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CDC 3S051A (ED.05)
CDC 03 AUG 09, 3S051A ED.05, all three volumes
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| (001) What is the mission of the MPE? | To provide quality personnel support to commanders, Air Force members, and their family members through the administration of personnel programs and to administer personnel programs in both peacetime and wartime. |
| (001) Which MPE services AFRC GSUs that do not report to RSGs? | The reserve MPE which services the parent wing/group; however, if a GSU is collocated on an installation with a reserve MPE, then that MPE provides service regardless of RSG affiliation. |
| (001) When is it acceptable for the MPE to be closed during normal duty hours? | When authorized by the installation commander and when thoroughly advertised to the serviced population. |
| (001) Under which group is the MPE aligned? | Under the support group; more specifically, it part of the Force Support Squadron. |
| (001) What sections make up the active MPE configuration? | Personnel relocations and employment, personnel systems, personnel readiness, and customer support. |
| (001) What is the definition for joint organization? | Defined as "an organization in which elements of more than one Service of the same nation participate". |
| (002) What personnel work directly for unit commanders in support of the unit's peacetime and wartime mission and are responsible for a variety of military personnel programs that impact on the health, morale, and welfare of squadron members? | Commander's Support Staff (CSS) personnel. |
| (002) Who serves as the personnel resource manager for equitable assignment of 3S0X1 personnel to the host units? | MPE commander or superintendent |
| (002) How often should the MPEs conduct SAVs to the CSSs? | At least annually. |
| (002) What action must be taken when a limiting factor is discovered that compromises the CSS mission capability? | CSS must notify the MPE commander immediately. |
| (003) When is a unit normally considered to be geographically separated from its servicing MPE? | If it is not normally within one hour's driving time (one way) of its servicing MPE, it is considered to be geographically separated. |
| (003) When is a GSU authorized to accomplish all personnel actions as relocation processing and reenlistment packages? | When mutually agreed upon by the MPE and GSU commanders. |
| (003) How is a request to establish a satellite of an active duty MPE submitted? | For active MPE, MAJCOMs submit requests to AFPC/DPSFM for approval not later than 10 months before desired implementation date. |
| (003) As a minimum, to whom does the SPA provide support? | All collocated Air Force personnel. |
| (004) What is a joint mission? | The employment of forces of two or more services in a coordinated action toward a common mission. |
| (004) Who is responsible for developing overall mobilization planning policy? | HAF |
| (004) Who establishes policy guidance for efficiently and accurately deploying military and civilian personnel? | Director of Military Personnel Policy |
| (004) What consists of the fundamental principles that guide the employment of forces of two or more services? | Joint Doctrine |
| (201) At the end of the fiscal year, Air Force members who are assigned to an operational mission at the national level can keep accrued leave up to | 90 days when they have at least 60 days assigned. |
| (201) When an Air Force member becomes ill or needs hospitalization while on leave, who advises the leave approving authority? | The next of kin (NOK). |
| (201) Convalescent leave begins the day of discharge from a medical treatment facility (MTF) and ends on the | day before the member returns to duty. |
| (201) What is emergency leave? | Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrused, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member's presence. |
| (202) The date that leave requests appear on the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) must be posted to the | unit leave control control log. |
| (202) When a unit begins a new series of leave authorization numbers on or after 1 October, this is determined by the | financial services officer (FSO) |
| (202) Block assignments must be verified against the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) at least every | 45 days |
| (203) The original Notification Memo must be sent to the Military Personnel Element (MPE) within | 10 days |
| (204) The Individualized Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program is a tool that commanders use to make sure that members who have relocation pending are able to obtain | personal assistance through sponsorship, if requested. |
| (204) A base Individualized Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program manager is not responsible for | implementing the INTRO program |
| (204) The base Individualized Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program manager prepares a sponsor kit that includes a | base fact sheet |
| (204) Within what timeframe of their selection as sponsor should a sponsor mail the sponsor kit to an inbound member? | 7 calendar days |
| (205) Which one of these categories: Financial Support, Medical Support, Locator Information, Military Equal Opportunity, is not a part of the commander's support staff (CSS) responsibilities during unit in-processing procedure? | Medical Support |
| (205) Airman Smith just arrived to your unit, her duty information must be updated within | 1 duty day |
| (206) When divorced military members do not have custody of their children, when are they eligible to receive basic allowance for subsistance (BAS)? | When it preserves the visitation rights of the member. |
| (206) In which ranks are enlisted members automatically authorized basic allowance for subsistance (BAS)? | E-7 through E-9 |
| (206) What factors can the commander consider when authorizing basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) for members who are not automatically authorized to receive it? | Dining hall capacity and location of member's residence. |
| (206) Which type of basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) must be approved by the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)? | Rations under emergency conditions |
