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FDLE OBJ- DEF TACTIC
FDLE OBJ- FDLE DEFENSIVE TACTICS
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| BoB | Back of Book def |
| A system of controlled defensive and offsensive body movements used by criminal justice officers to respond to a subject's aggression or resistance | Defensive tactics |
| Any exercise that elevates the heart rate to a range between 60 to 85 percent of the maximum rate | Cardiovascular training |
| The capacity a subject has to carry out his or her intent | Ability |
| A subject's use of physically evasive movements directed toward the officer examples include bracing, tensing, pushing, pulling to prevent the officer from establishing control over the subject | Active resistance |
| A subject's attacking movements toward an officer that may cause injury but are not likely to cause deatch or great bodily harm to the officer or others | Agressive resistance |
| The verbal and/or physical yeilding to an officer's authority without apparent threat of resistance or violence | Compliance |
| Decreasing the use of force or resistance | De-escalation |
| Force that is likely to cause death or great bodily harm | Deadly force |
| A subject's hostile, attacking movements, with or without a weapon, that creates a reasonable perception by the officer that the subject intends to cause and has the capability of causing death or great bodily harm to the officer or others | Deadly force resistance |
| The discontinuing of commands or the physical use of force; breaking away from a subject | Disengagement |
| Increasing the use of force or resistance | Escalation |
| A framework for making decisions involving the reasonable use of force by criminal justice officers | Force Guidelines |
| A reasonably perceived, imminent threat to an officer or another person | Intent |
| Force that is not intended to cause death or great bodily harm; nondeadly | Nonlethal weapon |
| A term the courts have used to describe the process for evaluating the appropriateness of an officer's response to a subject's resistance | Objective reasonableness |
| A subject's capacity for carrying out an intention to cause death or greath bodily harm to others | Opportunity |
| A subject's verbal and or physical refusal to comply with an officer's lawful direction causing the officer to use physical techniques to establich control | Passive resistance |
| Achieving compliance or custody through the use of empty-hand or leverage-enhanced techniques, such as pain compliance, transporters, restrain devices, takedowns, and striking techniques | Physical control |
| A term the court uses to refer to all facts and circumstances reasonably perceived by the officer as the basis for the use of force decision | Totality of circumstances |
| A survial stress reaction in which hearing is diminished | Auditory exclusion |
| A survial stress reaction in which both eyes remain open, an it is very difficult to close just one eye | Binocular vision |
| The part of the brain that logically thinks and plans | Cognitive brain |
| A combination of fine and gross motor skills using hand/eye coordination timed to a single event | Complex motor skills |
| After a stressful situation, a temporary condition that causes difficulty in transferring information into long-term memory | Critical incident amnesia |
| The muscle control required to make small, percise movements | Fine motor skills |
| The movements of the large or major muscles of the body | Gross motor skills |
| Behavior in which a subject acts verbally and physically as if he or she may resist | Posturing |
| Stress caused by hormonal changes brought on by a perception of danger (also know as fear-induced stress) | Survival stress/fear-induced stress |
| Refers to how an officer approaches a subject or enters a scene | Body movement |
| The way an officer carries him- or herself | Command presence |
| The area within the reactionary gap | Danger zone |
| The direction that a subject comes from | Direct line of attack |
| Shifting one's body or side-stepping to avoid an attack | Evasion |
| State of extreme mental and physiological excitement due to extreme drug use; characterized by extreme agitation, hyperthermia, hostility, and exceptional strength and endurance without apparent fatigue; can lead to death | Excited delirium |
| An officer's ablility to convey to subjects an onlookers that he or she is ready and able to take control | Officer presence |
| The amount of time it takes for the brain to process a physical threat and for the body to respond | Reaction time principle |
| The distance an officer must keep between him- or herself and the subject in order to react effectively against a sudden threat | Reactionary gap |
| Using one's hands to move the subject away | Redirection |
| An officer's position in relation to the subject | Relative positioning |
| Used when preparing to engage or disengage from a subject in close proximity | Slide step |
| The ability to see both the subject's hands and to know that those hands hol no weapons | Visual control |
| The exchanging of information through verbal and nonverbal methods; provides valuable insight into the likelihood of cooperation and compliance of a subject | Communication |
| Controlled, nonemotional communication between an officer and a subject, aimed at problem solving and communication | Dialogue |
| Nonthreating, noncustodial physical contact that can be used to support or emphasize a verbal command | Touch |
| The use of proper, clear, and concise commands to let a subject know what an officer needs or expects him or her to do | Verbal direction |
| Techniques used to control resistant behavrior by utilizing pain compliance | Pressure points |
| Immobilizing the subject's head so the subject cannot move or escape | Stabilization |
| Touching the location of a nerve or sensitive area and appling continual, uninterrupted pressure with the tip of the finger(s) or thumb until the subject complies | Touch pressure |
| A technique used to move a subject from one point to another without using pain compliance; provides minimal control of the subject through leverage | Escort |
| Techniques used to move a subject from one point to another with pain compliance and/or mechanical compliance (also known as come-along holds) | Transporter/come-along hold |
| Temporary restraining devices used frequently to control a subject | Handcuffs |
| Tools such as handcuffs designed to temporarily restrain a subject's movements | Restraint devices |
| A complete searchof the subject used when a subject is taken into custody in an unsecured enviroment | Custodial search technique |
| A physical fisk of a subject conducted in a predetermined pattern to locate weapons | Pat down |
| Permits an officer to seize any object "whose contour or mass" he or she identifies as apparent contraband during a pat down | Plain feel doctrine |
| Dividning the body into four sections horizontally and vertically during a search | Quadrant search approach |
| The facts or circumstances that reasonable indicate that a person has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a violation of the law | Reasonable suspicion |
| A government intrusion into a place in which a person has a resonable expectation of privacy | Search |
| Reactionary techniques using the arms, legs, | Block |
| A technique that interrupts the subject's concentration so that energy is redirected from the current focus | Distraction technique |
| Any impact technique using hands, arms, elbows, feet, legs, knees, or head to strike a subject in an offensive or defensive situation | Empty-hand striking technique |
| A distraction technique applied with a downward thrust to the subject's foot to inflict pain, temporarily diver the subject's attention, and redirect the physical power of the subject's attack | Foot stomp |
| A distraction technique using the frontal lobe or back of the head to make contact with the subject's face, head, or other target area to inflict pain, temporarily diver a subject's attention, and redirect the physical power of the subject's attack | Head butt |
| A distraction technique applied by raising the foot and applying downward pressure on the subject's shin to inflict pain and temporarily divert an attacking subject's attention | Shin scrape |
| A strike that is retracted very quickly, thus enabling multiple strikes, creating distance, setting up the next techniques, and causing distraction to the subject | Snap-back |
