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FDLE OBJ- FIRST AID
FDLE FIRST AID
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Bob | Back of Book |
| ABC's | Airway, breathing, ciruclation; assessment begins with ABCs |
| CPR | Cardiopulmonary resucitation |
| Network of trained professionals linked to provide advanced, out-of-hospital care for victims of a suddn traumatic injury or illness | EMS system |
| Emergency medical technicians who have advanced, specialized training that enables them to provide comprehensive care to patiens | EMT |
| USDOT | United States Department of Transportation |
| The relinquishing of a right or interest with the intention of never again claiming it | Abandonment |
| Documents a patient's request to withhold specific medical care | Advance directive |
| The failure of an officer to act or failure to act appropriately | Breach of duty |
| DNR/DNRO | Do Not Resuscitate or Do Not Resuscitate Order; documents the terminally or chronically ill patient's wish to refuse resuscitation |
| The duty to take some action to prevent harm to another and for the failure of which an officer may be liable dependig on the relationship of the parties and the circumstances | Duty to act |
| Consent that is clearly and unmistakably stated | Expressed consent |
| Protects physicians who render emergency care from civil suits; Florida's Good Samaritan Act also protects first aid providers | Good Samaritan Act |
| HIPAA | Protects the rights of patients and restricts the release of patient information |
| Consent inferred from conduct rather than from direct expression | Implied consent |
| A person's agreement to allow something to happen, made with full knowledge of the risks involved and the alternatives | Informed consent |
| A bracelet, necklace, or card that alerts medical personnel to a specific medical condition | Medic alert |
| Failure to exercise the standard of care that a resonably prudent person would have exercised in a similar situation | Negligence |
| AIDS | Acquired Immune Deficienyc Syndrome; caused by HIV |
| Any infection spread from person to person throught the air; caused by breathing in microscopic, disease-bearing organisms called pathogens | Airborne disease |
| BSI | Controlling infection by separating patients from each other; includes two basis behaviors: the use of medical PPE and personal behaviors that reduce risk |
| CDC | Center for Disease Control & Prevention |
| A highly infectious disease spread by person-to-person contact, generally through fecal contamination or oral ingestion | Hepatitis A virus |
| A highly infectious disease spread through sexual contact, sharing contaminated needles (through intravenous drug use), or through blood transfusions | Hepatitis B virus |
| The most common chronic bloodborne infection; primarily transmitted through direct contact with human blood, from sharing needles or drug paraphernalia, or from an infected mother delivering her baby | Hepatitis C virus |
| Bloodborne viruse that atttacks the immune system and causes AIDS | HIV |
| A type of bacteria that is highly contagious and resistant to certain antibiotics; causes a skin infection that is red, swollen, painful or warm to the touch; may have purulent drainage or appear to be a spider bite, pimple or boil | MRSA- Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus |
| Items that protect individuals from harmful substances, infections, or other perople; includes eye protection, gloves, shields, and biohazard bags | PPE- Personal Protective Equipment |
| Infection transmitted through sexual contact; among the most common infectious diseases | STD- Sexually Transmitted Disease |
| A highly infectious airborne diseasae | TB- Tuberculosis |
| Procedures designed to prevent transmission of HIV, hepatitis B virus, and other blood-borne pathogens | Universal precautions |
| The muscles in the hear that constantly work to expand and contract | Cardiac muscles |
| Located in the brain and spinal cord; components are the body's mainframe computer where all communication and control originate | Central nervous system |
| Ingests and digests food and nutrients; includes the stomach, pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and small and large intestines | Digestive system |
| Thighbone; the longest and strongest bone in the human body | Femur |
| Smooth muscles that carry out many automatic body functions | Involuntary muscles |
| Gives the body shape, protects intrernal organs, and provides body movement | Muscular system |
| Controls voluntary and involuntary body activity, supports higher mental functions such as thought and emotion, allows the individual to be aware of and react to the environment, and keeps the rest of the body's systems working together | Nervous system |
| Includes nerves that connect to the spinal cord and branch out to every other part of the body; serves as a two-way communication system | Peripheral nervous system |
| Delivers oxygen to and removes carbon dioxide from the blood | Respiratory system |
| The supporting framework for the body, giving it shape and protecting vital organs; attains mobility from the attached muscles and manufactures red blood cells | Skeletal system |
| The protective covering for the inside of the body; provides a barrier against basteria and other harmful substances and organisms; acts as a communication organ; helps regulate body temperature | Skin |
| Muscles used for deliberate acts, such as chewing, lifting and running | Voluntary muscles |
| Method for identifying four levels of patient responsiveness | AVPU- Alert Verbal Pain Unresponsiveness |
| Changes in circulation causing the lips, palms, and nail beds to turn blue | Cyanosis |
| Injuries and sympthoms to look for during a physical assessment of a potentially injured person | DOTS- Deformities Open injuries Tenderness Swelling |
| A patient's mental status due to illness or injury | LOC- Level Of Consciousness |
| Method to help an officer acquire information useful in determining causes of injury or illness | SAMPLE- Signs and Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, Events |
| A relocation performed when a patient is in immediate danger or when the patient's location prevents providing care to him or her or another person | Emergency move |
| Death as a result of a body position that interferes with one's ability to breathe | Postitional asphyxia |
| A position where the patient is rolled over (preferably onto the left side) with kness slightly bent; helps maintain an open airway if the patien vomits and may prevent postional asphyxia | Recovery position |
| ICS | Incident Command System |
| An incident that involve more than one vicitm | MCI- Multiple Casualty Incident |
| A method of triage that assesses a large number of victims rapidly using personnel with limited medical training | START- Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment |
| A system of sorting and classifying of patients; determines order in which patients receive medical attention; assesses a large number of victims rapidly | Triage |
| A failure of the heart and blood vessels (circulatory system) to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body | Shock |
| An open wound caused by scraping, shearing away, or rubbing the outermost skin layer | Abrasion |
| The gross removal of an appendage, complete or incomplete | Amputation |
| Bright red blood spurting from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged artery | Arterial bleeding |
| An injury characterized by a flap of skin, torn or cut, that may not be completely loosed from the body | Avulsion |
| An obvious discoloration (black and blue) of the soft tissue at the injury site | Bruising |
| Dark red blood oozing from a wound, indicating damaged capillaries | Capillary bleeding |
| A closed injury that is discolored and painful at the injury site | Contusion |
| An open wound where the organs protrude | Evisceration |
| A closed injury that evidences as a discolored lump (see swelling) | Hematoma |
| An open wound in soft tissue | Laceration |
| The result of driving a sharp or blunt, pointed object into soft tissue | Puncture wound |
| Soft tissue that is raised when blood or other body fluids pool beneath the skin at the injury site | Swelling |
| Bleeding where dark red blood flows steadily from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged vein | Venous bleedi |
| Airtight | Occlusive |
| An open wound where organs protrude from the abdominal cavity | Abdominal evisceration |
| Results from blunt trauma to the chest area; damages interanl organs and/or causes internal bleeding | Closed chest injury |
| A closed chest injury that occurs when two or more adjacent ribs are fractured in two or more places and become free floating | Flail chest |
| An injury that occurs when penetration opens the chest area | Open chest injury |
| Type of open chest injury in which air and/or blood escapes into the are surrounding the lungs, creating a change in the pressure in the chest cavity | Sucking chest injury |
| A fracture in which the skin at the injury site remains intact | Closed fracture |
| An injury occurring when the end of a bone comes out of its socket at the joint | Dislocation |
| A bone break | Fracture |
| A fracture where the skin at the injury site is broken, and the bone may protrude through the skin | Open fracture |
| When examing extremities for potentioal injuries, indicates what to check for: | PMS- Pulse, Motor and Sensory function |
| Occurs when a burning chemical comes into contact with skin | Chemical burn |
| Occurs when manmade or natural (lighting) electricity comes into contact with the skin and or internal organs to burn | Electrical burn |
| A third-degree burn that damages all skin layers and affects muscles and nerves; causes skin to look waxy, white, or charred | Full thickness burn |
| Occurs when a patient has a burn to any part of the airway | Inhalation burn |
| Second-degree burn that damages the first two skin layers, which blister and feel very painful | Partial thickness burn |
| First-degree burn that damages the first layer of skin; becimes red and feels very painful | Superficial burn |
| A burn that occurs when an external heat source comes into contact with the skin | Thermal burn |
| The bag of fluid surrounding the fetus | Amniotic sac |
| The passage the fetus is pushed through during delivery | Birth canal |
| The neck of the uterus; contains a mucus plug | Cervix |
| The first stage of labor; begins with the initial contraction and continues until the fetus enters the birth canal | Dilation |
| The second stage of labor; the fetus moves through the birth canal and is delivered | Expulsion |
| The final phase of pregnancy; begins the birthing process | Labor |
| The disk-shaped inner lining of the uterus; provides nourishment and oxygen to a fetus | Placenta |
| The third stage of labor during which the placenta separates from the uterine wall and moves through the birth canal for delivery | Placental |
| Connects the fetus and the mother; provides nourishment to the fetus | Umbilical cord |
| The organ that holds the developing fetus | Uterus |
| Results from the anrrowing of airway passages, causing breathing difficulties | Asthma |
| Caused by oxygen deprivation to part of the heart, typically from a blocked blood vessel | Heart attack |
| Damage to part of the brain due to the rupture or blockage of a blood vessel | Stroke |
| A disease in which the body does not produce or properly use insulin | Diabetes |
| The hormone needed to convert sugar, starches, and other food into energy needed for daily use | Insulin |
| A localized injury from overexposure to cold | Frostbite |
| Occurs when the body cannot recover from fluid loss | Hyperthermia |
| The excessive cooling of the body's core temperature | Hyprothermia |
| A severe allergic reaction in which air passages swell and restrict breathing; caused by insect bites or stings, pollen, medications, foods, chemicals, or other substances | Anaphylaxis |
| A potentially poisonous byproduct of combustion | CO- Carbon Monoxide |