| (206) How often is a unit required to verify basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) authorizations? | Annually |
| (207) Within what timeframe must the military personnel element (MPE) return the essential station messing (ESM) roster to the food service officer? | 5 work days |
| (207) Which of these items: Name, Office Symbol, Rank, and Unit, is not required on the ESM addition/deletion letter? | Office Symbol |
| (208) Who determines which optional documents are filed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF)? | Commander |
| (208) Today, the commander signed section V of an AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, putting a staff sergeant on the control roster. What is the final disposition date? | Twelve months from today |
| (208) Which of these documents: Article 15 punishment, control roster action, record of conviction adjudged by court martial, and record of failure in substance abuse reorientation treatment in either track 3 or track 4, is an optional item in the UIF? | Article 15 punishment |
| (208) What is the only mandatory document that is referred to an officer with the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, before it is filed in an unfavorable information file (UIF)? | Letter of reprimand (LOR) |
| (208) How many duty days does a member have to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish an unfavorable information file (UIF)? | 3 duty days |
| (208) What does the UIF monitor mark on the front and the back of an unfavorable information file (UIF) folder? | For Official Use Only |
| (208) How long after a permanent appointment to a command must a commander review all unit unfavorable information files (UIF)? | Within 90 days |
| (208) When does the unfavorable information file (UIF) monitor audit UIFs? | At least twice a year |
| (208) What action is taken by the temporary duty (TDY) commander when an unfavorable information file (UIF) is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station when they complete TDY? | Send the completed package to the member's unit commander. |
| (209) The stated purpose of the control roster is to | observe and monitor members who have demonstrated substandard duty performance. |
| (209) Who has the authority to place a member on the control roster? | Unit Commander |
| (209)Which action should commanders consider before entering or removing a member from the control roster? | Directing that an EPR (enlisted) or OPR (officer) be written. |
| (209) When will SSgt Jones be removed from the control roster if he was placed on it on 9 March? | 8 September at 2400 hours |
| (209) When can a member who is on the control roster change units under a permanent change of assignment (PCA) action? | When the PCA is essential to the mission and both the losing and gaining commander concur. |
| (209) What action takes place once a commander signs the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action? | The member acknowledges the action and submits statements on his or her own behalf within 3 days. |
| (210) What must be included when a Record of Individual Counseling (RIC) is forwarded from the initiator to a member's commander? | The member's acknowledgement and any documents submitted by the member. |
| (210) If a Letter of Counseling (LOC) is not placed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF), it must be | placed in the personnel information file (PIF). |
| (211) Which of the following: mitigation, parole, remission or suspension, is normally a reward for good behavior? | Remission |
| (211) The maximum Article 15 punishment a commander can impose is based on | the grade of the commander and the offender. |
| (212) Which ranks can be demoted for just cause? | Amn through CMSgt |
| (212) A commander may initiate administrative demotion action after a member reenlists for events that occurred before the current enlistment | when the commander was not aware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of the enlistment expired. |
| (212) What is the lowest grade to which SSgt Bush can be demoted? | A1C (E-3) |
| (212) Which of the following: failure to keep fit, termination of student status, conduct unbecoming an officer, or failure to fulfill NCO responsibilities, is not a reason for demotion? | conduct unbecoming an officer |
| (212) The commander is submitting a memorandum to demote A1C Hooper. What information does the memorandum contain? | A statement that Hooper may request a personal hearing before the initiating commander. |
| (212) Members who have been notified of a projected administrative demotion must present either oral or written statements in their own behalf within how many duty days after they have been notified? | 3 duty days |
| (213) How many days can a member be placed in duty status "whereabouts unknown"? | 10 |
| (213) You change a member's duty status to "failure to go" when they have an unauthorized absence of | 24 hours or less |
| (213) You may change members' duty status to "deserter" if they are absent for less than 30 days and | have action pending on a previous unauthorized absence. |
| (213) What action does a commander take on the 31st day of a unit member's unauthorized absence? | Sends a letter to the next of kin (NOK) and those receiving allotments. |
| (214) The Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) applies to | all enlisted personnel |
| (214) A1C Frosty is a first-term airman who enlisted for 4 years. When will she be considered under the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP)? | Once she has completed 33 months of active service. |
| (214) What does the commander's support staff (CSS) provide to the immediate supervisor of a member who is due Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) consideration? | A Report on Individual Personnel (RIP) |
| (214) What action does the unit commander take when all members on the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster are selected for continued service? | Initial and date each page of the SRP roster and sign and date the last page. |
| (214) How long does the commander wait to make a recommendation when a person new to the unit is due Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) consideration? | No more than 90 days |