| The use of body mechanics to control a subject | Grappling |
| A physical restraint compressing certain veins and arteries in the neck to cause a subject to lose consciousness for a brief period of time | Vascular neck restraint |
| Supporting the balance of the body using a limb | Posting |
| Lying on the stomach face down | Prone position |
| The movement in a hip escape; moving from side to side while avoiding or defending against an attack | Shrimping |
| Lying on the back face up | Supine position |
| A tactical method of safely controlling a suspect until an officer can physically recover, reassess the situation, or backup arrives | Stalling |
| A device that uses a high voltage, low-power electrical charge to induce inoluntary muscle contractions to temporarily incapacitate a non-compliant subject | Electronic control device (ECD) or electronic immobilization device |
| Any object used for striking | Impact weapon |
| A tool used when empty-handed control is ineffective, but the subject's level of resistance does not merit deadly force; baton, OC spray, dart-firing stun gun | Intermediate weapon |
| A low profile stance with the weapon held partially hidden behind the leg | Interview stance with an impact weapon |
| A high profile stance with the weapon held at should position to enable a rapid strike | Offensive ready stance with an impact weapon |
| A type of incapacitaion that causes temporary impairment of muscle control | Temporary motor dysfunction |
| An item an officer has at hand that can be used as a potential impact weapon when needed, such as a broomstick, flashlight, clipboard or radio | Weapon of opportunity |
| A type of chemical agent commonly used by law enforcement, usually in the form of hand-held canisters and chemical projectiles | Oleo-resin capsicum (OC) |
| A type of chemical agent commonly used by law enforecment usually in the form of hand-held canisters and chemical projectiles | Orthochlorobenzal-malononitrile (CS) |
| An iflammatory agent that causes tearing and involuntary closing of the eyes, nasal discharge, sneezing, disorientation and preceived respiratory distress, aslo known as OC | Pepper spray |
| A measure of the heat properties (burning sensation) of capasicum in OC spray | Scoville Heat Units |
| Forcefully blinking the yes using all the muscles in the face, including those in the forehead | Strobing |
| Small eye, hand , or foot movements in the direction that an officer plans to move | Telegraphing |
| 1 | 1 |
| 1 | 1 |
| Defensive tactics is a system of controlled defensive and offensive body movements used by criminal justice officers to respond to a subject’s aggression or resistance. a) Boxing b) Wrestling c) Defensive tactics d) Martial arts | Defensive tactics |
| Defensive Tactic techniques are based on a combination of martial arts, wresting, and __________ a) boxing b) self-defense c) intelligent d) physical fitness | Boxing |
| The role of ________ in law enforcement and corrections is to assist the officer in restraining or arresting a subject, this increasing officer and public safety a) defensive tactics b) police officers c) corrections officers d) FDLE | Defensive tactics |
| ______ training is a physical endeavor, you should prepare for activities required by considering some changes in their daily habits, eat a nutritious diet, adequate rest, & stay sufficiently hydrated to maximize the benefit of this training. | Defensive tactics |
| Defensive tactics skills require _______ a) physical fitness b) strength c) agility d) balance e) flexibility f)all | All |
| Because flexibility reduces the risk of injuries, stretching exercises should be conducted every day. a) physical fitness b) strength c) agility d) balance e) flexibility f) flexibility g) all | All |
| Cardiovascular training is any exercise that elevates the heart rate to a range between ______ percent of the maximum rate. a) 50 to 70% b) 60 to 85% c) 70 to 85% d) 70 to 95% | 60 to 85 % |
| Proper rest and sleep are necessary for reaching maximum performance and maintaining focus while engaged in physical training. a) TRUE b) FALSE | TRUE |
| Chapter _____, F.S. governs all use of force by criminal justice officers. a) 772 b) 774 c) 776 d) 778 | 776 |
| F.S. Ch 776 identifies 2 general areas an officer’s use of force is justified: a) officer using force to make an arrest & protect himself b) deadly Force & defensive tactics c) to apprehend a subject & make an arrest, or to defend self or others | To apprehend a subject and make an arrest, or to defend self or others |
| The courts have used the term _________ to describe the process for evaluating the appropriateness of an officer’s response to a subject’s resistance a) ex parte b) objective reasonableness c) active resistance d) force guidelines | objective reasonableness |
| Appropriate force is the amount of force reasonably necessary to make ______. a) an arrest b) detention c) investigation d) compliance | An arrest |
| The U.S. Supreme Court said in _____, 490 U.S. 386 (1989), the reasonableness of a particular use of force must be judged from the perspective of how a reasonable officer on the scene would respond, rather than from the 20/20 perspective of hindsight. | Graham v. Connor |
| Courts recognize that justice officers must make split-second judgments about the amount of force needed in a particular situation under circumstances that are tense, uncertain, and _____. a) emerging b) imminent c) rapidly evolving d) past tense | Rapidly evolving |
| The Supreme Court has made clear that use of force is a seizure under the ______ Amendment. a) First b) Fourth c) Fifth d) Sixth e) Eight | Fourth |
| An officer’s agency may establish the ________ that an officer may use in an encounter with a resistant subject a) specific techniques b) tactics c) applications d) all | All |
| Much litigation against criminal justice officers is not about the amount of force used, but whether the use of force was ________ at all a) permitted b) authorized c) required d) necessary | Permitted |
| Though the law grants criminal justice officers the right to use force, this right is _______ on their official authority. a) authorized b) protected c) granted d) conditioned | Conditioned |
| LEO’s authority to use force, established by reasonable belief, absent belief, known as _____, a LEO has no authority over a subject, and thus no permission to use any amount of force at all. a) mere suspicion b) probable cause c) reasonable suspicion | Reasonable suspicion |
| ___________ is the verbal and/or physical yielding to an officer’s authority without apparent threat of resistance or violence. a) De-escalation b) Compliance c) Leverage d) Balance displacement | Compliance |
| _________ is increasing the use of force or resistance. a) Compliance b) De-escalation c) Escalation d) Disengagement | Escalation |
| ________ is decreasing the use of force or resistance. a) Compliance b) De-escalation c) Escalation d) Disengagement | De-escalation |
| _________ is discontinuing a command or physical use of force, for example, by breaking away from a subject a) Compliance b) De-escalation c) Escalation d) Disengagement | Disengagement |
| Officers are legally permitted to escalate their use of force as the subject _____. a) is handcuffed in the prone position b) decrease his level of force c) escalates his level of resistance d) screams of excruciating pain and is now in compliance | Escalates his or her level of resistance |
| The officer’s choices are determined by the subject’s _________ posed to the officer or others a) physical condition b) actions and the risk of physical harm c) level of aggressiveness d) mental condition | Actions and the risk of physical harm |
| Once the officer achieves control or compliance, he or she must _________ the use of force. a) escalate b) de-escalate c) use deadly force d) walk away | De-escalate |
| Under certain circumstances, disengagement may be the best tactical option, for example, when the officer is a) waiting for backup b) injured or outnumbered c) the suspect has superior firepower d) all | All |
| The _____________ provide a framework for making decisions involving the reasonable use of force by criminal justice officers. a) Physical Control b) Objective Reasonableness c) police departments d) Force Guidelines | Force Guidelines |
| The structure of the Force Guidelines is based on _________ and describes appropriate decision making in a fluid and dynamic situation. a) Florida Statutes b) department policies c) court cases d) constitutional considerations and case law | Constitutional considerations and case law |
