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HAZMAT TECH 03MAR11
PPE
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The level of PPE to be selected when the greatest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection is required. | Level A |
| What equipment is required for Level A: | 1) Pressure-demand, full facepiece, SCBA, or pressure demand air line respirator with escape SCBA. 2) Vapor-protective suit: totally encapsulating chemical protective suit (TECPS). 3) All components of a TECP suit should be IAW NFPA 1991. |
| Under what condition is a TECPS selected for PPE? | When the hazardous material requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes, and the respiratory system based on either the measured (or potential for) high concentration of atmospheric vapors, gases, or particulates... |
| Under what condition is Level B selected for PPE? | When the type of atmospheric concentration of substances have been identified and require a high level of respiratory protection but less skin protection. When the atmosphere contains less than 19.5% oxygen. When liquids cannot harm skin or be absorbed. |
| Under what condition is Level C selected for PPE? | When atmospheric contaminants, liquid splashes, or other direct contact will not adversely affect or be absorbed through any exposed skin. APR is effective at removing contaminants. Must not be in IDLH conditions. Oxygen must be at 19.5%. |
| Under what condition is Level D appropriate? | No known hazards are present. Work functions preclude splashes, immersion, or the potential for unexpected inhalation of or contact with hazardous levels of any chemicals. |
| What factors must be considered in selecting the proper respiratory protection for a specified action option? | 1) Key is the level of protective clothing 2) Use highest level until levels of concentration have been determined. |
| What publications contain criteria for abrasion/tear testing, breakthrough times, and manufacturers' certification of CPC for individual chemicals? | 1) NFPA 1991 Standard on Vapor-Protective Ensembles for Hazardous Materials Emergencies 2) NFPA 1992 Standard on Liquid Splash-Protective Ensembles and Clothing for Hazardous Materials Emergencies 3) NFPA 1994, Standard on Protective Ensembles |
| Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) | Does not restrict mobility and provides the highest level of respiratory protection. Provide 30-60 minutes of air. |
| Positive pressure air line respirators (SAR) | With required escape unit lighter than SCBA, allow user unlimited supply of air. Limits range of worker to 300'. Worker must have an emergency egress pod containing 10 min. air supply when working in IDLH atmosphere. |
| Air purifying respirators (APR) | Designed for use only in environment that contains enough oxygen to sustain life. Should only be used when hazard and concentration is known and the level is within the limitations of the filter being used. Filter life is contingent upon concentration. |
| Process for selecting the proper respiratory protection at hazardous materials incident: | 1) Name of Chemical 2) Concentration 3) Hazard 4) Expected Exposure 5) OSHA requirements |
| What factors should be considered in selecting the proper chemical-protective clothing for a specified action option? | 1) Risk assessment: ID hazard present, Estimate exposure, Understand consequence of exposure, Determine risk. 2) Selection Factors: Overall suit integrity, Materials chem. resistance, Materials phys. properties, Design features, Service life, Cost |
| Define Degradation: | 1) Chemical: The weakening of a material, by exposure to chemicals 2) Physical: The weakening or destruction of a material, caused by rubbing against rough surfaces, or leaning/brushing against sharp objects. |
| Define Penetration: | The movement of a chemical through the suit's closures, cracks, or tears. |
| Define Permeation: | The process by which a hazardous material moves through a given material on the molecular level, exposing the responder to contamination. |
| NFPA 1991 requires what in regards to Level A (Vapor-Protective Suits). | The NFPA 1991, Standard on Vapor-Protective Suits for Hazardous Chemical Emergencies, requires the manufacturer to provide documentation on a garment's permeation resistance for 3 hours. |
| NFPA 1992 requires what in regards to Level B (Liquid Splash-Protective Ensembles). | NFPA 1992, Standard on Liquid Splash-Protective Ensembles and Clothing for Hazardous Material Emergencies, requires that the manufacturer to provide documentation on a garment's permeation resistance against specific chemicals for 1 hour. |
| What are some indicators of material degradation of chemical-protective clothing indications? | 1) Stiffness or excess pliability 2) Tears, cuts or abrasions 3) Damage to zippers or closures 4) Soft, sticky areas |