| (215) To whom does a career airman with 14 years active service appeal when the unit commander does not select him or her for reenlistment? | Wing Commander |
| (215) If airmen have appealed their nonselection for reenlistment, how many work days do they have to acknowledge the decision of the appeal authority? | 5 days |
| (216) What part of the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster must be returned to the military personnel element (MPE)? | Part I, SRP Actions |
| (216) What part of the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster identified airmen who have not applied for career job reservation (CJR)? | Part III, Career Job Reservation (CJR) |
| (401) Who is in charge of the record function at each military personnel element (MPE) where the AF Form 10, Unit Personnel Records Group (UPRG) is maintained? | UPRG custodian |
| (401) Who must maintain and ensure records are corrected as needed for the UNit Personnel Record Groups (UPRG)? | UPRG custodian |
| (401) An individual data review listing (IDRL) is automatically produced | on the anniversary date of a member's date arrive station (DAS). |
| (402) When conducting a record review, customer support screens the Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG) and removes | obsolete documents and gives them to the member. |
| (402) Customer support screens the Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG), removes obsolete documents for personnel at a geographically separated unit, places documents in an envelope, and mails them to the member | in conjunction with a records review. |
| (402) When processing a discharge and immediate reenlistment, the customer support section screens the UPRG and removes which documents and forwards them to Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with the reenlistment documents? | Promotion orders (except for current grade), waiver documents from previous enlistment, and enlistment orders. |
| (402) The military personnel element (MPE) transferring the Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG) must account for records transferred using | AF Form 330, Records Transmittal/Request |
| (403) What form does an individual use to request correction to military record? | DD Form 149 |
| (403) Within what time frame must the individual submit a request for corrections to military records to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR)? | Within three years after the error or injustice was discovered. |
| (403) When requesting correction to military records, who is responsible for gathering sufficient evidence of probable material error or injustice? | Applicant (the member) |
| (403) The Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records acts for the Secretary of the Air Force and its decision is final except when it | Involves an appointment or promotion requiring confirmation by the Senate. |
| (404) Members are eligible to apply for a join spouse assignment if they are on extended active duty and... | meet all permanent change of station (PCS) eligibility requirements. |
| (404) An AF member selected for an assignment and married to a member of another US military service must complete a letter application and | the individual must include a statement from the member's spouse indicating he or she wants the join spouse assignment. |
| (404) When an AF member marries en route to a permanent change of station (PCS) and the member and new spouse are assigned to different locations, the individuals must... | immediately report to the nearest AF installation and apply for join spouse assignment. |
| (404) After updating the join spouse assignment intent code, how does customer support dispose of the AF Form 1048? | File the AF Form 1048 in the member's Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG). |
| (404) If a couple is overseas and they do not have the same overseas date eligible to return from overseas (DEROS) and they desire to be reassigned at the same time, then the one with the... | earliest DEROS must extend |
| (404) True or False. If a member proceeds on a voluntary assignment from a join spouse assignment, the member's spouse can request a permissive join spouse assignment. | False. |
| (404) True or False. If a member proceeds on a voluntary assignment from a join spouse assignment, the member cannot later join the spouse unless they are eligible under some other assignment program. | True. |
| (404) What is the tour length restriction if a member without dependents joins a spouse who is serving an unaccompanied tour overseas? | The member must serve the accompanied tour length. |
| (404) Who should an AF member contact to change a join spouse assignment intent after selection for a join spouse assignment? | Military personnel element (MPE) |
| (404) When couples PCS to the same or adjacent locations and reside jointly, what does the military personnel element (MPE) include in the Remarks section of the PCS orders regardless of the assignment action reason? | Assignment is to join spouse. |
| (405) Customer support is responsible for verifying a member's eligibility for an identification (ID) card and for... | determining which benefits and privileges the ID card entitles an eligible member. |
| (405) What can you use to verify identification (ID) card eligibility if you cannot access the Defense Eligibility and Enrollment Reporting System (DEERS)? | A previous DD Form 1172, Application for Uniformed Services Identification Card - DEERS Enrollment |
| (405) How do you verify eligibility for an identification (ID) for members who are retired with pay? | Retirement Order or DD Form 214 |
| (405) After the verifying official gives the original DD Form 1172 to the applicant and distributes the remaining as necessary, they advise the applicant that the DD Form 1172 is valid for how many days? | 90 days |
| (406) When a family member's expired ID card cannot be retrieved voluntarily by letter from the sponsor, unit commander, or military personnel element (MPE), the MPE... | reports the circumstances to the chief of security forces or military police of the military installation nearest the unauthorized family member's address. |
| (406) When, if ever, does the military personnel element (MPE) destroy a DD Form 1172 and documentation? | One year after the card expires |