| Is a subject’s verbal and/or physical refusal to comply with an officer’s lawful direction causing the officer to use physical techniques to establish control. a) Resistance b) Passive resistance c) Active resistance d) Aggressive resistance f) All | Passive resistance |
| Example of passive resistance is: a) Subject refuses to move at the officer’s direction. b) Subject peacefully protests at a political event in a public location. c) Subject refuses to take his hands out of his pockets or from behind his back. d) All | All |
| __________ is a subject’s verbal and/or physical refusal to comply with an officer’s lawful direction causing the officer to use physical techniques to establish control. | Active resistance |
| Subject physically anchors himself to a person/object to prevent from being removed; braces/pulls away from officer when officer grips the subject’s arm; attempts to run when officer touches/attempts to grab the subject’s arm/shoulder are examples of: | Active resistance |
| __________ is a subject’s attacking movements toward an officer that may cause injury but are not likely to cause death or great bodily harm to the officer or others. a) Resistance b) Passive resistance c) Active resistance d) Aggressive resistance | Aggressive resistance |
| Example of aggressive resistance is: a) Subject balls up his fist and approaches the officer. b) Subject pushes the officer back as the officer tries to take the subject into custody. c) Subject grabs any part of the officer’s body. d) All | All |
| _________ is a subject’s hostile, attacking movements with or without a weapon that create a reasonable perception by the officer that the subject intends to cause and has the capability of causing death or great bodily harm to the officer or others. | Deadly force resistance |
| Example of deadly force resistance is:a) Subject refuses to drop a knife when ordered to by officer & moves toward the officer b) Subject shoots or points a gun at an officer or other person c) Subject tries to run an officer down in a vehicle d) All | All |
| Officers should try to resolve a situation with the _______ amount of force necessary. a) least b) not often c) lesser d) importance | Least |
| __________ often will defuse many volatile situations. a) Knowledge and expertise b) A female officer c) Command presence and verbal communication d) Teamwork | Command presence and verbal communication |
| Sometimes command presence & verbal communication are not enough or officers may not have an opportunity to use them, may have to use __________. a) nonlethal weapon b) physical force to gain control of the situation c) positive interaction | Physical force to gain control of the situation |
| Physical force includes ________. a) physical control b) the use of nonlethal weapons c) deadly force d) all | All |
| LEOs need not apply force in gradually increasing steps to justify physical control/even deadly force, officers need to respond with ___ the force reasonably necessary for the circumstances in each specific situation. a) every one b) some c) all d) none | All |
| Physical control is achieving compliance or custody through the use of empty-hand or leverage-enhanced techniques, such as ________. a) pain compliance b) transporters c) restraint devices d) takedowns e) striking techniques f) all | All |
| A ________ weapon is a weapon that is not fundamentally designed to cause death or great bodily harm. a) lethal b) revolver is a c) rifle/carbine is a d) nonlethal | Nonlethal |
| Some examples of nonlethal weapons include ______. a) electronic control devices (ECD) b) dart-firing stun guns such as a TASER® c) expandable batons d) flashlights e) chemical agent sprays f) all | All |
| ________ force is force that is likely to cause death or great bodily harm. a) Force b) A gun c) Deadly force d) Physical control | Deadly force |
| Some examples of deadly force include: _______. a) use of a firearm b) eye gouges c) empty-hand strikes to the throat d) impact-weapon strikes to the side of the neck e) all | All |
| The term “_________” means force that is likely to cause death or great bodily harm. a) physical control b) nonlethal weapon c) appropriate resistance d) deadly force | Deadly force |
| Deadly force includes: Firing of a firearm in the direction of person to be arrested, even though no intent exists to kill or inflict great bodily harm; & Firing of a firearm at a vehicle in which the person to be arrested is riding. a) TRUE b) FALSE | True |
| Use of deadly force ________ an officer’s first and only appropriate response to a perceived threat. a) is b) should be c) may be d) all | May be |
| Deadly force does not necessarily mean that someone died from the force used. It can cause great bodily harm or _________. a) no harm at all b) stress c) injuries d) lawsuit | No harm at all |
| Returning fire is deadly force even if the officer misses the target is an example of ______. a) physical control b) nonlethal weapon c) appropriate resistance d) deadly force | Deadly force |
| Officer must base his decision to use deadly force as a defensive tactic on a clear, reasonable belief that he, a fellow officer, or another person, faces _________. a) death b) imminent danger of death or great bodily harm c) distress d) injuries | Imminent danger of death or great bodily harm |
| Officers use three criteria for _______: ability, opportunity, and intent. a) pain compliance b) mechanical compliance c) making deadly force decision d) nonlethal force | Making deadly force decision |
| _______ refers to the subject having the means to carry out his or her intent to cause death or great bodily harm. a) Ability b) Opportunity c) Intent d) All | Ability |
| An officer must determine whether the subject has the ________ to cause death or great bodily harm to the officer or others. a) intention b) mind c) physical size d) necessary means | Necessary means |
| A _______ is not required; a subject must only have the apparent ability to carry out his or her intention. a) age b) subject combative skills c) training d) weapon | Weapon |
| If the subject seems physically able to cause death or great bodily harm, then he has the _______. a) ability b) opportunity c) intent d) all | Ability |
| ________ means the subject is capable of carrying out an intention to cause death or great bodily harm to the officer or others. a) Ability b) Opportunity c) Intent d) All | Opportunity |
| The subject’s weapon often determines ________. a) ability b) opportunity c) intent d) all | Opportunity |
| For example, a suspect armed with a knife may not be an immediate threat to an officer standing ________. a) next to suspect b) in front of the suspect c) far away d) near | Far away |
| However, a person standing _______ or carrying a firearm certainly has the opportunity to carry out his intent to cause death or great bodily harm. a) 9 feet away b) outside the perimeter c) far away d) closer | Closer |
| ________ is a reasonably perceived, imminent threat to an officer or another person based on the subject’s actions, behaviors, words, or other indicators. a) Ability b) Opportunity c) Intent d) All | Intent |
| It is a perception derived from the _______. a) totality of the circumstances b) situation c) training d) all | Totality of the circumstances |
| Officers should use the amount of _______ necessary and reasonable for the situation. a) training b) woman and man power c) weapon d) force | Force |
| If _________ are present and the officer cannot control the threat using lesser means, then deadly force is justified. a) ability b) opportunity c) intent d) all | All |
| When resistance de-escalates, so ______ the officer’s response. a) maybe b) must c) never d) depend on the situation | Must |
| Term the court uses to refer to all facts & circumstances known to the officer at the time or reasonably perceived by the officer as the basis for a use of force decision. a) Intent b) Ability c) Opportunity d) Totality of Circumstances e) Use of force | Totality of Circumstances |
| The ______ will look at the totality of circumstances in determining whether the decision was objectively reasonable and, therefore, legally justified. a) officer agency b) FDLE c) FBI d) courts e) all | Courts |
| The totality of circumstances includes _________. a) consideration of the subject’s form of resistance b) all reasonably perceived factors that may have an effect on the situation c) the response options available to the officer d) all | All |