| A state of extreme mental and physicological excitement due to extreme drug use; characterized by extreme agitation, hyperthermia, hostility, and exceptional strength and endurance without apparent fatigue; can lead to death | Excited delirium |
| Conduct that falls below the legal standard established to protect others against unreasonable risk of harm, except for conduct that is intentionally, wantonly, or willfully disregardful of other’s rights | Negligence |
| Transmission occurs primarily during sexual contact with an infected individual, when IV drug users share contaminated needles, from infected mother to unborn child & from contact with blood, certain body fluids, and tissue from an infected individual | HIV |
| 1 | 1 |
| 1 | 1 |
| EMS training described: Airway care, patient assess, CPR, bleeding control, stabilize injuries to spine/extremities, care for medical/trauma emergencies, limited amount of equip, assist other EMS, cannot administer medications | First Aid Provider |
| EMS training described: Airway care, patient assess, CPR, bleeding control, stabilize injuries to spine/extremities, care for medical/trauma emergencies, limited amount of equip, assist other EMS, skills or procedures as local or state regulations permit | First Responder |
| EMS training described: Performs all techniques of a 1st Aid provider & 1st responder, complex immobilization procedures, restrains patients, staffs and drives ambulance | EMT-Basic |
| EMS training described: Performs all functions of previous 2 levels, administers medications, performs advanced techniques, including cardiac monitoring | EMT-Paramedic |
| According to Advisory Leagl Opinion, the Good Samaritan Act does not apply to law enforcement officers within their jurisdiction, but does apply to | Correctional officers unless persons reduce to their custody |
| If all of the following conditions are present then the following has occurred: Duty to act, Breach of standard of care, Causation, Damages | Negligence |
| The following is a definition of: You were supposed to be there. | Duty to act |
| The following is a definition of: What you did was wrong. | Breach of standard of care |
| The following is a definition of: What you did was wrong. | Causation |
| The following is a definition of: The patient suffered an injury; the injurey is additional to the orginial injury | Damages |
| When you provide emergency care without the patient's consent you can face a: | Battery charge is you touch a patient's body or clothing |
| There are 3 types of consent, they are: | Express consent, implied consent, informed consent |
| Are the mentally ill competent to give expressed consent? | No |
| Competen adults also have the right to withdraw consent after treatment begins, this also is true for patients who were unconscious when treatment began and then: | Regains consciousness and mental competence and ask you to stop |
| A person involved in a traumatic incident such as an auto accident may be: | Emotionally, intellectually and/or physically impaired |
| Do not have the authorization to honor DNR Order or an advance directive: | Criminal justice first aid provider |
| You make have a patient who is an organ donor. The patient should have one of the following: | Legal documentation, signed donor card, organ donor designation on his or her driver's license |
| You may respond to a calll that could be a crime scene and a medical emergency, examples are: | Suicide, homicide, drug overdose, domestic dispute, abuse, a hit-and-run, robbery, or any scene involving battery, gunfire, or a weapon |
| "Characterized by assurance", "full of conviction" and "characteristic or customary mode of acting, custom...a mode or procedure or way of acting" describes: | Confident manner |
| When dealing with a hysterical patient, family member or bystander you should: | Redirect the converstaion to divert his or her attention |
| When communicating with younger children you should: | Get down on their eye level and move slowly |
| 1 | 1 |
| 1 | 1 |
| What are the following warning signs of: inability to concentrate, difficulty sleepin/nightmares, anxiety, inability to make decisions, guilt, changes in appetite, changes in sexual desire, isolation, changes in work or recreation habits | Stress |
| Possible steps an officer may take to help reduce/ alleviate stress are: | Breathing- take several long deep breaths focus on counting each breath, Thought patterns- Consciously change your thought patterns, think "This too shall pass" |
| Lifestyle choices that individuals can make that help them cope with, reduce or alleviate stress are: | Nutrition, Excerise and Relaxation |
| Maintaining regular meal schedules and having healthy food available improves eating habits, healthly well-balanced diet. Falls under which Lifestyle Choice | Nutrition |
| Benefit is to release pent-up emotions and should be incorporated into daily schedules. Falls under which Lifestyle Choice | Exercise |
| Takes many forms such as: meditation, religion, sports, hobbies or other activites, and should also allow for adequate sleep and rest. Falls under which Lifestyle Choice | Relation |
| One of the most intense types of stress occurs when a first aid provider is involoved with: | Dying patient or the death of a patient |
| One well-recognized model describes people's reactions to death and dying as a 5 stage process, the stages are: | 1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance |
| Bloodborne or airborne pathogens found in human bodily fluids that you encounter while you perform your duties are: | Pathogenic microorganisms |
| When adhereing to the colloquialsim: "If it is wet, sticky, and not yours:..." | Do not touch it |
| Always wear gloves if you expect to have physical contact with a patien or prisoner if they are bleeding or have open sores, rashes, blisters, burns or other broken skin conditions and if you have: | Open cuts, sores, rashes, blisters, burns or other broken skin conditions on your hands |
| If your hands are visibly dirty or soiled with blood or other fluids you should: | Wash them with plain or antimicrobial soap and water. Rub hands vigorously for at least 15 seconds |
| There are two different types of masks, they are and are used for: | Filter and CPR mask. Filter mask can provide protection against airborne diseases. CPR mask are barrier devices with one-way valves, designed to prevent the patient's saliva or vomitus from entering caregiver's mouth |
| 1 | 1 |
| MRSA or staph infections occur most frequently among persons in: | Hospitals, healthcare facitities or detention facilities |
| Hepatitis A incubation period ranges from: | 2 weeks to 2 months |
| Hepatitis B incubation period ranges from: | Dried body fluids for an undetermined time |
| Hepatitis C incubation period ranges from: | Varies from person to person |
| The Rossy Parker section follows from here: | Short on time |
| 1 | 1 |
| The roles and responsibilities of the criminal justice first aid provider differ from other professional within the EMS system by _________. | Perform all techniques of 1st aid provider &1st responder, perform complex immobilization procedures, restrain patients, staff & drive ambulance, perform all functions of previous two levels, perform advanced techniques, including cardiac monitoring |
| Your primary concern as a first aid provider is the _________. | Patient |
| What is the number one thing when an officer arrives at the scene? | Protect your safety, the safety of the patient and the safety of bystander |
| In the ________ and ethical issues, the public has come to expect and law requires you to be competent criminal justice officers whose behavior is always above reproach | Legal |
| “a duty to take some action to prevent harm to another and for the failure of which one may be liable depending on the relationship of the parties and the circumstances.” This is the definition of ________. | Duty to Act |
| As a law enforcement officer, you have a duty to act _______ within your jurisdictional boundaries | 24/7 |
| ________ occurs when you either fail to act or act inappropriately. | Breach of duty |
| “In the law of negligence, the degree of care that a reasonable person should exercise; under the law of negligence, the conduct demanded of a person in a given situation." is: | Standard or Scope of Care |
| “Typically, this involves a person’s giving attention both to possible dangers, mistakes, and pitfalls and to ways of ensuring that these risks do not materialize.” | Standard or Scope of Care |
| _________ is care that you are expected to provide to the same patient under the same conditions as would any criminal justice first aid provider who received the same level of training. | Standard or Scope of Care |
| Providing CPR is within your scope of care as a criminal justice officer while performing open-heart surgery is not is an example of ________. | Standard or Scope of Care |
| The _________ protects a civilian first aid provider from liability for medical care performed in good faith or medical care similar to the expected of another first aid provider with equal training. | Good Samaritan Act |
| The Good Samaritan Act does NOT apply to which of the following personnel ________. | Law enforcement officers |
| “The relinquishing of a right or interest with the intention of never again claiming it.” This is the definition of _______. | Abandonment |
| An officer leaves a patient before properly relieved by a trained professional on the side of the road is called ________. | Abandonment |
| "The failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonably prudent person would have exercised in a similar situation" | Negligence |
| "Any conduct that falls below the legal standard established to protect others against unreasonable risk of harm, except for conduct that is intentionally, wantonly, or willfully disregardful of other’s rights.” | Negligence |
| Negligence occurs these conditions are present: _______. | Duty to act, Breach of standard of care, Causation, Damages |
| Duty to act refers to _______. | You were supposed to be there. |
| Breach of standard of care refers to _______. | What you did was wrong |
| Causation refers to ______. | What you did caused the injury |
| Damages refers to ______. | The patient suffered an injury; the injury is additional to the original injury. |
| “The use of force against another resulting in harmful or offensive contact; an intentional and offensive touching of another without lawful justification— also termed tortuous battery” | Battery |
| ________ is unlawful physical contact. | Battery |
| “Agreement, approval, or permission as to some act of purpose, especially given voluntarily by a competent person” (Garner, 1999). This is the definition of _______. | Consent |
| _______ is/are the type(s) of consent in reference to first aid. | Expressed,Implied,Informed |
| Who can refuse medical care at the scene? The patient must be _____ to refuse medical care | Competent adult, understand the police officer question, understand the implications of decisions made about medical care |
| Who cannot refuse medical care at the scene? The patient must be _____. | Under the influence of alcohol or drugs, meet the criteria for a Marchman Act, altered mental state, meet the criteria of a Baker Act, seriously ill, has an injury that affects judgment, mentally ill, mentally challenged |
| _________is “Consent that is clearly and unmistakably stated.” | Expressed consent |
| _______ is affirmative consent, such as verbal or physical assertion of the affirmative | Expressed consent |
| When persons expressly invited officers into a hotel room where they found contraband is an example of _______. | Expressed consent |
| _______ is “Consent inferred from one’s conduct rather than from one’s direct expression” (Garner, 1999). | Implied consent |
| ________ “may be found by circumstantial evidence suggesting implicit consent | Implied consent |
| A police officer makes assumptions of _______. | Implied consent |