| (406) According to special procedure for parole and excess leave, the MPE retrieves ID cards from the member and family members when the... | member's discharge is executed |
| (406) If an administrative or judicial action that authorized the military personnel element (MPE) to destroy an ID card and reissue a temporary card is not resolved within 90 calendar days from the start of the action, the... | MPE may reissue cards for an additional 90 days if necessary. |
| (407) The Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) provides a network of microcomputers linking the military personnel element (MPE) to the Defense Eligibility and Enrollment System (DEERS) database to provide... | on-line additions, retrieval, and update of family member information to the DEERS database. |
| (407) What is required to sign on to the Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS)? | Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) login ID and password. |
| (407) What is the restriction on changing your Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) password as often as you desire? | You can change a password once within a 24-hour period. |
| (407) What option from the file menu in Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) expands to include beneficiary and family options? | Open a family |
| (407) What is the first action you take if you forget your Defense Eligibility and Enrollment Reporting System (DEERS) password? | Call the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System/Real-tim Automated Personnel Identification System Assistance Center (DRAC) for a temporary password. |
| (408) Full-time Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) is authorized for all members on active duty and for members on active duty for training under a call or order that specifies... | a period of 31 days or more |
| (408) By law, all members on active duty, active duty for training or inactive duty for training and Ready Reserves are automatically insured for the maximum coverage of $250,000 until... | they make a valid election to reduce or decline coverage. |
| (408) If a member desires Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage in the amount of $80,000, how do you determine the premium cost? | Each $10,000 increment costs 80 cents, therefore 8 x .80 = $6.40 |
| (408) When a member is confined by civil authorities for more than 31 days under a sentence adjudged by a civil court, Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage is terminated... | on the 31st day. |
| (408) After the SGLV 8285, Request for Insurance, is completed and signed by the member and commander or authorized representative with all medical questions answered "no", the form is... | filed in the individual's Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG). |
| (409) A SGLV 8286, Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) Election and Certificate, form must be reaccomplished when the member... | changes named beneficiaries |
| (409) What advice do you give a member who is survived by dependents or parents and they designate some other person or entity as beneficiary? | submit a signed memorandum indicating that they understand the designation is unusual and that they want the person(s) listed to receive proceeds. |
| (409) By law, if the member has no surviving spouse or child, then the Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) is payable to... | the member's parents in equal shares or all to the surviving parent. |
| (409) When completing the SGLV 8286, Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) Election and Certificate, members may specify that proceeds be paid to beneficiaries in... | lump sum or 36 monthly installments |
| (409) How is the Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) form processed? | File the original in the member's personnel records, give a copy to the member and a copy is used by the active or reserve components of the uniformed services. |
| (410) True or False. This individual is eligible for Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI): a Major serving as a member of the Inactive National Guard. | True |
| (410) True or False. This individual is eligible for Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI): Lieutenant Colonel serving as a member of the Individual Ready Reserve. | True |
| (410) True or False. This individual is eligible for Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI): SGLI insured Staff Sergeant released from active duty for training under a call to duty that does not specify a period of less than 31 days. | False |
| (410) True or False. This individual is eligible for Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI): Technical Sergeant on extended active duty in the Air Force. | True |
| (410) The amount of Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage a member has upon separation may be replaced by Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI) in an amount equal to... | or less than the amount of SGLI in effect upon separation. |
| (410) True or False. When completing an application for Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI), a service member must initial all the blocks and mail the form to the Veterans Affairs Insurance Office. | False |
| (410) When a service member with Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) does not designate a beneficiary and dies within 60 days after the Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI) becomes effective, the benefits are paid... | according to the prior SGLI designation. |
| (411) True or False. One of the goals of the casualty assistance program is accurate accountability. | False |
| (411) When performing casualty assistance duties, you do not release any information to Public Affairs when the member does not want... | the next of kin (NOK) notified |
| (411) What is the casualty status of a person who is not present at his or her duty location due to apparent involuntary reasons and whose location may or may not be known? | Missing |
| (411) The not seriously injured (NSI) casualty status describes a person whose injury... | may or may not require hospitalization |