| Identify which situational factors the court uses to analyze the totality of circumstances. a) severity of the crime b) subject is an immediate threat c) subject’s mental or psychiatric history, if known to the officer d) all | All |
| Identify which situational factors the court uses to analyze the totality of circumstances. a) subject’s violent history, if known to officer b) subject’s combative skills c) subject’s access to weapons d) innocent bystanders who could be harmed e) all | All |
| Identify which situational factors the court uses to analyze the totality of circumstances. a) number of subjects versus number of officers b) duration of confrontation c) subject’s size, age, weight, and physical condition d) all | All |
| Identify which situational factors the court uses to analyze the totality of circumstances. a) officer’s size, age, weight, physical condition, and defensive tactics expertise b) environmental factors: physical terrain, weather conditions, etc. c) all | All |
| Force guidelines includes _________. a) subject resistance b) situational factors c) justification d) officer’s response e) all | All |
| Subject verbally/physically resisting my lawful authority, making attacking movements not likely or likely to cause death or great bodily harm? Officer must ask himself to help determine ____ force guidelines a) subject resistance d) officer’s response | Subject resistance |
| What subject factors influence this situation? Weapon/Physical size/Demeanor/Others? These are questions a police officer must ask himself/herself to help determine ____ force guidelines a) subject resistance b) situational factors c) justification | Situational factors |
| What officer factors influence this situation? Training/Experience/Physical size/Others? These are questions a police officer must ask himself to help determine ____ force guidelines a) subject resistance b) situational factors c) justification | Situational factors |
| What environmental factors influence this situation? Weather? Location? Presence. These are questions a police officer must ask himself to help determine ____ force guidelines a) subject resistance b) situational factors c) justification | Situational factors |
| Can I physically control the subject? These are question a police officer must ask himself to help determine _________ force guidelines (decision making process). a) subject resistance b) situational factors c) justification d) officer’s response | Officer’s response |
| Could I use a nonlethal weapon not meant to cause death or great bodily harm? Question an officer must ask himself to help determine _______force guidelines a) subject resistance b) situational factors c) justification d) officer’s response | Officer’s response |
| Is deadly force the appropriate option to prevent death or great bodily harm to myself or others? Question an officer must ask himself to help determine __ force guidelines a) subject resistance b) situational factors c) justification d) officer response | Officer’s response |
| Were my actions reasonable based on the subject’s resistance & the totality of the circumstances? Question an officer must ask himself to help determine _________ force guidelines a) situational factors b) justification c) officer’s response | Justification |
| Am I able to articulate the reasons for my actions? Question an officer must ask himself to help determine _________ force guidelines (decision making process). a) situational factors b) justification c) officer’s response | Justification |
| Was I in compliance with constitutional and state laws, agency policy, and training? Question an officer must ask himself to help determine ____ force guidelines (decision making process). a) situational factors b) justification c) officer response | Justification |
| Most agencies require an additional report anytime an officer uses force to control a subject. a) TRUE b) FALSE | True |
| The officer should state exactly what the subject did that created the perception of the subject’s ability, opportunity, and intent to cause death or great bodily harm. Simply stating “The suspect threatened me” is not ____. a) sufficient b) necessary | Sufficient |
| Officers should remember that whatever is written on a use of force incident report will be seen by _______. a) supervisors b) prosecutor c) defense attorney d) judge e) and potentially many others f) all | All |
| _____ should be careful to include every factor used in their use of force decision since factors added later will be viewed with suspicion. a) Supervisors b) Defense attorney c) Judge d) Police chief e) Sheriff f) Officers g) All | Officers |
| ________, sometimes called fear-induced stress, is stress caused by hormonal changes brought on by a perception of danger. a) Psychological stress b) Survival stress c) Physical stress d) Crisis | Survival stress |
| The _________ cause an elevated heart rate that affects an officer’s cognitive decision making skills. a) hormones b) fine motor activities c) penicillin d) drugs | Hormones |
| Identify the instinctual reactions to fear-induced stress. a) fight b) flight c) posture d) submit e) all | All |
| An officer should be aware of certain changes that occur to the body during & after survival stress including: a) physiological changes b) motor performance changes c) visual performance changes d) cognitive changes e) critical incident amnesia f) all | All |
| Physiological changes during survival stress, sometimes called fear-induced stress. a) The heart rate & respiration increase b) Vascular flow moves away from extremities c) The body pulls the blood away from the arms & legs into the torso f) All | All |
| Physiological changes during survival stress, sometimes called fear-induced stress. a) Keeps blood near vital organs in case of emergency b) Protects the arms & legs from losing too much blood in case of injury. b) Hearing is diminished. c) All | All |
| Hearing is diminished is known as __________. a) hearing impairment b) auditory exclusion c) hearing exclusion d) hard of hearing | Auditory exclusion |
| ________ refer to the muscle control required to make small, precise movements, such as unlocking handcuffs with a key. a) Fine motor skills b) Complex motor skills c) Gross motor skills d) Catastrophic motor skills e) All | Fine motor skills |
| _________ combine fine and gross motor skills using hand and eye coordination timed to a single event. a) Fine motor skills b) Complex motor skills c) Gross motor skills d) Catastrophic motor skills e) All | Complex motor skills |
| ________ are the movements of the large or major muscles of the body, such as running, punching, or kicking. a) Fine motor skills b) Complex motor skills c) Gross motor skills d) Catastrophic motor skills e) All | Gross motor skills |
| ______ breakdown may occur when the heart rate exceeds 175 beats per min. There may be an increase in strength and speed for a short period of time. a) Fine motor skills b) Complex motor skills c) Gross motor skills d) Catastrophic motor skills e) All | Catastrophic motor skills |
| ________ is dominant. Both eyes remain open and it is very difficult to close just one eye. a) Binocular vision b) Peripheral vision and depth perception c) Loss near vision d) Tunnel vision e) Physiologically | Binocular vision |
| There is a loss of _________; this is known as tunnel vision. a) binocular vision b) peripheral vision and depth perception c) loss near vision d) tunnel vision e) physiologically | Peripheral vision and depth perception |
| There is a _________. This is one reason that most officers involved in shootings never see the sights of their firearms. a) binocular vision b) peripheral vision and depth perception c) loss near vision d) tunnel visione) physiologically | Loss near vision |
| ________, it is nearly impossible to focus. a) Binocular vision b) Peripheral vision and depth perception c) Loss near vision d) Tunnel vision e) Physiologically | Physiologically |
| The cognitive brain, the part that logically thinks and plans, begins to shut down at 145 beats per minute. _____. a) Decision making is inhibited b) The more choices you have, the slower you are to make a decision c) Reaction time increases d) all | All |
| The cognitive brain, part that logically thinks & plans, begins to shut down at 145 beats per minute. Reaction time increases may be because of too much stimuli to process quickly or because of denial that a violent encounter is actually happening T/F | True |