| A police officer assumes that the unresponsive patient is at risk of death, disability, or deterioration of condition and/or would agree to care if able to consent. This is an example of _______. | Implied consent |
| _______ may also apply to conscious patients who do not stop you from providing treatment, refuse care, and then become unresponsive and/or are not competent to refuse care. | Implied consent |
| _______is “A person’s agreement to allow something to happen made with full knowledge of the risks involved and the alternatives.” | Informed Consent |
| _________ documents the terminally or chronically ill patient's wish to refuse resuscitation | Do Not Resuscitate Order (DNRO) |
| Licensed medical professionals, EMTs, or paramedics can ______. a) honor a DNR Order or advanced directive b) can perform CPR c) can assist a patient d) cannot honor a DNR Order or advanced directive | Honor a DNR Order or advanced directive |
| Medic Alert is an identification _______ that a person carries in his or her wallet that alerts about a specific medical condition such as an allergy. | Bracelet, necklace, card |
| You may respond to a call that could be both a crime scene and a medical emergency.Examples may include any scene involving a ________ | Suicide, Homicide, drug overdose, domestic dispute, abuse, a hit-and-run, robbery, any scene involving battery/gunfire/or a weapon |
| As always, your first concern is your personal safety. If you believe the perpetrator remains in the area, ensure scene safety before caring for the patient. When the scene is safe, the patient becomes your ______. | Priority |
| Remember that any item on the scene may be _______. | Evidence |
| When will you move a patient at the scene? | Move the patient only if he or she is in imminent danger and advanced emergency care is not nearby |
| What should be done with the clothing of a rape victim? | Preserve the patient’s clothing |
| For a person who has been ________, do not let them bath or shower. | sexually battered |
| You may need to help or render first aid care to patients who have special needs or require special considerations. These patients include the ________. | Visually impaired, hearing impaired, elderly, chronically ill, developmentally disabled, those who speak a language foreign to you, those who behave disruptively |
| To provide effective emergency first aid to patients who have special needs, be aware of their particular _______. | disabilities and special needs |
| What is the officer's responsibility to the death and dying? | Recognize emotional needs as well as injury or illness |
| Identify the warning signs of stress _________. | Inability to concentrate, difficulty sleeping/nightmares, anxiety, inability to make decisions, guilt, changes in appetite, changes in sexual desire, isolation, changes in work or recreation habits |
| One of the most intense types of _______ occurs when a first aid provider is involved with a dying patient or the death of a patient. | Stress |
| One well-recognized model describes people’s reactions to death and dying as a _____ stage process | Five |
| _________ are the model that describes people’s reactions to death and dying state process | Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance |
| _______ is a feeling that the death is not happening or did not happen; refusing to accept reality | Denial |
| _______ is acting out, perhaps in ways that endangers others | Anger |
| _______ is trying to make a deal to postpone the inevitable | Bargaining |
| ________ is a feeling and acting unusually silent, distant, and withdrawn | Depression |
| ________ unhappy, but resigned to reality | Acceptance |
| Criminal justice officers encounter injured people who can also be _______. a) sick or carriers of disease b) mental disable c) under the influence of drugs d) hysterical | Sick or carriers of disease |
| Certain job-related tasks that involve physical contact, such as ______, are more likely to expose you to body substances that contain bloodborne pathogens than others. | CPR, first aid care, property searches and confiscation, frisks and custodial searches, any response to resistance, crime scene investigation, and/or prisoner transport |
| Regard body fluids that you encounter while you perform your duties as contaminated with bloodborne pathogens that can ______ you. a) disease b) stress c) injure d) infect | Infect |
| Bloodborne or airborne pathogens are pathogenic microorganisms in human body ______. a) fluids b) liquids c) bloods d) secretions | Fluids |
| Bloodborne or airborne pathogens can infect and cause ________ in persons exposed to blood or body fluids containing the pathogens. a) disease b) stress c) injure d) infect | Disease |
| The Center for Disease Control & Prevention (CDC) defines universal precautions as a set of procedures designed to prevent transmission of human immunodeficiency virus HIV, hepatitis B virus, and other ________ to first aid or health care provider | Bloodborne pathogens |
| Body Substance Isolation (BSI) includes two basic behaviors: ________. | Use of medical personal protection equipment and personal behaviors that reduce risk |
| What serves as a barrier against infection? | Personal Protective Equipments (PPEs) |
| Medical Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) includes _______. | Eye protection, gloves, protective clothing (i.e., gown and/or coveralls, sleeves, shoe covers), masks or shields, biohazard bags |
| _______ can provide protection against airborne diseases | Filter masks |
| ______ are barrier devices with one way valves used when performing ventilations. | CPR masks |
| The procedures you use to handle biomedical or biohazardous wastes must comply with federal _________ requirements for identifying and segregating blood or waste material saturated with body fluids. | Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) |
| Additional requirements include using color-coded bags or containers for storing biomedical waste, such as ______ bags or containers with the international biohazard symbol. | Red or yellow |
| Rigid plastic sharps containers secure used _______ to prevent injuries. Follow local protocol or department policy for disposal of wastes classified as biomedical or biohazard. | Syringes and needles |
| ________ is a type of bacteria that is highly contagious and resistant to certain antibiotics | Methicilin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) |
| Staph infections, includingMRSA, occur most frequently among persons in ________. | Hospitals, healthcare facilities, detention facilities |
| What are the signs and symptoms of a skin infection? | Wound site that is red, swollen area, painful area, an area that is warm to the touch or has purulent drainage, the site may look like a spider bite, pimple, or boil, the person may have a fever |
| There are multiple strains of hepatitis; the most common ones are ______. | Hepatitis A virus, Hepatitis B virus, Hepatitis C virus |
| Hepatitis A, B, and C can all cause _______. a) heart disease b) kidney disease c) liver disease d) lungs disease | Liver disease |
| ______ is a virus that attacks the immune system | Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) |
| ________ causes hepatitis A. | Hepatitis A virus |
| Hepatitis A is technically not a bloodborne disease; it is highly infectious and preventable with BSI and appropriate PPE. | Hepatitis A virus |
| Its incubation period ranges from two weeks to two months | Hepatitis A virus |
| How a person can get hepatitis A? | Person-to-person contact primarily, Through fecal contamination and oral ingestion, Poor personal hygiene, Poor sanitation, Intimate contact facilitate transmission, Common source epidemics from contaminated food and water also occur |
| Sharing utensils, cigarettes, or kissing does not transmit the hepatitis A virus. a)TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| What are the signs and symptoms of hepatitis A? | Fever, weakness, anorexia, nausea, abdominal discomfort, dark urine, jaundice |
| Outside of occupational setting, sexual contact or sharing contaminated needles (through intravenous drug abuse) primary transmits the __________ virus. | Hepatitis B |
| Infected blood received through transfusions may infect persons with the ________. However, the risk of infection from a transfusion is extremely low because all donated blood is tested | Hepatitis B |
| Hepatitis B can remain infectious in dried body fluids for an ______. | Undetermined time |
| Hepatitis B virus symptoms range from ________. | Minor flu-like, severe liver damage, even death, weakness, various muscle and joint pains, dark urine, diarrhea, weight loss, enlarged and tender liver |
| The federal Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) estimates that each year in the United States more than 200,000 people of all ages contract ________. | Hepatitis B |
| Close to 5,000 die of the illnesses it causes, has disabling long-term effects, individuals often cannot continue to work. Some ______ virus carriers are infectious for life. They can transmit the disease while not experiencing obvious symptoms. | Hepatitis B |
| Over 90 percent effective against _______ for seven or more years after vaccination, the vaccines stimulate active immunity. They are also 70 to 88 percent effective when vaccine is given within one week after hepatitis B virus exposure | Hepatitis B |
| According to Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reports, ________ is the most common chronic blood borne infection in the United States. | Hepatitis C |
| The incubation period varies from person to person. | Hepatitis C |
| Direct contact with human blood primarily transmits _______. | Hepatitis C |
| Direct contact with human blood primarily transmits _______. | Hepatitis C |
| Of all persons infected with the ________ virus in America, approximately one-third of infected persons pass through jails and prisons each year | Hepatitis C |
| Hepatitis C’s signs and symptoms are similar to those of ________. | Hepatitis B |
| Hepatitis C’s signs and symptoms are _________. | Minor flu-like symptoms, severe liver damage, death, weakness, muscle and joint pains, dark urine, diarrhea, weight loss, enlarged and tender liveri) enlarged and tender liver |
| In reference to Hepatitis C not everyone infected necessarily experiences all the same symptoms. a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| Of ____ persons infected with the hepatitis C virus, about _____ persons develop long-term infection. | 100; 85 |
| 105) ______ persons develop chronic liver disease. _______ persons develop cirrhosis, the scarring of liver tissue. (This may take 20 to 30 years to occur.) ______ will eventually die of cirrhosis or liver cancer | Seventy; Fifteen; Five |
| Because of lab testing, chances of contracting the hepatitis C virus from a blood transfusion are very ______. | Low |
| _______ does not spread the hepatitis C virus | Casual contact, coughing, sneezing, food, water, sharing eating utensils, drinking glasses |
| Preventing hepatitis C depends on avoiding direct contact with _______. Avoid behaviors that spread the disease, especially direct contact with blood or blood products. | Infected blood |
| There is no vaccine for hepatitis C. a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| What is the primary way HIV is transmitted? | Sexual contact |
| Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)—Another bloodborne virus that attacks the immune system is HIV, which causes _________. | Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS |
| _______ transmission occurs primarily during sexual contact with an infected individual, intravenous drug abusers share contaminated needles, infected mother to unborn child, & from contact with blood/certain body fluids/tissue from an infected individual | Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) |
| Criminal justice officers may have a greater risk of exposure to ______ than many other public employees do | Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) |