| (411) What is the appropriate casualty status for an individual when a responsible commander suspects the member may be a casualty, the absence is involuntary, but does not feel sufficient evidence currently exists to make a more definitive determination? | Duty status - whereabouts unknown |
| (411) Who is considered the primary next of kin (PNOK) when there are two next of kin (NOK) with equal relationships to the member? | The older of the two |
| (412) Which of the following: results of a search, eyewitness statement, circumstances of the incident, or positively identified recovered remains, is not generally considered conclusive evidence of death? | Positively identified recovered remains |
| (412) The actual manner and cause of death must be confirmed by a supplemental report within one duty day after receiving the... | death certificate, autopsy report, or accident investigation report |
| (412) How long does a member remain in duty status - whereabouts unknown (DUSTWUN) status? | Normally not more than 10 days |
| (412) What action must you take within 10 days of a duty status - whereabouts unknown (DUSTWUN) declaration when the member's absence is not voluntary and the member is still missing? | Submit a missing report |
| (413) When feasible, casualty notifications are made in person by an Air Force representative for... | duty status - whereabouts unknown |
| (413) When, if ever can an official death notification be made by telephone instead of being made in person by an Air Force representative? | When the next of kin (NOK) calls inquiring about the member's status before official notification can be completed. |
| (413) Because each casualty notification is different and the reaction of the next of kin (NOK) is unpredictable, at least two other AF members accompany the notification officer to attend to emergency needs that may arise. These individuals are... | medical and chaplain personnel |
| (413) When an ill or injured member is hospitalized overseas and the next of kin (NOK) resides in the continental United States (CONUS), who assists the member's commander by notifying the NOK and providing medical progress reports? | Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) |
| (414) When must the casualty assistance representative make initial contact with the primary next of kin (PNOK) and other persons eligible for benefits or privileges made? | PNOK: 24 hours; others, as soon as possible, but such contact is not required within the first 24 hours after being notified of a casualty |
| (414) What form does the casualty assistance representative (CAR) use when explaining benefits to the next of kin (NOK) and as a checklist to track and document entitlements applied for and received? | AF Form 58, Casualty Assistance Summary (Transmittal) |
| (414) For Air Force members in missing status, additional visits or later contacts to the next of kin (NOK) should be conducted... | at least once every 30 days for the first year and thereafter once every month for three months as long as the member remains in missing status. |
| (415) Who is responsible for implementing Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) preretirement counseling? | Military personnel element (MPE) and the commander's support staff (CSS) |
| (415) What is the amount of Survivors Benefit Plan (SBP) annuity paid to the surviving dependent(s) if a member who is receiving SBP coverage dies while on active duty? | 55% of retirement pay the member would have received if retired on date of death |
| (416) Except in cases of short-notice retirements, members who are retiring because they have met the years of service requirement are scheduled for a Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) briefing no later than how many days before retirement? | 120 days |
| (416) What is the minimum base amount of Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) coverage a member can designate for a spouse or former spouse and children without Supplemental Survivor Benefit Plan (SSBP)? | $300 |
| (416) If a retiring member has a spouse or family member (children), the election of Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) for the former spouse... | allows for coverage of children only if they resulted from the marriage to the former spouse. |
| (416) How is a spouse who is unable to visit the military personnel element (MPE) notified of a member's Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) election? | By the original signed election and a letter signed by the MPE. |
| (005) What Air Force publication contains the duties, responsibilities, specialty descriptions, and assigned AFSCs for all enlisted AFSs? | AF MAN 36-2108, Enlisted Classification |
| (005) Why aren't duties such as displaying good conduct and correct military appearance part of the personnel specialty description? | These duties are considered an inherent part of the duties of all Airmen |
| (005) What are the six duties of the personnel journeyman? | 1) Perform personnel actions 2) Provide casualty assistance 3) Oversee personnel activities & functions 4) Creates, maintains & audits personnel records 5) Performs CSS admin functions 6) Advises officers and airmen on military personnel issues & programs |
| (006) What five categories of basic personnel functions are defined as mission essential functions during wartime? | 1) Preparation of movement 2) Personnel accountability 3) Personnel reporting 4) Force sustainment 5) Personnel support |
| (006) What duties are involved when performing the wartime function of personnel accountability? | Maintaining accurate strength data on personnel resources including all gains, losses and force movement. |
| (006) Maintaining forces in place at adequate levels to meet mission requirements includes what factors? | Force sustainment |
| (006) What are the MPE's responsibilities during periods of increased readiness? | Provide the full range of personnel services to military personnel and their family members until directed otherwise by HQ USAF or AFPC/DPWRC |
| (007) Why is the UPRG considered a system of records? | It contains two elements: a personal identifier (name and SSAN) and at least one item of personal information. |
| (007) When may the Air Force disclose a record to a person outside the DoD? | When the subject agrees orally or in writing. |