| What are the advantages to Level A? | 1) A fully encapsulating, airtight vapor protective suit, with SCBA worn on the inside. 2) It offers the maximum level of skin and respiratory protection. 3) Contains up to 10 minutes of air available in the suit, allowing the responder time to evacuate |
| What are the disadvantages to Level A? | 1) It has a greater potential for heat injury, communications, visibility, and mobility. 2) The responder must go through decontamination, prior to opening the suit and exchange an air bottle. 3) Can be bulky and material must be compatible. |
| What are the advantages to Level B? | 1) Air bottles can be exchanged more easily. 2) Provides more comfort and mobility 3) A turnout coat may be used over the suit. 4) Can be used in atmospheres with less than 19.5% oxygen. 5) Provides highest respiratory support with less skin protectio |
| What are the disadvantages to Level B? | 1) A non-encapsulating suit, with the SCBA worn on the outside. 2) The face piece serves as a barrier against chemical permeation for respiratory protection. 3) Can not be used when there is a high concentration of hazardous vapors or severe skin hazard |
| What are the advantages to Level C? | 1) Allows the wearer to utilize an air purifying respirator. 2) Provides greater mobility for the responder 3) Good for operations involving solids, dusts, powders, and many bio-pathogens and toxins. |
| What are the disadvantages to Level C? | 1) The hazard has to be known, they protect only against specific contaminates. 2) Limited life of its filters and canisters. 3) Periodic monitoring of the air must be performed. 4) Can not be used in atmospheres with less than 19.5% oxygen. |
| What are the heat exchange units used for the cooling of personnel in chemical-protective clothing? | 1) Air cooled: Cool air is pumped into the responder's suit by airlines. 2) Ice cooled: Vest that holds coolant "ice" packs. 3) Water cooled: Consist of a heat transfer garment (vest or full-body suit) and a cooling unit. |
| Physical and psychological stresses that can affect users of specialized protective clothing? | 1) Low dexterity and mobility 2) Low visibility 3) Communication problems 4) Physical Stress 5) Claustrophobia 6) Limited dexterity 7) Heat stress and heat exhaustion |
| What are examples of decontamination methods. | 1: Absorption 2: Adsorption 3: Chemical degradation 4: Dilution 5: Disposal 6: Evaporation 7: Neutralization 8: Solidification 9: Vacuuming 10: Washing |
| What is the purpose of Absorption? | To absorb liquid contaminants without changing their properties (e.g. soil, sand, and absorbent pillows/pads made from polypropylene & natural fibers) |
| What is the purpose of Adsorption? | Contaminant sticks to the sorbent material without adding to the volume of the sorbent. The resulting chemical reaction is heat. (e.g. Activated charcoal, silica) |
| What is the purpose of Chemical degradation? | To let the contaminate degrade itself over time by allowing it to age. |
| What is the purpose of Dilution? | To lower the concentration of a miscible liquid contaminant by adding a non-hazardous liquid solution. Method of last resort. Dilution significantly increases the quantity of the material that must be contained. |
| What is the purpose of Disposal? | To remove contaminated item(s) and transport them to a containment/disposal facility. |
| What is the purpose of Evaporation? | Allow the contaminant to evaporate. |
| What is the purpose of Neutralization? | To add a chemical to a contaminant, in order to change its chemical structure, with the goal of eliminating or rendering it harmless. |
| What is the purpose of Solidification? | To add a chemical to the contaminant that will convert its physical state from liquid to solid. |
| What is the purpose of Vacuuming? | To gather the contaminant by sucking it from the surface and placing it in a container. |
| What is the purpose of Washing? | To remove contamination by decontaminating with water or soapy water. |
| What are some sources of technical information for selecting appropriate decontamination procedures? | 1) CHEMTREC 2) MSDS 3) Product manufacturers 4) National Response Center 5) Local or regional poison control |
| Techniques for hazardous materials control. | 1) Adsorption 2) Neutralization 3) Overpacking 4) Patching 5) Plugging |
| What type of pumps do the following have: TC-406/DOT-406 TC-407/DOT-407 TC-312/DOT-312 TC-331 TC-338 | Vacuum pumps/ PTO pumps Vacuum pumps/ PTO pumps Vacuum pumps/ PTO pumps Compressed air/ vapor compressor and liquid pump Compressed air/ vapor compressor and liquid pump |