| Careful blood donor _________ and blood testing before use have greatly reduced that risk factor. a) donation b) screening c) participation d) analysis | screening |
| _________ do not transmit HIV. a) casual contact b) sneezes c) coughs d) insect stings e) all | All |
| An individual infected with _____ may show no symptoms initially or have mild flu-like symptoms. Infected individuals may live many years without obvious symptoms of infection,becomes a lifelong carrier who can transmit the infection to others | HIV |
| A chronic condition, it attacks the immune system and the body’s natural defense mechanisms against disease. | HIV |
| No vaccine prevents HIV. However, using _____ and appropriate ______ can prevent this highly infectious disease from spreading. Take all reasonable precautions to avoid exposure to HIV and all communicable diseases. | Body Substance Isolation (BSI) and Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) |
| Any infection spread from person to person through the air is an _______. | Airborne infection |
| Breathing in microscopic, disease-bearing organisms called pathogens causes ________. | Airborne infections |
| An infected person who coughs or sneezes into the air, particularly in a relatively confined space, transmits ______. | Airborne infections |
| The lungs provide accumulation sites for airborne infectious microorganisms (bacterium and viruses) that cause communicable diseases, such as the ______. a) common cold b) chicken pox c) both forms of measles d) tuberculosis (TB) e) all | All |
| Of particular concern to officers is _________. a) Measles b) Chicken pox c) Common cold d) Tuberculosis (TB) | Tuberculosis (TB) |
| Nearly one-third of the world’s population has ________. a) airborne diseases b) Measles c) chicken pox d) common cold e) tuberculosis (TB) | Tuberculosis (TB) |
| Over _____ deaths occur yearly from TB disease. | 3,000,000 |
| Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), or sexually transmitted infections, are among the most _______ infectious diseases in the United States today. a) rare b) common c) particular d) diagnostic | Common |
| Of at least ______ identifiable sexually transmitted diseases and infections, seven are most common: Chlamydia, genital herpes, genital warts, gonorrhea, HIV infection and AIDS, syphilis, and hepatitis B. | 20 |
| All sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), or sexually transmitted infections are preventable. a) TRUE b) FALSE | True |
| The _______ is the supporting framework for the body, giving it shape and protecting vital organs. a) muscular system b) nervous system c) skeletal system d) respiratory system | Skeletal system |
| The skeletal system main components are _________. | Skull, hinged jawbone, spinal column, shoulder girdle, chest, pelvis |
| The _______ gives the body shape, protects internal organs, and provides body movement. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) nervous system | Muscular system |
| The body contains different types of muscles. a) voluntary muscles b) involuntary muscles c) cardiac muscles d) all | All- voluntary, involuntary cardiac |
| Muscles used for deliberate acts, such as chewing, bending, lifting, and running, are ________. | voluntary muscles |
| _______, or smooth muscles, carry out many automatic body functions. They are in the walls of the tube-like organs, such as ducts, blood vessels, and the intestinal wall. The individual does not normally control these muscles | Involuntary muscles |
| Found only in the heart, the ______ work constantly to expand and contract the heart. a) voluntary muscles b) involuntary muscles c) cardiac muscles d) all | Cardiac muscles |
| The ________ controls voluntary and involuntary body activity. It also supports higher mental functions, such as thoughts and emotions. a) muscles b) central nervous system c) skeletal system d) nervous system | Nervous system |
| The _________ is located in the brain and in the spinal cord. Its components are the body’s mainframe computer. a) nervous system b) peripheral nervous system c) central nervous system d) spinal nervous system | Central nervous system |
| The _______ includes nerves that connect to the spinal cord and branch out to every other part of the body & serves as a two-way communication system. a) nervous system b) central nervous system c) peripheral nervous system d) brain nervous system | Peripheral nervous system |
| The ________ delivers oxygen to and removes carbon dioxide from the blood. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system | Respiratory system |
| The ________ pumps blood throughout the body. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system | Circulatory system |
| The circulatory system functions to deliver oxygen and nutrients to and remove waste from the body’s tissues. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system | Circulatory system |
| Basic parts of the circulatory system are the ______. a) heart b) veins c) capillaries d) arteries e) blood f) all | All |
| ______ is a major artery in the neck, felt on either side of the neck a) Carotid b) Femoral c) Radial d) Brachial | Carotid |
| ________ is a major artery in the thigh, felt in the groin area a) Carotid b) Femoral c) Radial d) Brachial | Femoral |
| Carotid b) Femoral c) Radial d) Brachial | Radial |
| _______ is a major artery in the upper arm, felt on the inside of the upper arm a) Carotid b) Femoral c) Radial d) Brachial | Brachial |
| The _________ has two main functions: ingesting and digesting food and nutrients. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system e) digestive system | Digestive system |
| Mainly in the abdomen, the digestive system’s organs include the ________. | Stomach, pancreas, liver, gallbladder, small and large intestines |
| The _________ regulates body systems by secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream from glands. a) endocrine system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system e) digestive system | Endocrine system |
| The bloodstream glands include the _________. | Thyroid, adrenals, ovaries, testes, pituitary |
| The _________ is responsible for reproduction and waste removal. a) endocrine system b) muscular system c) genitourinary system d) respiratory system e) digestive system | Genitourinary system |
| Urinary organs include ______. | Kidneys, ureters, urethra (tubes through which urine flows), bladder, Male reproductive organs include the testes and the penis, the female reproductive system consists of ovaries, fallopian tubes, the uterus, the vagina, and external genitals |
| The ______ provides a barrier against bacteria and other harmful substances and organisms. a) lower extremities b) brachial artery c) skin d) heart | Skin |
| Covering the entire body, ______ helps regulate body temperature. | Skin |
| Acting as a communication organ, the _______ also receives and relays information about heat, cold, touch, pressure, and pain. | Skin |
| The _____ transmits this information to the brain and spinal cord through nerve endings. | Skin |
| Before you enter the _______, take an overall view of what you are about to expose yourself to. | Scene |
| The size-up has several components: _______. a) scene safety b) mechanism of injury or nature of illness c) the number of victims d) the need for additional rescuers and special equipment e) all | All |
| Scene safety always begins with your ______. | Safety |
| If the scene is not safe and you have no means to make it safe, _______ a) inform dispatch b) enter c) request backup d) do not enter | Do not enter |
| Quickly put all your observations together (see, hear, smell, and feel) to help determine what you and others need to do to make the _______. a) safe conclusion b) scene safe c) best decision d) scene approachable | Scene safe |
| Possible dangers vary greatly depending on the scene ______. a) category b) type c) location d) size | Type |
| Some situations commonly encountered on duty include vehicle crashes that involve specific dangers, such as _______. | Unstable vehicles, entrapment, spills, fire |
| Violence scenes may involve ________. a) ongoing violence b) weapons c) unruly crowds d) unruly groups of inmates who dislike officerse) all | All |
| Other situations encountered can include environmental dangers such as _______. a) hurricanes b) tornados c) sinkholes d) floods e) all | All |
| While assessing scene safety, try to determine the mechanism of injury to the patient or the nature of the illness. Simply put, try to _____ what happened. a) judge b) figure out c) estimate d) determinate d) floods e) all | Figure out |
| Understanding what happened helps you _______ the extent of injury or illness. a) think b) conclude c) determines d) judge | Judge |
| What questions should an officer himself/herself to try to figure out what happened to judge the extent of the scene? | Are you dealing with a trauma patient or a medical patient? |
| A trauma patient is an ______ persona) violentb) illc) injuredd) sick | Injured |
| A medical patient is a person who is ______.a) violentb) illc) injuredd) sick | Ill |
| A patient who belongs to both categories requires _______. a) treatment for each b) independent treatment c) specialized treatment d) hospitalization | Treatment for each |
| The next size-up component is determining the number of victims, if there is more than one find out: | How many and their locations. |
| In certain situations, such as rollover car crashes, patients ejected from a vehicle are difficult to find. In those situations, you may need to question other ________. | Victims, witnesses, bystanders |
| Assess the needf and relay a request for additional resources, special equipment or special resuce teams, such as: | Trauma teams, fire department, K-9, search and rescue, utilities |
| Remember from CPR training that assessment begins with ______, the ABCs | Airway, breathing, circulation |
| Consider the position of the patient with regard to spinal injury and airway compromise, to include _________. a) Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive b) initial assessment c) Airway, breathing, and circulation d) positional asphyxia | Positional asphyxia |
| Identify yourself and let the patient know you came to help. ______ touch and speak to the patient. a) Gently b) Aggressively c) Softly d) Carefully | Gently |
| What are the levels of responsiveness when assessing a patient? | AVPU-- Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive |
| _______—Determine if the patient is alert. Ask simple questions such as, “What is your name? What day is it? Where are you?” Consider a patient who responds correctly and spontaneously as alert and oriented.a) Alertb) Verbalc) Paind) Unresponsive | Alert |
| ______—A patient who responds verbally to your questions but appears disoriented, or only responds to loud noises, is responding to verbal stimuli.a) Alertb) Verbalc) Paind) Unresponsive | Verbal |
| ________-A patient who does not respond to verbal stimuli but responds to pain stimuli is at the pain responsiveness level. You can assess responsiveness with a pinprick, by pinching the ear lobe, or giving a sternal rub. | Pain |
| ______—A patient who responds to none of the stimuli listed above is unresponsive or unconsciousa) Alertb) Verbalc) Paind) Unresponsive | Unresponsive |
| Place face near mouth & nose to detect breathing, watch the chest (rise and fall), What steps a police officer should take to check for ABCs? | Place face near mouth & nose to detect breathing, watch the chest (rise and fall), breathe increasing or decreasing? wheezing or snoring? Is breathing adequate? Good skin color and effortless breathing characterize adequate breathing |
| Adult normal breathing rates is ______. a) 12-20 b) 15-30 c) 25-50 | 12-20 |
| Child normal breathing rates is _____ breaths per minutes. a) 12-20 b) 15-30 c) 25-50 d) all | 15-30 |
| Infant normal breathing rates is ______. a) 12-20 b) 15-30 c) 25-50 | 25-50 |
| Note the quality of breathing, which includes the rhythm and depth of breath.a) TRUEb) FALSE | TRUE |