| The cognitive brain begins to shut down at 145 beats per min. High levels of adrenaline caused by fear-induced stress are likely to result in extreme strength, increase in speed, decrease in fine motor skills, & an increased ability to ignore pain: T/F | True |
| The cognitive brain, the part that logically thinks and plans, begins to shut down at 145 beats per minute. In other words, strength goes way up and dexterity goes way down: True or False | True |
| The Threat Awareness Spectrum illustrates how _________ may affect an officer’s reaction to a perceived threat. a) binocular vision b) peripheral vision and depth perception c) loss near vision d) tunnel vision e) physiologically f) survival stress | Survival stress |
| The desired state of awareness and readiness of an officer while on duty is ________. a) Condition White b) Condition Yellow c) Condition Orange d) Condition Red e) Condition Black | Condition Yellow |
| _________ allows an officer to be ready to move to Condition Orange and Condition Red as appropriate for the situation. a) Condition White b) Condition Yellow c) Condition Orange d) Condition Red e) Condition Black | Condition Yellow |
| Officers should avoid ________. a) Condition White and Condition Black b) Condition Yellow c) Condition Orange d) Condition Red and Condition Orange e) Condition Black f) All | Condition White and Condition Black |
| Officer is unaware a threat exists; attention is unfocused/ preoccupied, & is oblivious to potential danger in his environment. Ex: A person drives to work & does not remember the drive (automatic pilot). a) White b) Yellow c) Orange d) Red e) Black | Condition White |
| Officer has general awareness of possible threats. Attention is focused, scans the environment for potential threats. Ex: While on the job, officer is in a state of relaxed awareness & notices what's going on around him. a) White b) Yellow c) Orange | Condition Yellow |
| Recognition that a threat exists. Awareness of a specific threat encourages preplanning and more intense focus. Physical indicators of stress may become evident. a) White b) Yellow c) Orange d) Red e) Black | Condition Orange |
| Example: A patrol officer observes a vehicle backed into a parking space at a convenience store with the engine running, considers the possibility of a robbery in progress, & begins tactical planning a) White b) Yellow c) Orange d) Red e) Black | Condition Orange |
| Example: A correctional officer observes an inmate with possible contraband and begins formulating a plan of action. a) White b) Yellow c) Orange d) Red e) Black | Condition Orange |
| Specific threat identified and appropriate actions taken. The threat is assessed and managed through intensified cognitive and physical reactions. Survival stress functions become optimum. a) White b) Yellow c) Orange d) Red e) Black | Condition Red |
| Examples: The patrol officer initiates the plan to engage the suspects as they exit the store. The correctional officer initiates the plan to engage the inmate. a) White b) Yellow c) Orange d) Red e) Black | Condition Red |
| Threat mismanaged due to panicked stress response. Survival stress functions break down. Submission or freezing may occur. a) White b) Yellow c) Orange d) Red e) Black | Condition Black |
| Examples: The patrol officer panics and may not respond effectively. The correctional officer panics and may not respond effectively: a) White b) Yellow c) Orange d) Red e) Black | Condition Black |
| Officers who encounter an extremely stressful situation such as an officer-involved shooting may shows signs of __________. a) fluid shock principle b) cognitive brain c) post-traumatic stress disorder d) critical incident amnesia | Post-traumatic stress disorder |
| Officer may encounter extremely stressful situation, ex: officer-involved may also exhibit difficulty in transferring information into long-term memory, a temporary condition known as: a) incident amnesia b) cognitive brain c) critical incident amnesia | Critical incident amnesia |
| ________ is a natural reaction to danger, but officers can prepare and increase their chances of controlling the effects of the stress. a) Cognitive brain b) Critical incident amnesia c) Survival stress d) Post-traumatic stress disorder | Survival stress |
| The skills officers develop will diminish without constant practice and use | Physical skills |
| To properly and effectively perform _______ techniques, you must be able to apply certain fundamental principles. a) firearms b) defensive tactics c) first aid d) vehicle operations | Defensive tactics |
| Maintaining ________ a posture is essential in performing any technique. To achieve, your head must be over your hips and your hips must be over or between your feet. If any one of these points is misaligned, you are not | Balance |
| ________ is a controlling technique used to break the subject’s balance through the use of leverage principles. a) Balance b) Balance displacement c) Leverage d) Pain compliance e) Mechanical compliance f) Join manipulation | Balance displacement |
| _________: It is using a great force against a weaker resistance. It is used in conjunction with joint manipulation and/or pain and mechanical compliance in order to gain control. a) Balance b) Balance displacement c) Leverage d) Pain compliance | Leverage |
| ________: It is a subject’s response to a combination of pain and verbal commands to stop resisting. a) Balance b) Balance displacement c) Leverage d) Pain compliance e) Mechanical compliance f) Join manipulation g) Motor dysfunction | Pain compliance |
| Officer gains control by applying pressure or leverage on a joint by locking it up so that no movement of the joint is possible, causing the subject to comply with verbal direction. d) Pain compliance e) Mechanical compliance f) Leverage g) Balance | Mechanical compliance |
| Officer may gain control over a subject by bending or twisting a joint in a direction that will cause pain or discomfort to the joint. a) Pain compliance b) Mechanical compliance c) Join manipulation d) Motor dysfunction e) Fluid shock principle | Join manipulation |
| Officer may gain control over a subject by using an incapacitation technique that causes temporary impairment of muscular control. a) Pain compliance b) Mechanical compliance c) Join manipulation d) Motor dysfunction e) Fluid shock principle | Motor dysfunction |
| There are certain verbal and nonverbal cues that indicate the possibility of subject aggression or _________. a) provocation b) posturing c) frustration d) manipulation | Posturing |
| Verbal cues may include _________. a) abnormal stuttering b) serious and specific swearing c) specific verbal threats d) all | All |
| Nonverbal cues may include ________. a) increased breathing and pulse rates b) cessation of all movement c) clenched fists and quivering hands d) refusal to show palms of hands e) reddened or flushed face f) all | All |
| Nonverbal cues may include ________. a) expanding veins showing prominently on face and forearms b) shifting of shoulders or change of stance c) target glance d) ignoring the officer e) rapid, angry movements f) all | All |
| “________ a state of extreme mental and physiological excitement characterized by exceptional agitation and hyperactivity, overheating, excessive tearing of the eyes, hostility” a) Hepatitis b) Heart attack c) Tuberculosis d) Excited delirium | Excited delirium |
| “________ a state of extreme mental and physiological excitement characterized by superhuman strength, aggression, acute paranoia, and endurance without apparent fatigue”a) Hepatitis b) Heart attack c) Tuberculosis d) Excited delirium | Excited delirium |
| A subject in a state of excited delirium could die suddenly and without explanation, a death sometimes referred to as ________. a) Sudden Death Syndrome b) Inexplicable Death Syndrome c) police abuse d) police brutality | Sudden Death Syndrome |
| ________, the death may be wrongly attributed to the actions of an officer or his or her use of certain levels of force. a) Always b) Fortunately c) Unfortunately d) Perhaps | Unfortunately |
| When confronting a subject with unusual symptoms, an officer should immediately seek _______. a) lawyer b) second opinion c) backup d) medical attention | Medical attention |
| Be careful of the position in which the subject is restrained. Take care to maintain ________. a) an open airway b) ensure continuous breathing c) proper circulation until medical help arrives d) all | All |