| Safety considerations that must be included in the plan of action. | 1: Site description 2: Entry objectives 3: On-scene organization and control 4: Hazard(s) evaluation 5: Personal protective equipment 6: On-scene work assignments 7: Communication procedures 8: Decontamination procedures 9: Other considerations |
| Safety considerations that should be addressed in the plan of action include. | 1: Analysis of the hazards and risk 2: Site map or sketch 3: Site work zones 4: Use of buddy system 5: Site communications 6: Command post location 7: SOP and safe work practices 8: Medical assistance 9: Hazard monitoring plan 10: Decon 11: Oth |
| Atmospheric and physical safety hazards associated with hazardous materials incidents involving confined spaces. | Atmospheric hazards: 1) Oxygen-deficient: Oxygen levels below 19.5% 2) Oxygen-enriched: Oxygen levels above 23.5% Physical Hazards: Engulfment, Falls/Slips, Electrical, Structural, Mechanical |
| Pre-entry activities to be performed. | Identification of: Site safety officer, Control zones, Escape Route, Designated withdrawl signal, Identification of safe locations that are uphill and upwind. |
| What should safety briefings with entry and backup teams cover? | 1: Explain potential safety and health hazards 2: Cover objectives and tasks to be performed 3: Confirm designated radio channels 4: Hand and verbal emergency signals 5: PPE requirements 6: Location and layout of decontamination |
| What is the role of a HAZMAT Technician during an incident involving hazardous materials? | According to NFPA 472 1: Analyze an incident to determine the magnitude 2: Plan a response 3: Implement a planned response 4: Evaluate progress 5: Terminate an incident |
| Components of the hazardous materials branch within the incident management system? | 1: Backup 2: Decontamination 3: Entry 4: Hazardous materials branch management 5: Hazardous materials branch safety 6: Information/research 7: Reconnaissance 8: Resources |
| Give three considerations for assessing a leak or spill inside a confined space without entering the area. | 1: Oxygen-deficient 2: Flammable or toxic atmosphere 3: Engulfment hazard |
| What are three methods of placing a 55-gal drum into an overpack drum? | 1: Rolling Slide-in 2: Slide-In 3: Slip-Over |
| What is the recommended procedure for inspecting tools and equipment? | Follow the manufacturers outlined procedures. |
| To reduce the potential of a flash fire or explosion during transfer operations; static build-up must be controlled through the application of what techniques? | 1: Grounding 2: Bonding |
| What are three components of effective debriefing? | 1: ID who responded 2: What the responders did 3: Document Injuries 4: Indicate medical follow-up 5: Equipment damaged 6: Note unsafe conditions that remain |
| Describe the key topics of an effective debriefing? | 1: Identity of materials 2: Signs and symptoms of exposure 3: Signs of critical incident stress 4: The duration of a recommended observation period for signs and symptoms 5: Medical contact 6: Safety and health hazards remaining at site |
| When should a debriefing take place? | 1: Identified in LERP and local SOP 2: As soon as practical so that responders still have a fresh recall of the incident details. |
| Who should be involved in debriefing? | 1: Identified in LERP and local SOP 2: Determined by Incident Commander |
| Describe three components of an effective critique? | 1: Identified in LERP and local SOP 2: Reviews incident to identify and document lessons learned. 3: What worked well and what did not. 4: Positive process that allows for modification of response procedures |
| Describe who should be involved in a critique? | 1: Identified in LERP and local SOP 2: Incident commander should hold an initial meeting to identify specific personnel to participate 3: Representatives from all responding agencies or groups |
| Describe why an effective critique is necessary after a hazardous materials incident. | 1: Provides opportunity to improve from lessons learned. 2: Improves the safety and health of responders to future incidents. |
| Describe which written documents should be prepared as a result of the critique. | 1: LERP and SOP/SOG 2: Site safety plan 3: Written elements of the plan of action |
| Describe the importance of personnel exposure records. | 1: Must be on file for the duration of employment plus 30 years. 2: Must be available with in 15 days of any formal request. |
| Identify the steps to be taken in compiling incident reports that meet federal, state, local, and organisational requirements. | 1: Follow unit SOP and inquires about each level of reporting and resources may include JAG or other legal inquiries. |
| What questions must be answered when evaluating the effectiveness of employed control functions? | 1: Is the incident stabilizing? 2: Is the incident increasing in intensity? 3: What are the ongoing processes by all personnel? |