| ______ is the interval between breaths. _______ is the equal time between breaths. _______ is the time varies between breaths. a) Rhythm. Regular. Irregular b) Depth. Normal. Short gasps. Deep c) painful d) all | Rhythm. Regular. Irregular |
| ___ or manner of breathing. ___ is the breathing is average and hardly noticeable shallow. __ is very little airflow. ___ is hyperventilation; large airflow a) Rhythm. Regular. Irregular b) Depth. Normal. Short gasps. Deep c) painful d) all | Depth. Normal. Short gasps. Deep |
| Relay vital information to responding medical personnel. Report the rate first and then the qualities, for example, “slow, irregular, and shallow.” a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| Assess patient circulation by _____. a) pulse rate b) skin color c) skin temperature d) all | All |
| To take a patient’s pulse, place your fingers (not your thumb) on a pulse point. Count the # of beats for __. Multiply this # by __ to arrive at the patient’s average pulse rate. a) 15 sec; four b) 20 sec; two c) 30 min; by three d) 40 sec; by two | 15 seconds; four |
| On a conscious adult or child, check the _______. a) radial pulse b) carotid pulse c) brachial pulse | Radial pulse |
| On an unconscious adult or child, check the _______. a) radial pulse b) carotid pulse c) brachial pulse | Carotid pulse |
| On an infant, check the _______. a) radial pulse b) carotid pulse c) brachial pulse | Brachial pulse |
| What is the normal pulse for an adult?a) 60–100b) 100–120c) 120–160 | 60–100 |
| What is the normal pulse for a child?a) 60–100b) 100–120c) 120–160 | 100–120 |
| What is the normal pulse of an infant?a) 60–100b) 100–120c) 120–160 | 120–160 |
| If patient’s pulse rate is outside adult/child/infant ranges, consider the situation a __. Look for and treat uncontrolled bleeding before continuing with the assessment. a) health issue b) heart attack c) life-threatening emergency d) possible shock | Life-threatening emergency |
| Assess a patient’s ______ by placing the back of your hand against the patient’s skin to determine relative skin temperature. a) alcohol level b) skin temperature c) health condition d) blood pressure | Skin temperature |
| If the skin feels _____, the patient could be suffering from heat exhaustion, shock, or exposure to a cold environment a) warm b) hot c) warmish d) cool | Cool |
| If the skin feels _____, the patient could have a fever or heat stroke. a) warm b) hot c) warmish d) cool | Hot |
| Change in body temperature can indicate ______. a) bleeding b) poor circulation c) swelling d) infected area | Poor circulation |
| A hot spot on the skin can indicate an _______. a) swelling b) poor circulation c) bleeding d) infected area | Infected area |
| _______: possible shock or heart attack, fright, impaired blood flow a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skin f) Dry skin | Pale skin |
| ______: alcohol presence, heat stroke, fever, sunburn, high blood pressure, infection, or physical exertion a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skin f) Dry skin | Red skin (flush) |
| ______: appears first in the mouth and fingertip areas, reduced oxygen level, possibly due to shock, heart attack, or poisoning. Look for changes in circulation in the color of lips, palms, and nail beds. Look inside the eyelid of a dark-skinned patient | Blue skin (cyanosis) |
| ________: liver problems a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skin f) Dry skin | Yellow skin (jaundice) |
| _______: heart attack or possible shock a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skin f) Dry skin | Moist skin |
| _______: heat stroke or diabetic emergency a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skinf) Dry skin | Dry skin |
| Carefully work from _______, inspecting and palpating (touching) each body part before moving to the next. a) toe-to-head b) arms-to-legs c) head-to-toe d) body | Head-to-toe |
| What are you looking for when comparing an injured body? a) Injuries b) Deformities, open injuries, tenderness, swelling (DOTS) c) Swelling d) Open injuries | Deformities, open injuries, tenderness, swelling (DOTS) |
| The "D" in D.O.T.S stands for________. a) Disfiguration b) Deformities c) Dislocation d) Discoloration | Deformities |
| The "O" in D.O.T.S stands for________. a) Open holes b) Open wounds c) Open injuries d) Open deformities | Open injuries |
| The "T" in D.O.T.S stands for________. a) Tendency b) Tacful c) Tendernessd) Tender | Tenderness |
| The "S" in D.O.T.S stands for________. a) Swelling b) Symptoms c) Soft d) Substances | Swelling |
| Starting at the head. Observe anything out of the ordinary, such as ______. | Swelling, fluid loss from the ears or nose, discoloration around the eyes (raccoon eyes), mouth injuries that may obstruct the airway, discoloration behind the ears (battle signs |
| Look at the pupils, do they appear round equally sized, constricted (pinpointed), or dilated (enlarged)? Do they move or remain fixed? Flash penlight at each pupil both should react equally. This test can help you detect a ________. | Head injury, presence of alcohol, presence of drugs, presence of other substances |
| Injury to the head, neck, shoulders, back, and abdomen may cause injury to the ______. a) spinal cord b) brain c) circulatory system | Spinal cord |
| What is the correct way of opening the airway with someone who has a neck or spinal injury?a) Jaw pat maneuver b) Jaw push maneuver c) Jaw thrust maneuver d) Jaw slide maneuver | Jaw thrust maneuver |
| After you commit to stabilizing the head & neck, you ____ stay with the patient until EMS relieves you. The object is to keep the breathing patient’s head in the same position you found it and to prevent movement until advanced medical personnel arrives. | Must |
| The _________ method may help you acquire information useful in determining causes of injury or illness. a) SAMPLE b) SECURE c) SARA d) TRIAGE | SAMPLE |
| SAMPLE means Signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, past history, last oral intake, and events. a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| _________—What can you see? (sign/objective)What does the patient feel? (symptom/subjective) a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intakef) Events | Signs and symptoms |
| ________—Does the patient have allergies? a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events | Allergies |
| _______—Is the patient currently taking medication; when was the last dose? a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events | Medications |
| ________—What other medical problems may contribute to the patient’s current condition?a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events | Past history |
| _______—When did the patient last eat or drink? a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events | Last oral intake |
| ______—What events led to this incident? a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events | Events |
| As the first person on the scene of a ________, you must relay scene and patient information to medical responders when they arrive. a) fire fighters b) medical responders c) bystanders d) family members | Medical responders |
| What do you do when a patient is in immediate danger or the patient’s location prevents providing care to that patient or another patient? a) Emergency move b) Clothes drag c) Recovery position d) Emergency drag e) Non-emergency move | Emergency move |
| Perform a nonemergency move, such as a walking assist, when the situation is not urgent. a) Emergency move b) Clothes drag c) Recovery position d) Emergency drag e) Non-emergency move | Non-emergency move |
| Perform a this move, such as a walking assist, when the situation is not urgent. a) Emergency move b) Clothes drag c) Recovery position d) Emergency drag e) Non-emergency move | Non-emergency move |
| Always use BSI and appropriate PPE when moving a patient. a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| Place an unresponsive, breathing patient with no suspected _____ in the recovery position: roll patient, preferably onto his or her left side, with knees slightly bent. a) head or back injuries b) neck or back injuries c) neck injuries d) spinal injury | Neck or back injuries |
| In the _______: roll the patient, preferably onto his or her left side, with knees slightly bent. a) positional asphyxia b) physical restraints c) recovery position d) in-custody death | Recovery position |
| The _________ helps maintain an open airway if the patient becomes nauseated or vomits and may prevent positional asphyxia | Recovery position |
| _________ is a term used to describe the placement of a body in a position that interferes with the ability to breathe. a) Positional asphyxia b) Physical restraints c) Recovery position d) In-custody death | Positional asphyxia |
| Application of physical restraints can contribute to positional asphyxia when a subject is placed ____. a) face down b) with his or her chest on a hard surface c) arms restrained behind his or her back d) left for a significant period of time e) all | All |
| Positional asphyxia may result in an ________. a) positional asphyxia b) physical restraints c) recovery position d) in-custody death | In-custody death |
| Stand next to patient, same side as the injury, place P arm across your shoulder, place your arm around the P’s waist. Grab belt, assist the to a safe location & discourage placing body weight on the injury. These are the steps to assist the P on _____. | Walking assist |
| Stand at patient’s head, bend knees, slide hands under the patient’s arms, firmly grasp patient’s wrists, fold them across chest. Stand up, lift patient up & toward you, drag toward you, feet will drag the ground. This is steps to assist patient ____. | Shoulder drag/carr |
| Use the ________ technique only when moving the patient is necessary or when assisting medical personnel. a) shoulder drag/carry b) extremity lift or carry c) logroll d) two-person extremity lift | Logroll |
| The purpose of a logroll is to roll the patient onto his or her a) back or b) front c) side d) or e) all | All |
| Perform a _______ on the floor or ground with at least three officers on their knees. a) shoulder drag/carry b) extremity lift or carryc) logrolld) two-person extremity lift | Logroll |
| Logroll--Officer _____, constantly maintain head, neck, and spinal stabilization. a) one b) two c) three d) all | One |
| Logroll--Officer ______, take your position at the patient’s shoulder and hip. Stay far enough away from the side of patient’s body so there is room to roll the patient toward you. a) one b) two c) three d) all | two |
| Officer __, take position on the same side of the patient as officer two. Stand at the patient’s thigh and lower leg. Stay far enough away from the side of patient’s body so there is room to roll the patient toward you. a) one b) two c) three d) all | Three |
| Logroll--Officer _____, reach across the patient. Place your hand on the patient’s shoulder. Place your other hand on the patient’s hip. a) one b) two c) three d) all | two |
| Officer ______, reach across the patient. Logroll--Place your hand closer to the second officer’s hand on the patient’s hip. Place your other hand on the outside of the patient’s knee area. a) one b) two c) three d) all | Officer ______, reach across the patient. Place your hand closer to the second officer’s hand on the patient’s hip. Place your other hand on the outside of the patient’s knee area.a) oneb) two*c) threed) all |
| Logroll--Officer ____, issue all commands to roll the patient. While maintaining patient’s head, neck, and cervical spine alignment. Assess the for injuries, reverse the process to return the patient to original position. *a) one b) two c) three | one |
| Incidents that involve more than one victim are called _______. a) SAMPLE b) Multiple Casualty Incidents (MCI) c) TRIAGE d) Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment | Multiple Casualty Incidents (MCI) |