| Some potential environmental factors that should also be considered in threat assessment may include ________. a) weather b) traffic conditions c) terrain d) presence of animals e) presence of bystanders f) potential weapons g) all | All |
| _________ is your ability to convey to subjects and onlookers that you are able and ready to take control. ) Command presence b) Officer presence c) Offensive ready stance d) Interview stance | Officer presence |
| Examples of nonverbal communication gestures that express escalating aggression are _______. a) clenched fists b) shifting feet c) hidden hands d) all | All |
| _________ means the way you carry yourself and your presence determine whether a subject’s resistance escalates or de-escalates. a) Command presence b) Officer presence c) Offensive ready stance d) Interview stance | Command presence |
| with head/hips/feet aligned. Place your feet shoulder-width apart, knees slightly bent. Angle body to subject, strong side away. Place your hands above waist level. This is: a) Interview Stance b) Offensive ready Stance c) Relative Positioning | Interview Stance |
| Stand with head/hips/feet aligned slightly wider than shoulder/knees in a deep crouch/body angled to subject strong side away/hands at your face level & towards your center. This is: a) Interview Stance b) Offensive ready Stance c) Relative Position | Offensive ready Stance |
| _________ describes an officer’s position in relation to the subject. a) Body movement b) Relative positioning c) Slide step d) Tactical L | Relative positioning |
| _________ refers to how you approach a subject or enter a scene. a) Contact movement b) Body movement c) Slide step d) Reactionary gap positioning | Body movement |
| Manner/direction you approach subject & the distance you maintain throughout the interaction are based on your assessment of the threat & potential harm present. a) Contact movement b) Body movement c) Slide step d) Reactionary gap positioning | Reactionary gap |
| What is generally the reactionary gap if you have visual control of the subject’s hands? a) 2-6 feet b) 3-5 feet c) 6-9 feet d) 25 feet | 6-9 feet |
| What is generally the reactionary gap if you cannot see the subject’s hand? a) 10 feet b) 15 feet c) 20 feet d) 25 feet | 25 feet |
| The area within the reactionary gap is the _________. a) gap b) danger zone c) safe zone d) critical zone | Danger zone |
| _______ of the hands is the ability to see both the subject’s hands and to know that those hands hold no weapons. a) Reaction zone b) Visual control c) Custodial zone d) Critical zone | Visual control |
| __________ is the amount of time it takes for the brain to process a physical threat and the body to respond. a) Muscle memory b) Muscle compliance c) Reaction time principle d) Diversionary principle | Reaction time principle |
| __________ is simple shifting your body or side stepping to avoid the attack. a) Evasion b) Redirection c) Direct line of attack d) Slide | Evasion |
| __________ is using the hands to move the subject away. a) Evasion b) Redirection c) Direct line of attack d) Slide | Redirection |
| Using evasive and redirecting tactics may allow time to ________. a) disengage b) escape c) use other force options d) all | All |
| ________ simple means the direction that the subject comes from. a) Evasion b) Direct line of attack c) Redirection d) Slide | Direct line of attack |
| _________ is the exchange of information through verbal and nonverbal methods which provides valuable insight into the likelihood of cooperation and compliance of a subject. a) Communication b) Dialogue c) Verbal direction d) Touch | Communication |
| _________ is a controlled, non-emotional communication between and officer and a subject aimed at problem solving and communication. a) Communication b) Dialogue c) Verbal direction d) Touch | Dialogue |
| _________ is the use of proper, clear, and concise commands to let a subject know what you need or expect him or her to do. a) Communication b) Dialogue c) Verbal directiond) Touch | Verbal direction |
| Nonthreatening, noncustodial physical contact, can be used to support/emphasize verbal command, effective to enhance communication; however, must evaluate carefully not to escalate a subject’s resistance. a) Dialogue b) Verbal direction c) Touch | Touch |
| Pressure points are techniques used to control resistant behavior by utilizing pain compliance. a) Forearm strike b) Pressure points c) Palm heel strike d) Hammer first strike | Pressure points |
| _________ is touching the location of a nerve or sensitive area and applying continual, uninterrupted pressure with the tip of the finger(s) or thumb until the subject complies. a) Stabilization b) Touch pressure c) Leverage d) Balance displacement | Touch pressure |
| _______ is immobilizing the subject’s head so the subject cannot move or escape. a) Stabilization b) Touch pressure c) Leverage d) Balance displacement | Stabilization |
| On all pressure point techniques, applying pressure longer than 3-5 sec without a response may result in adrenaline surge. Causing subject to exhibit symptoms similar to survival responses such as: | Inability to feel pain, extraordinary strength, auditory exclusion |
| Which of the following are approved pressure point? a) under the jaw b) hollow behind the ear c) how behind the collarbone d) under the nose e) hollow of the neck f) all | All |
| _______ techniques can be used to move the unwilling subject from one location. a) pain compliance b) mechanical compliance c) joint manipulation to another d) all | All |
| The ________ position is a technique used to move a subject from one point to another without using pain compliance. a) stabilization b) transporter c) leverage d) escort | Escort |
| ________, sometimes called come-along holds, are techniques used to move a subject from one point to another with pain compliance and/or mechanical compliance. a) Stabilization b) Transporters c) Leverage d) Escorts | Transporters |
| _____ may be your 1st physical contact with a subject, apply pressure leverage on a joint to lock it & subject complies a) bent wrist transporter b) finger lock transporter c) hammer lock transporter d) shoulder lock transporter e) escort position | Escort position |
| The __________ transitions from the escort position when the subject tries to resist by pulling his arm away. a) bent wrist transporter b) finger lock transporter c) hammer lock transporter d) shoulder lock transporter e) escort position | Bent wrist transporter |
| Usually effective because you hyperextend subject's fingers, bending them in a direction not meant to go, pain usually leads to compliance a) bent wrist transporter b) finger lock transporter c) hammer lock transporter d) shoulder lock transporter | Finger lock transporter |
| Useful technique applied when subject tries to pull away from the escort position/bent wrist/finger lock transporter. a) bent wrist transporter b) finger lock transporter c) hammer lock transporter d) shoulder lock transporter e) escort position | Hammer lock transporter |
| _________ technique uses pain compliance and mechanical compliance with the subject's arm behind his back. a) Bent wrist transporter b) Finger lock transporter c) Hammer lock transporter d) Shoulder lock transporter e) Escort position | Hammer lock transporter |
| Good controlling technique cause the position you put the subject's arm, incorporates pain compliance, joint manipulation, & balance displacement. a) bent wrist transporter b) finger lock transporter c) hammer lock transporter d) shoulder lock transporter | Shoulder lock transporter |
| _________ are tools designed to temporarily restrain a subject’s movements, such as handcuffs. a) Hand devices b) Hand holders c) Handcuffs d) Chain devices e) Restraint devices | Restraint devices |
| ________ are temporary restraining devices used frequently to control a subject. a) Hand devices b) Hand holders c) Handcuffs d) Chain devices e) Restraint devices | Handcuffs |
| Identify the parts of handcuffs. a) Key end b) double lock activator c) cheek plate d) double strand e) single strand f) teeth g) double lock h) pawl i) swivel j) key way k) chain l) all | All |
| A ________ is a physical frisk of a subject conducted in a pre-determinate pattern to locate weapons. a) plain feel doctrine b) reasonable suspicion c) search d) pat down | Pat down |
| ____________ is facts or circumstances which reasonably indicate that the person has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a violation of the law. a) Plain feel doctrine b) Pat down c) Reasonable suspicion d) Probable cause doctrine | Reasonable suspicion |
