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MicroA 1-25
Excelsior review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Three weeks after an episode of pharyngitis, antibodies made against the pathogen for the person's throat infection, cross-reacted with heart tissue and caused cardiac damage. Which organism was most likely responsible for these events? | Streptococcus pyogenes *streptococcus pyogenes can cause and immune reaction against the heart vavles |
| In what sense is a fever a defensive response to disease? | High temperature enhances the effectivness of interferons. *interferons, which flourish in high heat conditions, inhibit the growth of microorganisms. |
| What is a characteristic of cryptosporidiosis? | The disease is an opportunistic infection. *cryptosporidiosis is opportunistic in that it is most likely to cause severe disease in a person who is immunocompromised. |
| Which is characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus? | Colonizations of human skin and upper respiratory tract begins within 24 hours of birth. *colonization begins within hours after birth. |
| what is an important difference between pnuemonic and bubonic plague? Pnuemonic plague is | Spread by airborn droplets. *pnuemonic plague is transmitted by airborne droplets. |
| Which microbial disease is accompanied by a psuedomembrane covering the tonsils, larynx and nasal region? | Diphtheria *diphtheria produces a psuedomembrane of fibrin, dead tissues and cells. |
| Which statement about bacterial tetanus is most accurate? | It is preventable with an injection of toxoid. *tetanus toxoid stimulates antibody formation to neutralize tetanus toxin. |
| What kind of pathogens are resident or transient species of pathogenic microbes that cause disease under unusual conditions? | opportunistic *a generally harmless organism can become pathogenic in a host who is debilitated, tramatized, on antibiotic therapy, or immmunocompromised. |
| Which virus is commonly associated with infectious mononucleosis? | Epstein-Barr virus *The epstein-barr virus is a herpesvirus associated with mononucleosis and Burkitt's lymphoma. |
| Which chemotherapeutic agent is helpful in alleviating symptoms of genital herpes? | Acyclovir (Zovirax) *herpes is a viral disease, and acyclovir treats viral infections. |
| Which type of hepatitis is transmitted by fecal-oral route? | Hepatitis A *Hepatitis A is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. |
| Which disorder is evident in a patient with a postitive venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)test and generalized skin rash covering the entire body? | Secondary syphilis *a skin rash is typical of secondary syphilis. |
| A patient has a chronic cough, low grade fever and malaise. Microscopic examination of the patient's sputum reveals the presence of slender, acid-fast rods. Which disease does this patient probably have? The patient probably has | Tuberculosis *tuberculosis bacilli are acid-fast rods. |
| Why was urgency placed on the development of the hepatitis B vacine? | The virus has been associated with an increased risk of liver cancer. *there is a strong correlation between liver cancer and chronic hepatits B infections. |
| Which is a STD that involves an intracellular parasite of epithelial cells of the urogenital tract? | chlamydia trachomatis. *this is a parasite that reproduces only with the host cell. |
| What is the function of a reverse transcriptase in the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? | To convert the genetic information on the viral RNA into DNA. *viral RNA is released transcribed into DNA by reverse transcriptase. |
| The draining of swamps in an endemic geographical region most likely is initiated by public heath officials to reduce the cases of which disease? | Malaria *Draining swamps is a key step in reducing populations of all mosquitoes, including those implicated in malaria. |
| Which group of viruses causes warts? | Papovaviruses *papovavirus causes warts. |
| Zidovudine (AZT), didanosine (ddI), and zalcitabine (ddC)target what part of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? | reverse transcriptase *zidovudine, didanosine, and zalcitabine target the HIV reverse transcriptase. |
| Which viral feature is the primary cause of antigenic shift in the influenza A virus? | A segmented RNA gnome. *recombinations of RNA segments causes antigenic shift. |
| Which practice would decrease the risk of patients developing hospital-acquired infections? The hospital staff | Wash their hands before working with different patients. *the CDC recomends hand washing as the single most important means of preventing transmission of nosocomial infections. |
| Which characteristic accomponanies botulism in adult patients? | Ingestion of a performed toxin. *Intoxication is produced through ingestion. |
| HIV specifically attacks which cells of the immune system? | T lymphocytes. *T lymphocytes are a population of lymphocytes containing the CD4 protein cell marker that is targeted by the HIV virus. |
| Which information is most useful in distinguising between a food infection and a food intoxication? | The time for symptoms to appear. *Symptoms of food intoxicatioin occurs within a few hours. Symptoms of food infection are delayed until the agent can produce enough cells, or invade tissue, to produce symptoms. |
| A woman visits the gynocolgist and reports vaginal discomfort. The examination reveals severe irritation of the vaginal wall and a thick, abnormal discharge. Analysis of the discharge shows an abundance of budding single-celled fungi. cont. | Bacterial vaginosis. (Gardnerella vaginalis) |
| Which disease and causative agent are represented by this case? | *candidiasis is a fungal infection. |
Created by:
atkt
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