| Your role as first officer on the scene involves ____. a) look for suspects hiding b) establish command of the scene, communicating with EMS, and beginning triage c) interview witnesses to determine the cause of the MCI d) begin triage immediately | Establishing command of the scene, communicating with EMS, and beginning triage |
| Inform ______ of additional resources or equipment that you may need for an MCI a) EMS personnel b) fire department c) rescue team d) communication center | EMS personnel |
| The next steps after your informing the communication center and/or responding EMS personnel is to begin _______. a) SAMPLE b) START c) triage d) Physical assessment | Triage |
| ______ is the term given to sorting and classifying patients. a) SAMPLE b) Physical assessment c) Triage d) START | Triage |
| Triage determines in which order patients receive medical attention. Although methods of performing triage differ, its basic principles remain the same. a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| Define START. a) Security Tactics and Rapid Tyranny b) Security Teams and Rapid Tactics c) Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment d) Simple Training and Rapid Treatment | Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment |
| ______ (START) is the initial triage system based upon Florida Incident Field Operations Guide (FOG). a) Security Tactics & Rapid Tyranny b) Security Teams & Rapid Tactics c) Simple Triage & Rapid Treatment d) Simple Training & Rapid Treatment | Simple Triage & Rapid Treatment |
| The ________ (START) method of triage assesses a large number of victims rapidly and personnel with limited medical training can use it effectively. | Simple Triage & Rapid Treatment |
| Classify patients according to the START protocols. a) RED—immediate b) YELLOW—delayed c) GREEN—ambulatory (minor) d) BLACK—deceased (expectant/non-salvageable) e) All | All |
| According to the START: immediate is _________ | RED |
| According to the START: delaye is _________ | YELLOW |
| According to the START: ambulatory (minor) is _________ | GREEN |
| According to the START: deceased (expectant/non-salvageable) is _________ | BLACK |
| _______ is the failure of the heart and blood vessels (circulatory system) to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body. a) Psychogenic shock b) Heart attack c) Neurogenic shock d) Shock | Shock |
| Signs and symptoms of shock may include anxiety, restlessness, and fainting, nausea and vomiting, excessive thirst, eyes that are vacant and dull (lackluster) with large (dilated) pupils, and also: | Shallow, rapid, and irregular breathing, pale, cool, and/or moist (clammy) skin, weak, rapid, or absent pulse |
| ________ decreased amount of blood or fluids in the body. a) Anaphylactic shock (allergic) b) Psychogenic shock c) Hypovolemic (low volume) shock d) Shock e) Neurogenic shock | Hypovolemic (low volume) shock |
| _______ shock decrease results from injuries that produce internal & external bleeding, fluid loss due to burns, & dehydration due to severe vomiting & diarrhea. a) Anaphylactic b) Psychogenic c) Hypovolemic d) Shock e) Neurogenic | Hypovolemic (low volume) shock |
| _________ shock is an abnormal enlargement of the blood vessels, which is often caused by brain or spinal cord injury. a) Anaphylactic b) Psychogenic c) Hypovolemic d) Shock e) Neurogenic | Neurogenic shock |
| ____________ is a “shock like condition” produced by excessive fear, joy, anger, or grief. Post-Traumatic Stress Syndrome (PTSS) is a psychological adjustment reaction to extreme, stressful experiences such as war, multiple casualty incidents, etc. | Psychogenic shock |
| Care for PTSS is limited to emotional support and transportation of the patient to: | A medical facility. |
| __________ shock occurs when an individual is exposed to a substance to which his or her body is sensitive. a) Anaphylactic b) Psychogenic c) Hypovolemic d) Shock e) Neurogenic | Anaphylactic shock (allergic) |
| Types of closed soft tissue injuries are ________. a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) | All |
| ________ is a closed injury that is discolored and painful at the injury site. a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) | Contusion (bruising) |
| _______ is the obvious discoloration (black and blue) of the soft tissue at the injury site.a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) | Bruising |
| _______ is a closed injury that appears as a discolored lump. a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) | Hematoma (swelling) |
| ________ is the soft tissue raised when blood or other body fluids pool beneath the skin at the injury site. a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) | Swelling |
| Types of open soft tissue injuries are ________. a) abrasion b) amputation c) avulsion d) evisceration e) laceration f) puncture wound g) all | All |
| ________ is an open wound caused by scraping, shearing away, or rubbing the outermost skin layera) Abrasionb) Amputationc) Avulsiond) Evisceratione) Lacerationf) Puncture wound | Abrasion |
| ________ is a gross removal of appendagea) Abrasionb) Amputationc) Avulsiond) Evisceratione) Lacerationf) Puncture wound | Amputation |
| ________ is an injury characterized by a flap of torn or cut skin that may not be completely loose from the body a) Abrasion b) Amputation c) Avulsion d) Evisceration e) Lacerationf) Puncture wound | Avulsion |
| ________ is an open wound where the organs protrude a) Abrasion b) Amputation c) Avulsion d) Evisceration e) Laceration f) Puncture wound | Evisceration |
| ________ is an open wound in soft tissue that varies in depth and width a) Abrasion b) Amputation c) Avulsion d) Evisceration e) Laceration f) Puncture wound | Laceration |
| __________ is the result of driving a sharp or blunt, pointed object into soft tissue a) Abrasion b) Amputation c) Avulsion d) Evisceration e) Laceration f) Puncture wound | Puncture wound |
| There are three types of bleeding, they are: | Arterial, venous, capillary |
| In _________, bright red blood spurts from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged artery. a) arterial bleeding b) venous bleeding c) capillary bleeding | arterial bleeding |
| In _________, dark red blood flows steadily from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged vein. a) arterial bleeding b) venous bleeding | venous bleeding |
| In ________, dark red blood oozes slowly from a wound, indicating damaged capillaries. a) arterial bleeding b) venous bleeding c) capillary bleeding | capillary bleeding |
| ________ are usually the result of an object, blunt or sharp, penetrating the skin’s soft tissue. a) Obstruction b) Impaled object c) Force d) Puncture wounds | Puncture wounds |
| A penetrating or puncture wound’s severity depends on the ________. a) wound’s location b) object’s size c) forces that created the injury d) all | All |
| An ________ is an object that punctures the soft tissue and stays in place. a) obstruction b) impaled object c) force d) puncture wounds | impaled object |
| An _______ in the head, neck, or thorax needs immediate care followed by prompt EMS transport. a) obstruction b) objected impaled c) force d) puncture wounds | objected impaled |
| Identify when to remove an impaled object. a) When it is in an eye b) When a major organ is affected c) When obstructs the patient’s airway d) When it seems serious | When obstructs the patient’s airway |
| A _____ can be a serious body injury. a) an impaled object b) a neurogenic shock c) contusion d) bite | Bite |
| The wound of a _____ can become infected and cause severe discomfort. In rare instances, limbs are lost. a) an impaled object b) a neurogenic shock c) contusion d) bite | Bite |
| Human or animal bites are more likely to become infected than other wounds. With human bites, be aware of the possibility of ________. a) officer safety b) bloodborne pathogens c) tuberculosis d) biohazardous contamination | Bloodborne pathogens |
| Gunshot wounds can cause serious injury by _________ and otherwise damaging internal organs. a) fragmenting b) penetrating c) vibrating d) all | All |
| For any gunshot wound not in an extremity, consider ________immobilization. a) recovery position b) logroll c) spinal d) head e) neck f) shoulder alignment | Spinal |
| What are the most serious emergencies? a) eye b) foot c) nose bleeds d) head and neck | Head and neck |
| What are the most serious emergencies? a) eye b) foot c) nose bleeds d) head and neck | Head and neck |
| If a head or neck injury is obvious or suspected, or if a trauma patient is unresponsive, immediately stabilize the ________. a) eye b) foot c) nose bleeds d) head and neck | Head and neck |
| Scalp wounds may bleed profusely but are usually easy to control with ________. a) direct pressure b) pressure points c) elevation d) tourniquets | Direct pressure |
| _______ apply direct pressure to a head wound if the patient has an obvious or depressed skull fracture. You might drive fragments of bone into brain tissue, causing further damage. a) Always b) Depend on the case c) Never d) Sometime | Never |
| Your main concern is establishing and maintaining an _______. a) patient safety b) act according you department policies c) open airway d) officer safety | Open airway |
| Which are types of eye traumas? a) Eyelid injuries, chemical burns, objects impaled in the eye, & an extruded eyeball b) Cornea, retina, iris & pupil c) Lens, choroid layer, & sclera d) Eyeball, eyelids, eye muscles, ophthalmology, & optic nerve | Eyelid injuries, chemical burns, objects impaled in the eye, and an extruded eyeball |
| If an object entered the eye, such as ______, remove it by flushing the eye with water. a) finger b) pencil c) tiny rock d) dirt or sand | Dirt or sand |
| How do you treat an eyelid itself? a) Gentry applying patches to both eyes b) Cover it with a moist dressing and apply bandage to both eyes c) Cover it with a dry dressing d) Apply bandage to the injured eye | Gentry applying patches to both eyes |
| Treat trauma to the eye socket that cause the eyeball to come out of its socket? a) Restore the eyeball to the socket, apply bandage b) Do not try to restore the eyeball to the socket. Cover with moist dressing, & apply bandage over both eyes | Do not try to restore the eyeball to the socket. Cover it with a moist dressing, and apply a bandage over both eyes |
| The _______ contains major blood vessels and the windpipe (trachea). a) neck b) open wounds c) swelling d) spinal injury | Neck |
| ______ wounds can bleed profusely. a) Neck b) Open wounds c) Swelling d) Spinal injury e) All | Neck |
| Air entering a blood vessel in the neck can cause ________. a) stroke b) heart attack c) pulmonary embolism d) All | All |
| For deep lacerations on the _______, apply an occlusive (airtight) dressing. a) neck b) chest c) abdomen d) all | Neck |
| When assessing for a neck wound, look for obvious deformity of the ________. a) neck b) open wounds c) swelling d) spinal injury e) all | All |
| Where would you cover with dressing and a bandage? a) Arms b) Abdomen c) Finger d) Neck | Neck |
| Do not wrap the bandage around the neck. a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| A _______ in the chest area can affect the patient’s breathing. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest | Puncture wound |
| A ________injury results from blunt trauma to the chest area. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest | Closed chest injury |
| A _______ damages internal organs and/or causes internal bleeding. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest | Closed chest injury |
| A _______ is a type of closed chest injury. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest | Flail chest |
| A ________ occurs when two or more adjacent ribs are fractured in two or more places and become free floating. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest | Flail chest |
| An ________ occurs when penetration opens the chest area. a) sucking chest injury b) puncture wound c) open chest injury d) closed chest injury | Open chest injury |