| Under the _____, officer may seize any object “whose contour or mass” he identifies as apparent contraband, officer may only pat down the outside of the clothing for weapons. plain feel doctrinepat downreasonable suspicionprobable cause doctrine | Plain feel doctrine |
| Is used when a subject is taken into custody in an unsecured environment. Unlike the pat down, this is a complete search of the subject. a) search b) quadrant c) custodial search technique d) pat down e) quadrant search approach | Custodial search technique |
| Custodial search of subject should be done in a systematic & predetermined pattern using the _____, which is dividing the body into four sections horizontally & vertically a) quadrant b) custodial search technique c) pat down d) quadrant search approach | Quadrant search approach |
| _______ are reactionary techniques using the arms, legs, or body to deflect or redirect an impending strike from a subject to areas of the body. a) Blocks b) Upper Area Block c) Mid Area Block d) Low Area Block | Blocks |
| Blocks to defend three areas of the body are covered in this section: ______. a) Upper Area Block b) Mid Area Block c) Low Area Block d) All | All |
| ________ is any impact technique using hands, arms, elbows, feet, legs, knees, or head to strike a subject in an offensive or defensive situation. a) Closed-hand striking technique b) Empty-hand striking technique c) Snap-back d) Distraction | Empty-hand striking technique |
| A strike using _________ delivery methods is retracted very quickly, thus enabling multiple strikes, creating distance, setting up the next technique, and causing distraction to the subject. a) snap-back b) distractions c) pat down d) leverage | Snap-back |
| __________ is a technique that interrupts the subject’s concentration so that energy is redirected from the current focus. a) Snap-back b) Distractions c) Pat down d) Leverage | Distractions |
| Name the several types of striking techniques. a) palm heel strike b) punches c) hammer fist strike d) elbow strike e) forearm strike f) backfist strike g) all | All |
| Name the several types of kicking techniques:a) knee strike b) front kick c) back kick d) side kick e) angle kick f) all | All |
| Other strikes may be more appropriate in certain situations as distractions for escaping body holds, such as __________. a) a head butt b) foot stomp c) shin scrape d) knuckle strike e) all | All |
| Distraction technique that inflicts pain & temporarily diverts a subject’s attention, redirecting the physical power of attack, also facilitate your escape from a body hold & incapacitate the subject a) side kick b) foot Stomp c) head butt d) angle kick | Head butt |
| Technique that inflicts pain/temporarily diverts a attention, redirecting physical power of attack, facilitate escape/ apply controlling techniques. Very effective when attacked from front/rear in close quarters. a) side kick b) foot stomp c) head butt | Foot stomp |
| Technique that inflicts pain/temporarily diverts attention, must raise your foot/apply downward pressure on shin, doesn’t require much effort/strength, properly performed, very effective to escape a body hold a) side kick b) shin scrape c) angle kick | Shin scrape |
| ________ are techniques used to bring a resisting subject from a standing position to the ground making it easier to control him or her. a) Knee strike b) Empty-hand striking technique c) Takedowns d) Punches | Takedowns |
| Usually during a takedowns, a __________ is used to control the subject for handcuffing. a) two-point pin b) three-point pin c) four-point pin d) five-point pin | Three-point pin |
| One of the most common attacks an officer may face is an ________. a) sudden attacks b) grappling c) chokehold attack d) upright grappling position | Upright grappling position |
| _______ is the use of body mechanics to leverage or control a subject. a) Upright grappling position b) Grappling c) Chokehold defense d) Takedowns techniques | Grappling |
| When engaged in a grappling hold, an officer should consider methods of stabilizing, controlling, and _________ a resistant subject. a) hit b) bite c) kick d) securing | Securing |
| The __________ is the physical restraint compressing certain veins and arteries in the neck to cause a subject to lose consciousness for a brief period of time. a) fluid shock principle b) vascular neck restraint c) snap-back d) prone chocking | Vascular neck restraint |
| __________ is supporting the balance of the body using a limb. a) Posturing b) Posting c) Shrimping d) Stalling | Posting |
| The purpose of hip escapes is to move from side to side while avoiding or defending an attack. The movement in a hip escape is also known as ____________ a) posturing b) posting c) shrimping d) stalling | Shrimping |
| From the supine position is ________. a) lying on the stomach face down b) on the back face up c) on the side with lead leg extended for defense d) lying on the back face up | Lying on the back face up |
| From the prone position is ________. a) lying on the stomach face down b) on the back face up c) on the side with lead leg extended for defense d) lying on the back face up | Lying on the stomach face down |
| _________ is a tactical method of safely controlling a suspect until you physically recover or reassess the situation, or backup arrives. a) Posturing b) Posting c) Shrimping d) Stalling | Stalling |
| _________ is most basic of the stalling positions. a) Scarf hold b) Seated stall c) Straddle stall d) Arm bar | Scarf hold |
| _______ uses leverage tactics to hold the subject down while keeping you in a strategic position to prevent him from attacking critical areas such as the head, throat, or weapon. a) Scarf hold b) Seated stall c) Straddle stall d) Arm bar | Scarf hold |
| _______ technique is useful when a subject grabs you from behind and attempts to control your upper body. a) Scarf hold b) Seated stall c) Straddle stall d) Arm bar | Seated stall |
| Possibly the worst tactical position you can be in is when a subject has you on your back & is sitting on your chest, gives an officer an opportunity to survive a barrage of punches to face. a) scarf hold b) seated stall c) straddle stall d) arm bar | Straddle stall |
| _________ are tools used when empty-handed control is ineffective, but the subject’s level of resistance does not merit deadly force. a) Intermediate weapons b) Weapons c) Temporary motor dysfunction d) Impact weapon e) Weapons of opportunity | Intermediate weapons |
| ________ may cause death or great bodily harm, they are not fundamentally designed to do so. a) Intermediate weapons b) Weapons c) Temporary motor dysfunction d) Impact weapon e) Weapons of opportunity | Intermediate weapons |
| The most common types of intermediate weapons include: a) impact weapons (batons/weapons of opportunity) b) specialty impact weapons (bean bags/baton rounds) c) electronic control devices (dart-firing stun gun like TASER®) d) chemical agents e) all | All |
| An ________ is any object used for striking. Impact weapons may disable or cause temporary motor dysfunction. a) intermediate weapons b) weapons c) temporary motor dysfunction d) impact weapon e) weapons of opportunity | Impact weapon |
| __________ is a type of incapacitation that causes temporary impairment of muscle control, such as a charley horse. a) Intermediate weapons b) Weapons c) Temporary motor dysfunction d) Impact weapon e) Weapons of opportunity | Temporary motor dysfunction |
| The most common impact weapon is the ______. a) weapons of opportunity b) bean bags c) TASER® d) baton | Baton |
| Even though new __________ have been developed, such as (OC/ECD), the baton remains a standard tool for some criminal justice agencies. a) intermediate weapons b) weapons c) temporary motor dysfunction d) impact weapon e) weapons of opportunity | Intermediate weapons |
| The baton is not the only impact weapon available to an officer. Any item an officer has at hand may be used as a potential impact weapon when needed, such as a _________. a) broomstick b) flashlight c) clipboard d) radio e) all | All |
| These unconventional impact weapons are also known as _________. a) intermediate weapons b) weapons c) temporary motor dysfunction d) impact weapon e) weapons of opportunity | Weapons of opportunity |
| An _________ is a low profile stance with the weapon held partially hidden behind the leg. a) weapons of opportunity b) interview stance with an impact weapon c) offensive ready stance with an impact weapon d) shotgun stance | Interview stance with an impact weapon |