| (007) What factors so you consider in determining whether disclosure would be a clearly unwarranted invasion of individual privacy? | Weigh the right of the subject to a reasonable expectation of privacy versus the public right to know. |
| When creating a system of records, under what circumstances do you collect information on an individual from a third party? | Only when you can't contact the subject, you want opinions or evaluations, you are verifying the accuracy of information supplied by an individual, or the individual to whom the information pertains asks you to obtain information from a third party. |
| (007) Under what circumstances is a PAS not required? | If the information will not go into a system of records or if it will go into a secretary of the Air Force exempted criminal investigative system. |
| (008) Information or material the unauthorized disclosure of which could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. | Top Secret |
| (008) Information or material the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause damage to national security. | Classified |
| (008) Information or material the unauthorized disclosure of which could be expected to cause serious damage to national security. | Secret |
| (008) Official information that must be safeguarded to prevent its unauthorized disclosure. | Confidential |
| (008) Why do all classified documents have markings and annotations? | To warn the holder of the presence of classified information and to indicate the level of protection and give guidance for its eventual downgrading and declassification. |
| (008) When Top Secret information is stored in a secure room with an IDS, within what time frame must personnel respond to an intrusion? | 15 minutes |
| (008) Where is the identifying number or symbol affixed to a vault or container containing classified information? | A conspicuous location on the outside |
| (008) How many individuals must be involved in destroying Top Secret documents? | Two, the destruction official and the witnessing official. |
| (009) Selecting the most economic mailing class when mailing accountable communications requires consideration of what requirements? | The destination and the classification of the communication |
| (009) What is the purpose of container numbers? | control accountable communications while they are in Air Force channels |
| (009) Under what circumstances can you use an AF Form 12 and container numbers to send accountable communications to an office off the installation when both sending and receiving agencies are within US boundaries? | When the classification is Confidential requiring a receipt; Confidential addressed to a DoD contractor; or Secret or NATO Secret or Confidential |
| (009) Why is registered mail considered the most secure service the postal office offers? | It incorporates a system of receipts to monitor mail movement from the point of acceptance to delivery |
| (009) When is the use of first class mail mandatory on the Air Force installations? | For correspondence of a personal nature, completed forms, test results and grades, completed certificates, bills or statements of account, and all matters wholly or partially in writing or typewritten. |
| (009) What do you do when you receive accountable mail? | Inspect the container for evidence of tampering, compare its number with the number listed on the container receipt, and check the contents against the enclosed AF Form 310 or authorized receipt form. |
| (009) What agency must be notified if you discover any discrepancies? | Notify the sender immediately |
| (010) What advantage do you have when using MilPDS to inquiry folders? | The ability to customize the folder to only the data you want to see. |
| (010) What options are available to help you modify folders? | Use the folder menu option on the main menu; or select folder tools options from the folder menu to open a folder tool box. |
| (010) What steps do you use to export your data in your folder? | First select action from the main menu bar and then select export from the action menu. The export data window will appear and list export format options. Select an option and click the export button. |
| (011) Why would you use the % sign symbol when executing queries? | The % is a wild card to represent the number of characters (including no characters). |
| (011) Explain the F7 and F8 function keys. | Press F7 to enter the query mode and F8 to execute the query. |
| (011) Before you can access or update records in your workcenter, what must you first do? | Select your responsibility after signing on to Oracle HR. |
| (011) When performing group queries, what list would you use to select your options? | List of values (LOV) |
| (011) Which menu item on the menu bar allows you to view a requested report? | Help |
| (012) What activity is responsible for providing products to MPEs for their use in researching and managing DJMS reporting, such as the DJMS reject trend analysis report and the uncleared DJMS reject listing? | MAJCOMs |
| (012) Why must MPE personnel establish a working relationship with the servicing FSO? | To make full use of the FSO’s direct inquiry capability to DFAS-DE files. |
| (012) What do the first two positions of a DJMS transaction identify? | The type of transaction generated |
| (012) What action indicator is used to start entitlements such as start proficiency pay? | START-01 (transaction 3001 will start proficiency pay) |
| (012) What is your first step in correcting a DJMS reject? | Determine why the transaction rejected and what corrective action should be taken |
| (012) What DFAS product should you request from the FSO when clearing discrepancies between the MilPDS and DJMS? | T17 inquiry |
| (013) When are TRs produced in the MilPDS? | During each end of day (EOD) run |
| (013) Under what circumstances is a file monitor TR produced for each applicable MPE workcenter? | Each time the applicable workcenter has an action covered by the suspense or notification portion of the TR |
| (013) When using the strength change TR, what action does the computer take if an MPE workcenter does not cancel a projected action? | If the MPE does not cancel or hold projections, they automatically consummate on the effective date and produce a strength change notice |