| A ____ is a type of open chest injury in which air and/or blood escapes into the area surrounding the lungs, creating a change in the pressure in the chest cavity. a) sucking chest injury b) puncture wound c) open chest injury d) closed chest injury | Sucking chest injury |
| ________ can create breathing difficulties because it will not allow the lungs to expand and contract properly. a) Sucking chest injury b) Puncture wound c) Open chest injury d) Closed chest injury | Sucking chest injury |
| You may hear a _______ noise or the injury may bubble as air moves through the open injury. a) sucking b) puncture c) open chest d) closed chest | Sucking |
| An _______ is an open wound where the organs protrude from the abdominal cavity. a) flail chest b) closed chest injury c) abdominal evisceration d) neck injury | Abdominal evisceration |
| Do not get tunnel vision with a case of an abdominal evisceration open wound. a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| What is the medical term for a broken bone? a) Break b) Crack c) Fracture d) Injury | Fracture |
| An ________ fracture is when the at the injury site is broken, and the bone may protrude through the skin. a) open b) partial c) closed d) sustained | Open |
| A _________ fracture is when the skin at the injury site remains intact. a) open b) partial c) closed d) sustained | Closed |
| Force breaks a _____. a) hand b) foot c) heart d) bone | Bone |
| There are several types of force: _________. a) Direct force b) Indirect force c) Twisting force d) All | All |
| _______ causes injury at the point of impact. a) Direct force b) Indirect force c) Twisting force d) All | Direct force |
| Force delivered from a blow to the head with a baseball bat or as a driver’s chest hits the steering wheel is an example of ______. a) direct force b) indirect force c) twisting force d) all | Direct force |
| _______ causes injury past the point of impact. a) Direct force b) Indirect force c) Twisting force d) All | Indirect force |
| The break may occur when a falling person extends the arms to break the fall and breaks his or her elbows is an example of _______. a) direct force b) indirect force c) twisting force d) all | Indirect force |
| _______ causes injury when one part of a limb remains stationary, while the other twists. This is an example of ______. a) Direct force b) Indirect force c) Twisting force d) all | Twisting force |
| The result can be a spiral fracture, a bone break often caused by a sports injury or physical abuse. This is an example of ________. a) direct force b) indirect force c) twisting force d) all | Twisting force |
| Define PMS.a) Pre-Menstrual Syndrome b) Post Medical Survey c) Pulse, Motor, Sensory d) Premeditated Murders Symptoms | Pulse, Motor, Sensory |
| _________ assess for circulation before and after splinting by checking for distal circulation below the injury site a) Pulse b) Motor c) Sensory d) Survey | Pulse |
| _________ assess for movement of upper extremities. Ask the patient to move his or her fingers and/or squeeze your hand. a) Pulse b) Puncture c) Motor d) Sensory | Motor |
| _________ assess sensation before movement. As the patient if he or she has feeling where you touch. a) Pulse b) Motor c) Sensory d) Survey | Sensory |
| _________ occurs when the end of a bone comes out of the socket at the joint. a) Fracture b) Separated c) Sprain d) Dislocation | Dislocation |
| Do not try to put the dislocated bone back into place because major _________ and nerves can lie near the joint. Further injury may occur if you do this improperly. a) blood vessels b) impaled object c) arteries d) capillary | Blood vessels |
| How do you treat an extremity fracture? a) Splint (tablilla) b) Sling (vendaje) c) Swath (tela alrededor cuello y brazo) d) All | All |
| There are two types of amputations: _______. a) severe and regular b) bleeding and not bleeding c) complete and incomplete d) total and partial | Complete and incomplete |
| ______ injuries are classified by depth. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness | Burns |
| _______ are the least serious, partial thickness burns involve more skin layers and are more serious, and full thickness burns are the most serious. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness | Superficial burns |
| _________ (first-degree) burns damage the first layer of skin, which becomes red and feels very painful. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness | Superficial burns |
| _________ (second-degree) burns damage the first two skin layers, which blister and feel very painful. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness | Partial thickness |
| _________ (third-degree) burns damage all skin layers and affect muscles and nerves. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness | Full thickness |
| Skin looks waxy, white, or charred are examples of ______. a) burns b) superficial burns c) partial thickness d) full thickness | Full thickness |
| Because of nerve damage at the site of a ________ burn, the patient may feel no pain. a) burns b) superficial burns c) partial thickness d) full thickness | Full thickness |
| Superficial burns are ______. a) first-degree b) second-degree c) third-degree d) all | First-degree |
| Partial thickness burns are _______. a) first-degree b) second-degree c) third-degree d) all | Second-degree |
| Full thickness burns are _______. a) first-degree b) second-degree c) third-degree d) all | Third-degree |
| Thermal burns, chemical burns, electrical burns, and inhalation burns are ______. a) burns classifications b) types of burns c) burns units d) inflicted burns | Types of burns |
| Burns on the ________ should be considered a critical burn. a) face b) hands c) fee d) genitals e) all | All |
| The anatomical structures present in childbirth are _________. a) uterus b) cervix c) placenta d) birth canal e) umbilical cord f) amniotic sac g) all | All |
| ______ is an organ that holds the developing fetus a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac | Uterus |
| ______ is neck of the uterus; contains a mucus plug a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac | Cervix |
| _______ is a disk-shaped inner lining of the uterus; provides nourishment and oxygen to the developing a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac | Placenta |
| ________ is a passage the fetus is pushed through during a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac | Birth canal |
| ________ is a cord connecting the fetus and the mother; transports nourishment to the a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac | Umbilical cord |
| _______ is a bag of fluid surrounding the a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac | Amniotic sac |
| The final phase of pregnancy, _______ also begins the birthing process. a) dilation b) expulsion c) placental d) labor | Labor |
| ______ consists of contractions of the uterine wall that force the fetus and later the placenta into the outside world. a) Dilation b) Expulsion c) Placental d) Labor | Labor |
| Normal labor occurs in several stages _________. a) dilation b) expulsion c) placental d) all | All |
| 1st stage begins with 1st contraction and continues until the fetus enters the birth canal, the amniotic sac may rupture, causing fluid gushes from the vagina. Patient may say something like, “My water broke.” a) Dilation b) Expulsion c) Placental | Dilation |
| 2nd stage, fetus moves thru the birth canal & is born. Mother experiences pressure, pain, uncontrollable urge to push down. Head crowns, or becomes visible, as it emerges from the vagina, shoulders & rest follow. a) Dilation b) Expulsion c) Placental | Expulsion |
| In the third stage, the ________ separates from the uterine wall and moves through the birth canal for delivery. This stage usually occurs within 30 minutes after the baby’s delivery. a) dilation b) expulsion c) placenta d) all | Placental |
| Dilation (_________)a) preparationb) delivery of the babyc) delivery of the placentad) all | Preparation |
| Expulsion (________)a) preparation*b) delivery of the babyc) delivery of the placentad) all | Delivery of the baby |
| Placental (________)a) preparationb) delivery of the baby*c) delivery of the placentad) all | Delivery of the placenta |
| Although the vast majority of pregnancies and deliveries are normal, you must be aware of possible complications, some of them are: poisoning of the blood (toxemia), vaginal bleeding, pain in the lower stomach and/or under the diaphragm…the rest are: | Passage of tissue from the vagina, tender, bloated, or rigid stomach, missed menstrual periods, signs of shock |
| ________ results from the narrowing of airway passages, which causes breathing difficulties. a) Asthma b) Heart disease c) Stroke d) Diabetes | Asthma |
| Signs and symptoms of asthma are __________. a) breathing difficulty while exhaling b) a wheezing or whistling sound c) tense d) frightened e) nervous behavior f) all | All |
| A _______ is damage to part of the brain due to rupture or blockage of a blood vessel. a) asthma b) heart disease c) stroke d) diabetes | Stroke |
| Signs and symptoms of a stroke include: numbness/paralysis of extremities, typically on one side, confusion or dizziness, difficulty speaking or slurred speech, difficulty with vision, as well as: | Headaches, seizures, diminished consciousness/unconsciousness, difficulty breathing, facial drooping |
| A _________ is caused by oxygen deprivation to part of the heart, typically from a blocked blood vessel. a) asthma b) heart attacks c) stroke d) diabetes | Heart attacks |
| A ________ may lead to cardiac arrest; be prepared to administer CPR. a) asthma b) heart attacks c) stroke d) diabetes | Heart attacks |
| Possible signs and symptoms of a heart attack are _______. a) chest pain (may radiate to other parts of the body: arm/jaw) b) difficulty breathing c) cool, pale, moist skin/profuse sweating d) nausea/vomiting f) dizziness g) irregular pulse *h) all | All |
| ________ is a disease in which the body does not produce or use insulin.a) Asthmab) Heart diseasec) Stroke*d) Diabetes | Diabetes |
| ________ is a hormone needed to convert sugar, starches, and other food into energy needed for daily life.a) Insulinb) Diabetesc) Seizuresd) Hypothermia | Insulin |
| Intoxicated appearance, (staggering/slurred speech; altered mental state, including dizziness, drowsiness, and confusion; without smell of alcohol). These are the signs and symptoms of a _______. a) Asthma b) Insulin c) Diabetic Emergencies d) Diabetes | Diabetic Emergencies |
| Person in a diabetic emergency often exhibit signs & symptoms resembling drunkenness or drug overdose. a) Make assumptions & arrest this person immediate b) Do not make assumptions; investigate further before making an arrest c) Request an ambulance | Do not make assumptions; investigate further before making an arrest |
| Intoxicated appearance, sweet/fruity/acetone-smelling breath (might mistake alcohol) irregular breathing, rapid or weak pulse; flushed, dry or moist, warm skin; seizures. These are the signs and symptoms of a _______. | Diabetic Emergencies |
| When assessing a conscious patient, ask if he or she has a _______. a) insulin b) blood sugar/glucose monitors c) syringes d) medical condition | Medical condition |
| If patient says he has diabetes, you should ______. a) ask if the person has eaten or taken medication and/or insulin b) look for medical alert tags c) look for obvious signs, syringes/insulin/insulin pumps/blood sugar/glucose monitors d) all | All |
| Do not give the patient anything by mouth unless he or she is ______. a) fully conscious b) out c) aware d) competent | Fully conscious |
| _________ symptoms range from a blank stare into space or random shaking to twitching extremities or whole body muscle contractions. a) Asthma b) Seizures c) Stroke d) Diabetes | Seizures |
| Incontinent means: | Lose bowel or bladder control |
| While having a _______, patient may stop breathing temporarily; bite his tongue, become incontinent, make noises, spit and have a foamy appearance around the mouth, and/or be unresponsive. a) asthma b) seizure c) stroke d) diabetes | Seizure |