| An offensive _______ with an impact weapon is a high profile stance with the weapon held at a shoulder position to enable a rapid strike. a) ready stance b) TASER c) Seated Stall d) Ground defense position | Ready stance |
| There are specific target areas for striking with an ________. a) intermediate weapons b) weapons c) temporary motor dysfunction d) impact weapon e) weapons of opportunity | Impact weapon |
| The most common techniques using an impact weapon are _________. a) impact weapon thrusts b) impact weapon swings c) impact weapon blocks d) all | All |
| _________ (also called electronic immobilization devices) are weapons that utilize a battery-powered current of electricity. a) Pepper spray b) Oleo-resin capsicum (OC) c) Orthichlorobenzal-malononitrile d) Electronic control devices (ECD) | Electronic control devices (ECD) |
| The current is ________ and is considered safe when used on people. a) high voltage b) high voltage and low amperage c) low amperage d) all | High voltage and low amperage |
| _____ control subject by an artificial contraction of the muscles which may cause extreme muscular tension & complete structural dysfunction. a) Pepper spray b) Oleo-resin capsicum (OC) c) Orthichlorobenzal-malononitrile d) (ECD) | Electronic control devices (ECD) |
| Types of electronic control devices include ________. a) dart-firing stun gun (TASER®) b) handheld stun gun c) electronic shield d) electronic belt e) electronic sleeve g) all | All |
| Criminal justice officers primarily use two types of chemical agents to control resistant subjects: oleo-resin capsicum (OC) and/or ____________. a) cayenne pepper b) kerosene c) orthochlorobenzal-malononitrile (CS) d) liquid heat | Orthochlorobenzal-malononitrile (CS) |
| CS is an ________ agent that causes burning and tearing eyes, nasal discharge, and skin and upper respiratory irritation. a) irritant b) inflammatory c) pressure d) anesthetic | Irritant |
| OC, commonly called pepper spray, is an _______ agent that causes tearing and involuntary closing of the eyes, nasal discharge, sneezing, disorientation, and a sensation of respiratory distress. a) irritant b) inflammatory c) pressure d) anesthetic | Inflammatory |
| OC will turn the skin red due to inflammation and show _________. a) mild signs of puffiness b) extreme puffiness c) sinus problems d) headaches | Mild signs of puffiness |
| The effects of oleo-resin capsicum (OC), commonly called pepper spray will wear off generally in ________ minutes, though some case have been reported to last longer. a) 10-20 b) 20-40 c) 30-50 d) 40-60 | 20-40 |
| Oleo-resin capsicum is a natural derivative of the _________. a) kerosene b) bell pepper c) cayenne pepper d) sulfuric acid | Cayenne pepper |
| The heat value of capsicum is measured in _____________. a) Scottville Heat Units b) Scotty Heat Units c) Scoffed Heat Units d) Scoville Heat Units | Scoville Heat Units |
| The effects of a direct discharge of OC into the eyes has been known to cause ________ in the eye membranes which could lead to complications. a) etching effect b) slight tears c) needling effect d) direct needling effect | Slight tears |
| While psychologically decontaminating the subject, an officer may also guide the person through the process of ______. a) strobing b) breathing c) removing contaminants d) decontamination solutions e) physical decontamination f) all | Physical decontamination |
| A person should never wipe/ rub his eyes with fingers. Doing so may rub small particles into the eye which can ultimately damage the cornea. Instead, should begin by ______ his eyes.a) Strobing b) Removing Contaminants c) Decontamination solutions | Strobing |
| Person should concentrate on _____ to draw attention from burning sensation the contaminant causes. Focusing on discomfort may cause the person to shut down and panic a) Strobing b) Breathing c) Removing Contaminants d) Air e) Decontamination solutions | Breathing |
| Rhythmic inhale through mouth & forceful exhale through nose will cause mucous glands to begin working & nose to run, will clear nasal passages & sinuses of mucus containing contaminant particles. a) Strobing b) Breathing c) Removing Contaminants d) Air | Breathing |
| After strobing the eyes and breathing rhythmically, the person may ______ from his skin which will reduce the chemical agent’s effects. a) Strobing b) Breathing c) Removing Contaminants e) Air f) Water g) Decontamination solutions | Removing Contaminants |
| The chemical agent’s effects will wear off in time by mere exposure to______ i.e., standing in a breeze or in front of a fan. a) Strobing b) Breathing c) Removing Contaminants d) Air e) Water f) Decontamination solutions | Air |
| The person should use large amounts of ______ to irrigate eyes and facial skin. a) Strobing b) Breathing c) Removing Contaminants d) Air e) Water f) Decontamination solutions | Water |
| There is no absolute antidote for chemical agents, but _____, (baby shampoo), may reduce effects, manufacturers products easy to carry in patrol vehicles and require little/no cleanup. a) Breathing b) Removing Contaminants c) Decontamination solution | Decontamination solutions |
| Approximately _____ percent of officers are murdered in the line of duty are killed with their own weapon.a) 15%b) 20%c) 25%d) 30% | 25% |
| ________ are a last resort when an officer believes that the subject is going to shoot him or her. a) Physical fitness b) Training c) Disarming techniques d) all | Disarming techniques |
| Many factors affect an officer’s decision to employ disarming techniques ________. a) proximity of the officer to the subject b) officer’s belief subject is going to shoot him c) presence of other potential victims in the immediate area d) all | All |
| Many factors affect an officer’s decision to employ disarming techniques ________. a) consideration of other reasonable options b) mindset and commitment to disarm the subject regardless of personal injury or initial failure c) all listed | All |
| This technique relies on several principles to be effective _________. a) surprise b) telegraphing c) action is faster than reaction d) verbal distraction e) physical proximity f) all | All |
| ________: Do not telegraph to the subject that you plan to counterattack. a) Surprise b) Telegraphing c) Action is faster than reaction d) Verbal distraction e) Physical proximityf) All | Surprise |
| _________ is small eye, hand, or foot movements in the direction that you plan to move. a) Surprise b) Telegraphing c) Action is faster than reaction d) Verbal distraction e) Physical proximity f) All | Telegraphing |
| When you enter the danger zone to deal with a subject, you are the initiator. The subject must react to your threat. a) Surprise b) Telegraphing c) Action is faster than reaction d) Verbal distraction e) Physical proximity f) All | Action is faster than reaction |
| Reaction time increases when subject processes 2 or more pieces of information at the same time. Ask the subject a question immediately prior to taking action. a) Surprise b) Telegraphing c) Action is faster than reaction d) Verbal distraction | Verbal distraction |
| To initiate this technique, the subject’s handgun must be within arm’s reach. a) Surprise b) Telegraphing c) Action is faster than reaction d) Verbal distraction e) Physical proximity f) All | Physical proximity |
| Your primary objective is to get the muzzle pointed in a different direction than toward you.a) TRUEb) FALSE | True |
| After you are in position and make the decision to initiate the technique, _______ are paramount. a) speed b) intensity c) follow-through d) all | All |
| Evade, secure, redirect, and control are defensive movements that may be used to defend against a spontaneous, close-quarter, and edged weapon attack. a) Evasion techniques b) Redirection techniques c) Defensive movements d) Cross patterns | Defensive movements |
| ________: Move or pivot away from the attacker. a) Evade b) Secure c) Redirect d) Control | Evade |
| _______: Capture the weapon arm and secure it. a) Evade b) Secure c) Redirect d) Control | Secure |
| _______: Redirect the weapon arm. a) Evade b) Secure c) Redirect d) Control | Redirect |
| _______: Use a takedown to put the subject in a prone position (lying on the stomach face down,) disarm, and use a restraint device. a) Evade b) Secure c) Redirect d) Control | Control |
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