| (013) Into what three sections is the DJMS miscellaneous TR divided? | I. Notices of expired ETS, II. Confirmation, III. DDN discrepancies |
| (013) Why does the PSM establish an internal suspense on a DJMS reject TR prior to forwarding the TR to the appropriate workcenter? | To make sure corrective action is initiated |
| (014) How does PSM control access to the MilPDS? | PSMs assign UserIDs and passwords to allow access to the MilPDS |
| (014) What does “responsibility” mean and how is it a vital link in determining security in the HR environment? | Responsibility controls the application functionality that is accessible to a user. Assigning responsibilities limits users to specific functions and prevents them from gaining access to data or records they are not authorized to see. |
| (014) After PSM assigns your initial password for access to MilPDS, how would you receive subsequent passwords? | You construct your own passwords |
| (015) What agency serves as the CAT/MPRC within the AFCOG when activated? | HQ USAF/DPXJ |
| (015) Who is responsible for developing concepts, policies, and plans to support deployment processing, personnel accountability, mobilization, and emergency operations? | HQ USAF/DPXJ |
| (015) Who is responsible for training and equipping unit personnel to support wartime requirements? | The MSS commander or equivalent |
| (015) Who is responsible for preparing contingency, exercise, and deployment orders? | The personnel deployment function (PDF) |
| (015) What does the core UTC concept method improve? | It improves the Air Force’s overall combat capability by ensuring that a command structure is available at each location |
| (016) Who develops and publishes the IDP? | IDO |
| (016) What agency is developed by the IDO to serve as the focal point for deployment operations and all command and control facilities? | DCC |
| (016) The IDO is responsible for defining an organizational structure to meet requirements for what three things? | (1) Cargo preparation, (2) C2, (3) Personnel preparation |
| (016) What information is contained in the PAK given to troop commanders or designated representative to handcarry to the PT or MPE at the employment site? | Contains the information necessary for the PT or MPE to account for deployed personnel gained during a contingency, exercise, or wartime. |
| (017) What units are measured (tracked) in SORTS? | All combat, combat support, or combat service support units including Reserve, Air National Guard, and active units sourced to an OPLAN, CONPLAN, the SIOP, or a service war planning document. |
| (017) What resource areas are tracked and measured through SORTS? | Personnel, equipment and supplies on hand, equipment condition, and training. |
| (017) What do readiness C-levels show? | The degree to which units are capable of performing their wartime mission. |
| (017) What do units use to compute the personnel C-level for total and critical personnel? | The availability of funded wartime required personnel |
| (017) In addition to providing personnel expertise to measure and direct support units and receive and transfer civilian personnel data from civilian personnel offices to units what is the local personnel office's role in SORTS? | Notifies measured and direct support units of inbound personnel to fill current and projected vacancies |
| (018) To what does the term OPLAN apply? | Any plan for the conduct of military operations, except for the SIOP. |
| (018) Where are the forces and supplies identified? | The TPFDD files |
| (018) How are unified commands usually organized? | On a geographical and functional basis |
| (018) When should OPLANs be reviewed? | Any time the circumstances, situations, or availability of forces and resources change |
| (018) What do OPLAN exercises provide? | Valuable insights into requirements and planning factors needed to support contingencies |
| (019) What is mobilization? | The process by which a nation makes the transition from a normal state of peacetime preparedness to a warfighting posture |
| (019) Under which mobilization category are additional units or additional resources, including civilian facilities, generated? | Total mobilization |
| (019) What does total force policy mean? | That both the active and RCs must be prepared to deploy at any time. |
| (019) Where do IMAs report when ordered to active duty, unless otherwise ordered by the gaining MAJCOM/FOA or other authority? | To their unit of assignment |
| (019) How soon after notification does PIM resources have to begin travel to their gaining units? | Five calendar days |
| (019) When full mobilization has been ordered, ARC forces are placed under operational and administrative control of what activity? | Active Air Force |
| (020) Explain total force accountability. | Accurate accountability of all personnel deployed to a location, including Air Force active duty, Air Reserve components, DAF civilians, and Air Force contractors required to deploy as well. |
| (020) Setting up a PERSCO operations center and personnel in and out processing procedures with units and other support agencies is an initial arrival, sustainment, or redeployment action? | Initial arrival action |
| (020) Processing requests to extend hours is an initial arrival, sustainment, or redeployment action? | Sustainment action |
| (020) Preparing filler and replacement requests is an initial arrival, sustainment, or redeployment action? | Sustainment action |
| (020) Notifying MAJCOMs and MPFs by message of unfilled requirements is an initial arrival, sustainment, or redeployment action? | Sustainment action |
| (020) Projecting mini-records for personnel deploying to other locations in the AOR is an initial arrival, sustainment, or redeployment action? | Redeployment action |
| (020) PERSCO augmentation team, Team 2, is a dependent team; what does this mean? | It cannot deploy without Team 1 present at the location |
| (020) What mandatory training is required for PT members? | Small arms, LOAC, CWDT, EOR, and self-aid and buddy care (SABC) |
| (021) What is the purpose of the DCAPES MANPER-B system? | To support personnel and manpower activities concerning contingencies, wartime, execution planning, emergency, and deployed accountability |
| (021) What are the two main software applications in MANPER-B? | (1) Main, (2) PERSCO |