| Causes of seizures include ________. a) head injury, trauma b) stroke, shock, high fever (predominately in children) c) poisoning, including alcohol and drug-related poisoning d) complications from pregnancy e) diseases f) unknown causes g) all | All |
| Clear the _____ around the patient having a seizure to prevent further injury. a) throat b) area c) purse/wallet d) neck | Area |
| Persons experiencing a _______ often exhibit signs and symptoms that resemble drunkenness or drug overdose and in some cases may show signs of aggression. a) heart attack b) seizure c) convulsion d) minor seizure | Minor seizure |
| Do not make assumptions, if a person signs and symptoms that resemble drunkenness or drug overdose and in some cases may show signs of aggression. Investigate further before making _______. a) an arrest b) contacting EMS c) a mistake d) assumption | An arrest |
| Heat and cold emergencies may result in bodily injury and ultimately cause _______. a) drunkenness b) an injury c) death d) an illness | Death |
| ________ may be more susceptible to these types of injuries. a) elderly persons b) infants c) diabetics d) persons with various pre-existing health conditions e) all | All |
| Exposure to cold causes ________. a) hypothermia b) hypothermia and frostbite c) frostbite d) hyperthermia | Hypothermia and frostbite |
| ________ is an excessive cooling of the body’s core temperature a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite d) Hyperthermia | Hypothermia |
| _______ is a localized injury from overexposure to cold. a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite d) Hyperthermia | Frostbite |
| Causes of hypothermia can include ________. a) overexposure to cold b) weather conditions, such as wind-chill, improper clothing, submersion in cool water for an extended time c) inability to heat physical surroundings adequately d) all | All |
| Hypothermia signs & symptoms, include _____. a) shivering, numbness, changes in pulse rate and breathing d) alert but with possible drowsiness, decreased muscle function f) sluggish pupils, altered mental status, bluish skin, cardiac arrest j) all | All |
| ______ consider a hypothermic patient deceased until the patient is warmed in an appropriate medical facility. Continue to care for the patient until EMS relieves you. a) Always b) Depend of the situation c) Never d) All | Never |
| ________, is the freezing or near freezing of a body part. a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite or local cold injury d) Hyperthermia | Frostbite or local cold injury |
| Frostbite usually occurs in exposed body areas or areas with lower blood supply, such as a) ears b) nose c) fingertips d) toes e) all | All |
| ________ can cause loss of the affected areas. a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite d) Hyperthermia | Frostbite |
| Signs and symptoms of frostbite include __________. a) skin that remains soft and turns very pale when touched b) affected area that tingles as it re-warms c) affected person losing feeling or sensation d) all | All |
| Heat-related emergencies can occur from loss of fluids and salts through heavy sweating. a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| _______ occurs when the body cannot recover from this fluid loss. a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite d) Hyperthermia | Hyperthermia |
| Stages of hyperthermia _________. a) heat cramps b) heat exhaustion c) heatstroke d) all | All |
| Signs & symptoms of heat-related emergencies include: cramps in legs, arms, or abdominal muscles, weakness, exhaustion, dizziness, fainting, strong, rapid pulse that weakens as damage progresses, as well as: | Headache, appetite loss, vomiting, altered mental state or unresponsiveness, seizures , moist, cool skin during the heat cramps or heat exhaustion stage, hot, dry skin during the heatstroke stage |
| ____ is a sign of a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt EMS transport a) Weakness, exhaustion b) Hot, dry skin during heatstroke stage c) Strong, rapid pulse that weakens as damage progresses d) Altered mental state or unresponsiveness | Hot, dry skin during the heatstroke stage |
| Localized or radiating abdominal pain, anxiety, reluctance to move, loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting, fever, abdominal distention, patient in fetal position, signs of shock are signs & symptoms of ____. a) heart attack b) abdominal pains c) stroke | Abdominal pains |
| _______ are substances that may cause an allergic reaction, injury, or death if introduced into the body. a) Poisons b) Absorption pills c) Chemicals d) Overdose | Poisons |
| Poisons can be solids, liquids, or gases that enter the body through _______. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption. e) all | All |
| Poisoning by _________ occurs when poison enters the body through the mouth. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all | Ingestion |
| Burns around the mouth, odd breath odor, nausea, vomiting, stomach pains, diarrhea, altered mental status, breathing difficulty and seizures are signs and symptoms of poisoning by _________. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption. e) all | Ingestion |
| Poisoning by _________ occurs when poison enters the body through the mouth and/or nose. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all | Inhalation |
| Possible examples of inhaled poisons include by-products of___________. a) fire b) cyanide c) carbon monoxide (CO) d) chlorine e) Other gases f) all | All |
| Breathing difficulty/chest pain, cough and/or burning sensation in throat, cyanosis, dizziness, confusion, seizures, unresponsiveness, & reddening around the mouth (late sign) are signs & symptoms of poisoning by __________. a) ingestion b) inhalation | Inhalation |
| Poisoning by ________ occurs when poison is inserted into the body through a small opening in the skin. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all | Injection |
| Sources of poisoning by _________ may include bites, stings, and toxic injections. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all | Injection |
| Bite/sting mark, stinger/tentacle, or venom sac that remains in the skin, redness at/around entry site, swelling at/around entry site, pain/tenderness at/around entry site are signs & symptoms of poisoning by: a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection | Injection |
| Poisoning by ________ occurs when poison enters the body through contact with the surface of the skin. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all | Absorption |
| Sources of poisoning by __________ can be poisonous plants such as poison ivy, poison sumac, poison oak, poison wood, etc., corrosives, insecticides, and herbicides, and cleaning products. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all | Absorption |
| Liquid or powder on skin, burns, itching and/or irritation, redness/rash, & blistering, shock, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, convulsions or seizures are signs & symptoms of poisoning _____. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption | Absorption |
| Many people have ________ to substances in the venom of bees, wasps, hornets, and yellow jackets. a) hypersensitization b) allergies c) physical reaction d) severe allergies | Severe allergies |
| When stung, highly allergic people need immediate medical care for ________, a severe allergic reaction in which air passages swell and restrict breathing. a) anaphylaxis b) Neurogenic shock c) Psychogenesis shock d) Hypovolemic shock | Anaphylaxis |
| Signs and symptoms of an insect bite or sting, as observed in patient assessment, are similar to those of _______ poison.a ) inhaled b) absorbed c) injected d) inhaled | Injected |
| What is the preferred way to remove stinger in skin from an insect? a) Using tweezers b) Knife c) Scrape the stinger away from the skin with the edge of a plastic card held at an angle d) Fingernail clippers | Scrape the stinger away from the skin with the edge of a plastic card held at an angle |
| _________ venom contains some of the most complex poisons known. a) Scorpions b) Bees c) Snakes d) African honeybees | Snakes |
| Snake poisons can affect the _______. a) central nervous system b) heart c) kidneys d) blood e) all | All |
| _________, results from insect bites or stings, medications, pollen, foods, chemicals, or any substance that triggers an allergic reaction. a) Coma b) Drug overdose c) Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis d) Excited delirium | Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis |
| Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening emergency! Reaction can occur within _______ after a sting, ingestion, or exposure. a) hours b) minutes c) seconds d) days | Seconds |
| The more quickly signs and symptoms appear, the greater the risk of fatality. a) Coma b) Drug overdose c) Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis d) Excited delirium | Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis |
| Signs & symptoms of anaphylactic shock may include: warm, tingling feeling in the mouth/face/chest/feet/hands, itching skin & hives, swollen eyes/hands/feet, cyanosis, paleness, cough, swollen mouth, tongue, or throat that obstructs the airway as well as: | Painful/squeezing sensation in chest, whistling sound prior loss of voice, rapid/labored/noisy/wheezing/breathing, dizziness, cough, increased heart rate, restlessness, itchy, watery eyes/headache/runny nose, sense impending doom, decreasing mental status |
| A ______ is an emergency that involves poisoning by legal or illegal drugs. a) coma b) drug overdose c) anaphylactic shock d) excited delirium | Drug overdose |
| Most drug overdoses involve drug abuse by long-time users. A drug overdose can also result from _________. a) accident b) miscalculation c) confusion d) use of more than one drug e) suicide attempt f) all | All |
| An overdose occurs when someone uses an excessive amount of a substance. It causes adverse reactions ranging from excited delirium to ________. a) coma and death b) drug overdose c) anaphylactic shock d) excited delirium | Coma and death |
| The most reliable indications of a _______ come from the scene and patient history. a) coma b) drug overdose c) death d) excited delirium | Drug overdose |
| Unresponsiveness, breathing difficulty, abnormal pulse, fever, vomiting, convulsions or seizures, sweating, tremors, abnormal pupil reactions, blurred vision,. These are the signs and symptoms of an _____. a) drug overdose b) coma c) excited delirium | Drug overdose |
| Slurred speech, muscle spasms, signs of illicit drug use, combativeness, extraordinary strength, endurance without fatigue. These are the signs and symptoms of ________. a) drug overdose b) coma c) excited delirium | Drug overdose |
| Sudden tranquility after frenzied activity, paranoia, memory loss, hallucinations, altered mental status/abnormal behavior. These are the signs and symptoms of ________.a) drug overdose b) coma c) excited delirium | Drug overdose |
| ________ is neither a medical nor a psychiatric condition. a) Coma b) Drug overdose c) Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis d) Excited delirium | Excited delirium |
| In most cases, the force required to subdue the suspect was not sufficient to cause death. Medical authorities have typically had extreme difficulty identifying cause of death. a) Drug overdose b) Anaphylactic shock/anaphylaxis c) Excited delirium | Excited delirium |
| Unbelievable strength/imperviousness to pain, hyperthermia, sweating, shedding clothes or nudity, bizarre and violent behavior, aggression, attraction to glass, foaming at the mouth/drooling, dilated pupils. These are the signs and symptoms of _____. | Excited delirium |
| The method for dealing with suspected ____ is to provide medical treatment to the individual according to substance abuse procedures & be aware of positional asphyxia. a) coma b) drug overdose c) anaphylactic shock/anaphylaxis d) excited delirium | Excited delirium |
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