial injury. cardiac muscle toxicity. activation of phagocytes. | smooth muscle proliferation. In atherosclerosis, mitogens and growth factors stimulate smooth muscle proliferation around the fatty streak. |
| A patient has atherosclerosis. Which factor associated with endothelial injury will the nurse observe written in the history? Anemia Autoimmunity BP 110/70 Nonsmoker | Autoimmunity Autoimmune factors, infectious microorganisms, and smoking are among the possible causes of endothelial injury. |
| what causes aortic stenosis later in life. Aortic stenosis usually results from: congenital disorders. rheumatic heart disease and loss of muscle fibers. degeneration and calcification of the valve. Marfan syndrome. | degeneration and calcification of the valve. Aging changes to the valves include degeneration and calcification that can result in aortic stenosis. |
| A patient has adenocarcinoma of the lungs. What type of cancer does this patient have? A tumor arising from the lung glands Small cell carcinoma Tumors in the larynx and vocal cord Subtle tumors of the lip and mouth | A tumor arising from the lung glands Adenocarcinoma (a tumor arising from glands) of the lung constitutes 35% to 40% of all bronchogenic carcinomas. |
| A nurse recalls that a high ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio can be caused by: decreased ventilation. alveolar collapse. obstruction to pulmonary blood flow. bronchoconstriction. | obstruction to pulmonary blood flow. Obstruction to pulmonary blood flow results in decreased perfusion and a high V/Q ratio. |
| risk for developing a pulmonary embolism? A 25 male with asthma A 28-year-old female in the first trimester of pregnancy A 42-year-old female with a broken arm A 67-year-old male hospitalized with a deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein | A 67-year-old male hospitalized with a deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein The presence of deep vein thrombosis in the lower limb is the most important risk factor for pulmonary embolism. |
| A patient has a decreased drive to breathe. Which condition should the nurse monitor for in this patient? Hyperglycemia Hyperpnea Hypercapnia Hyperventilation | Hypercapnia A decreased drive to breathe will result in hypoxemia and hypercapnia. |
| When conducting a physical assessment of a patient during an acute asthma episode, the nurse would expect to observe: paralysis of accessory breathing muscles. bradypnea. pulsus paradoxus. eupnea. | pulsus paradoxus. During an acute asthma episode, pulsus paradoxus may be noted. |
| A patient has recently developed chronic bronchitis. Which assessment finding is typical for this patient? Productive cough Mouth sores A barrel chest Severe dyspnea | Productive cough A productive cough for at least 3 months is the classic sign of chronic bronchitis. |
| A patient asks the nurse what is most closely associated with the development of lung cancer? How should the nurse respond? Excessive alcohol drinking Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Cigarette smoking Endocrine disorders | Cigarette smoking The most common cause of lung cancer is tobacco smoking. |
| patient has pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The pcp suspects a pulmonary embolus. Which lab test should be checked to help confirm this diagnosis? D-dimer levels Red blood cell count Potassium levels IgE count | D-dimer levels The diagnosis is made by measuring elevated levels of D-dimer in the blood in combination with scanning using spiral computed tomography (CT). |
| Which term will the nurse use to describe hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia? Hemoptysis Clubbing Cyanosis A bulla | Clubbing Clubbing is manifested by enlargements/hypertrophy at the base |
| A patient has dyspnea when lying down. What term should the nurse use to document this finding? Clubbing Dyspnea on exertion Orthopnea Bradypnea | Orthopnea Orthopnea is dyspnea that occurs when an individual lies flat and is common in individuals with heart failure. |
| A patient has a dilated ureter from an obstructed upper urinary tract. Which term will the nurse use to describe the condition? | Hydroureter |
| A patient experiences relief of bilateral kidney obstruction which results in postobsructive diaresis. What risks are associated with this situation? | Fluid and electrolyte imbalances |
| Which of the following symptoms is associated with overactive bladder syndrome? | Nocturia |
| A nurse is describing bladder dysfunction caused by neurologic disorders like stroke, traumatic brain injury, dementia, and brain tumors. Which of the following the terms refers to this type of bladder dysfunction? | Neurogenic bladder |
| The nurse is assessing a patient with bladder cancer. Which of the following is a typical finding for patients with bladder cancer? | Hematuria |
| A patient with cystitis reports painful urination. The nurse will document this symptom as which of the following? | Dysuria |
| A patient presents with a UTI. The nurse know that the most common causative pathogen is | Escherichia coli |
| A patient has chronic pylonenephritis. What would the nurse expect to see in the is patient? | Kidney scarring |
| The nurse is describing the pathophysiology of glomerulonephritis. Which of the following mechanisms represent a major component of both primary and secondary glomerular injury? | Antigen antibody complexes that deposit within the glomerulus |
| Which of the following occurs when normally soluble material such as calcium and oxalate supersaturates the urine and begins the process of crystal formation? | Kidney stones |
| Virchow triad | The risk for developing spontaneous thrombi is related to several factors, (1) injury to the blood vessel endothelium, (2) abnormalities of blood flow, and (3) hypercoagulability of the blood. |
| Atherosclerosis | s a condition characterized by thickening and hardening of the vessel wall. |
| thrombus | A stationary clot attached to the vessel wall |
| Embolism | is the obstruction of a vessel by an embolus—a bolus of matter circulating in the bloodstream. may consist of a dislodged thrombus; an air bubble; an aggregate of amniotic fluid; an aggregate of fat, bacteria, or cancer cells; or a foreign substance. |
| Laboratory tests to evaluate disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). | Detection of D-dimers |
| Shift-to-the-left phenomena | indicates the presence of immature neutrophils in blood and usually, but not always, indicates an inflammatory leukogram |
| polycythemia |
Created by:
Juels1110
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