| What factors must be considered in completing a risk assessment? | 1: Identify the hazard present 2: Estimate the likelihood of exposure 3: Understand the consequences of exposure 4: Determine the risk |
| What is a disadvantage of absorption? | Absorbed contaminant remains hazardous. Requires PPE when handling the absorbed contaminant. |
| What is a disadvantage of adsorption? | Creates heat that could cause spontaneous combustion. Not normally readily available. |
| What is a disadvantage of Chemical degradation? | Requires sufficient time for the material to degrade. Weather conditions must be favourable. |
| What is a disadvantage of Dilution? | Some contaminants require an inordinate amount of diluting solution. Run-off must be collected and disposed of properly. Could create large quantities of diluted contaminated waste product, causing containment issues. |
| What is a disadvantage of Disposal? | Requires encapsulating the contaminated item(s) while being transported, in order to eliminate spreading vapour hazards posed by the contaminant. |
| What is a disadvantage of Evaporation? | There must be sufficient time available for the contaminate to evaporate. Weather conditions must be favourable for evaporation to occur. Allowing vapours to escape into the atmosphere could create a downwind hazard. Not as effective on porous surface |
| What is a disadvantage of Neutralization? | The neutralizing chemical may not be readily available, which could pose a problem if time is of the essence in controlling the spread of the hazard. |
| What is a disadvantage of Solidification? | Could pose additional problems when liquid contaminant increases in volume as it solidifies. If the liquid is in a container, when the solidifier is added, as the volume increases it may damage the container. |
| What is a disadvantage of Vacuuming? | Static electricity and fine dust created by the process inside the collection ducts and container, can cause an explosion if the contaminant has explosive properties. |
| Define Backup in relation to IMS (Incident Management System) | 1: Personnel waiting in the cold zone, in equivalent level of PPE. 2: Respond to Hot Zone as needed, to replace or rescue the person they are backing up. |
| Define Decontamination in relation to IMS (Incident Management System) | 1: Reduces and prevents the spread of contaminants from persons and equipment, used at a hazardous materials incident. 2: Responsible for the operations of the decontamination unit. 3: Reports to the hazard section/division officer |
| Define Entry in relation to IMS (Incident Management System) | 1: Supervises entry and exit operations 2: Makes recommendations concerning control activities in the hot zone |
| Define Hazardous Materials Branch Management in relation to IMS (Incident Management System) | 1: Manages the activities that apply directly to the primary mission. 2: Responsible for allocating and assigning resources to control the incident. 3: The IC may perform this function, if qualified, during small incidents. |
| Define Hazardous Materials Branch Safety in relation to IMS (Incident Management System) | 1: Designated by the IC 2: Must be knowledgeable in the operations being conducted at the emergency response site. 3: Responsible for identifying and evaluating hazards. 4: Provides direction regarding the safety of operations. |
| Define Information/Research in relation to IMS (Incident Management System) | 1: Responsible for developing, documenting, and coordinating the information gathered during an incident. 2: Information gathered is used in the hazard and risk assessment. |
| Define Reconnaissance in relation to IMS (Incident Management System) | 1: Responsible for gathering information about the layout of the incident scene and other factors that may have an influence on the incident. 2: Responsible for developing a checklist... |
| Reconnaissance will collect information on the following: | 1: Access Routes 2: Egress Routes 3: Weather 4: Utilities 5: Drainage 6: Topography 7: Water Supplies 8: Exposures 9: Number, type, and condition of containers |
| Define Resources in relation to IMS (Incident Management System) | 1: Tracks available personnel and equipment, kept at the staging area until assigned. 2: Coordinates functions with the Operations Officer |
| Give three examples of decontamination stations that can be established. | 1: Mass Casualty 2: Technical Decontamination 3: Emergency Decontamination |
| Where on site is a Decontamination Corridor established. | In the Warm Zone and upwind of the established Hot Zone. |
Created by:
oldsmaug
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