| (021) Which application in MANPER-B is used to produce TDY orders? | Main |
| (021) Which application in the MANPER-B system do you use to track force accountability? | PERSCO |
| (021) In what function of the MANPER-B are UTCs and their titles identified? | MANFOR database |
| (022) What agency is responsible for sending mini-record data traffic through their supporting communications to HQ AFPC? | PRF |
| (022) Which report does the home station PRF or PDF send when their base deploys UTC(s) directly from home station by aircraft to the theater of operation? | Departure report |
| (022) Within what timeframe must the PT or MPF providing support to TDY forces submit a PERSCO status report? | PTs within 12 hours of arrival at their employment duty location; MPFs within 12 hours after an operation begins |
| (022) What timeline does a personnel agency have for sending a duty status change report? | By 2400 hours on the day the duty status change occurs |
| (022) What action does the PT chief or NCOIC take immediately upon learning of a casualty? | Contact HQ AFPC/DPWCS |
| (023) What action must the member’s parent commander or unit take when a departing individual’s TDY is due to end in 30 days or more? | Member’s parent commander or unit must replace the individual |
| (023) From what agency can a command request filler and replacement personnel after supported and supporting component commanders have realigned their forces and forces are still not available? | HQ AFPC/DPRWM |
| (023) What manning program would you as a PERSCO team member use to request replacement personnel during a contingency? | PALACE BLITZ |
| (023) In what sequence should PALACE ENVOY requests be submitted to the MPF, MAJCOM, HQ AFPC, and HQ USAF? | HQ USAF submits the request through HQ AFPC to the appropriate MAJCOM or MPF |
| (023) what must requests for PALACE EXERCISE include? | Current manning figures and justification of command’s inability to fill requirements |
| (023) What is the name of the manning program HQ AFPC uses to assign TDY support for a long-term contingency operation in which personnel rotate to maintain operations? | PALACE TENURE |
| (201) Under what five circumstances is leave not accrued? | AWOL, serving a court-martial sentence, or on unauthorized leave, excess leave, or appellate leave |
| (201) Under what five circumstances are members authorized to “sell” leave back? | Upon voluntary retirement, separation, discharge, reenlistment, or entry into a first extension of enlistment |
| (201) A1C Johnson took leave Wednesday through Friday. Under what type of circumstances can the commander authorize leave to begin again on Monday without charging leave for Saturday and Sunday? | An emergency situation requires the member to take leave again |
| (201) Why should military members ask for leave extensions in advance of leave expiration? | To allow a timely return to duty if the request is disapproved |
| (201) Under what condition can the commanders approve convalescent leave beyond 30 days? | Medical review and consent for extension or for pregnancy |
| (201) To what level can unit commanders delegate approval of emergency leave for enlisted members? | First Sergeant |
| (201) When is PTDY for house-hunting authorized? | PTDY for house-hunting is authorized to secure off-base housing in the vicinity of a new permanent duty station |
| (201) How many PTDY days may a member be authorized for house-hunting before their PCS? | Members may be authorized up to 10 days PTDY for house-hunting before signing out of their unit |
| (202) When comparing DROTs against the leave control log, what information do you verify? | Leave dates, number of days charged, and leave type |
| (202) What do you do with the leave balance listing? | Verify current leave balance; develop and update projected leave schedules; and control the approval of advance, excess and terminal leave |
| (202) When are leave authorization numbers issued? | Not more than 14 days before the effective date |
| (202) Who determines if a unit will begin a new series of leave numbers after 1 October? | The FSO |
| (202) What information is entered in the third block of Section III on the AF Form 1486? | The SB05 (date leave was corrected) or SB06 (date leave was canceled) |
| (202) Within what timeframe should you follow-up with supervisors or leave approval authority when an issued leave authorization number does not appear on the DROT? | 6 workdays after transmittal to FSO |
| (202) Why is it essential that unit commanders verify block assignments against the DROT, whether or not the block assignment has been completed? | Because some DROTs might not be available after 2 months |
| (202) What condition is indicated when the AF Form 1134 shows infrequent issuance of block numbers? | Blocks are too big |
| (202) What do supervisors do after they receive AF Form 988 and determine the members have accrued enough leave to cover the leave requested? | Requests a leave authorization number from the unit leave monitor, approves the leave, forwards part I of AF Form 988 to the FSO immediately, gives part II to the member, and retains part III until member returns. |
| (203) What is the determining factor that makes a member eligible under the CSB program? | Members must initially enter the Uniformed Service by 1 Aug 1986 |
| (203) Under what two conditions must a member meet in order to receive CSB? | Member must agree to remain on active duty through 20 years of active service and have their retired pay computed under the provisions of the 1986 Military Retirement Reform Act |
| (203) If the member elects one of the CSB installment options, when will he or she receive the payment? | 15 Jan of each year following the calendar year of the initial payment |
| (203) Who determines if the member has any current actions that would preclude eligibility to receive CSB? | Unit commander |
| (203) Within what time frame must the original Individual Notification Memo be sent to the MPE? | Within 10 days after the member receives their copy |
| (203) What are the two correct election effective dates in item 16 of the DD Form 2839? | The 15th year of active service anniversary date or the date the member signs the DD Form 2839 when the 15th year has passed |
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