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3S371 Vol 3 2011
3S371 Manpower CDC Volume 3 (2011)
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| (401) What is the definition of joint operation planning? | Planning that is directed toward the employment of military forces within the context of a military strategy to attain specified objectives for possible contingencies. |
| (401)What group participates in the planning process and consists of the commands and agencies involved in the training, preparation, movement, employment, support, and sustainment of forces in a theater of operations? | JPEC |
| (401)What offices provide the ultimate decision on national policy and overall strategic direction of the US armed forces? | The president and the secretary of defense. |
| (401)Who develops national security strategy? | The president, assisted by the NSC. |
| (401) What document provides the strategic direction required to coordinate the planning efforts of the combatant commanders? | JSCP. |
| (401)What planning process is used when time is not a critical factor? | Deliberate planning. |
| (402)What system governs all aspects of conventional joint military operation planning and execution? | JOPES. |
| (402) What are the primary functions of JOPES? | To provide the foundation for conventional command and control by national and theater combatant commanders and their staffs. |
| (403) What are the names of the five phases that make up contingency planning process procedures? | (1) Initiation. (2) Concept development. (3) Plan development. (4) Plan review. (5) Supporting plans. |
| (403) What is the starting point of the contingency planning process? | The SecDef’s annual CPG. |
| (403) In which phase is the combatant commanders’ strategic concept built? | Phase II–Concept Development. |
| (403) In which phase does the concept review take place? | Phase IV–Plan Review. |
| (404) What are the four types of execution planning orders? | (1) Warning. (2) Planning. (3) Alert. (4) Execute orders. |
| (404) Which JCS execution planning order gives the combatant commander all of the essential execution planning information plus a JCS-approved course of action? | Planning order. |
| (404) What order is required to authorize the actual movement of forces to proceed on C-Day? | Execute order. |
| (405) What does the WMP provide? | Source data from which operations plans can be generated. |
| (405) How many volumes does the WMP contain? | Five. |
| (406) How many parts are in WMP–3 and what are they? | Three; part 1 contains aviation combat forces; part 2 contains support forces; and part 3 contains a listing of UTC for Air Force planning. |
| (406) What part of WMP–3 contains apportioned combat support and combat service support forces by theater and UTC, and quantity? | Part 2. |
| (406) How can you identify a UTC-approved for Air Force use? | The last digit of the UTC is a zero. |
| (406) What information does a UTC MISCAP statement provide? | What the UTC package can do, under what conditions it can operate, where it can be deployed, and which additional UTCs are required to support the basic package. |
| (407) What governs WMP–4, and what does it reflect? | AFMAN 10–401 and AFI 25–101; it reflects the most current MAJCOM planning, positioning, and employment activity of aviation forces tasked in support of OPLANs. |
| (407) How many parts are in WMP–4 and what are they? | Five; pts 1 and 2 reflect joint HQ USAF and MAJCOM position on use of bases in wartime; pt 3 reflects positioning of MOIA and non-acft-unit-related ration requirements for a plan; part 4 contains MOIA; pt 5 contains non-acft-unit-related ration rqrmnts. |
| (407) What parts of the WMP–4 are known as the WAA? | Parts 1 through 3 |
| (408) What does WMP–5 contain? | The basic planning factors and data the Air Force approves for the expenditure of all war consumables (except munitions, fuel tanks, launchers, racks, adapters, and pylons) that support wartime flying activities. |
| (408) The factors contained in WMP–5, along with forces data from WMP–3 and the WAA in WMP –4 are used to provide what? | The basis in planning and prepositioning WRM for the F&FP period. |
| (409) What is MEFPAK? | The standard method for describing the deployment characteristics of Air Force personnel and equipment contained in standard, predefined manpower and equipment force requirements packages called UTCs. |
| (409)What are the two MEFPAK subsystems? | (1) The MANFOR. (2) The LOGFOR. |
| (409)How are deployment force manpower requirements defined? | Using management engineering tools and techniques, mission capabilities, and workload described in the MISCAP statement. |
| (410)What constitutes a standard wartime deployable package? | An approved UTC with its associated manpower and equipment constitutes a standard wartime deployable package. |
| (410) When are new UTCs requested? | When new equipment enters the inventory, deployable units experience a significant change in opcon or mission, significant pgm changes occur in manpower or equipment, significant pgm or op chngs reduce unit’s SORTS C-level below C–2. |
| (410)Why are MEFPAK responsible agencies tasked annually to review UTCs? | To ensure the accuracy and currency of the title, MISCAP statement, and manpower detail of its UTCs. |
| (411)The TPFDD is the primary concern and central foundation for what? | Force planning, logistics planning, movement scheduling, and plan execution. |
| (411)Who is responsible for developing, managing, planning, and execution requirements for TPFDD development? | FAM. |
| (411)What does the TPFDD contain? | TPFDD, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for an operations plan. |
| (412)What is the objective of TPFDD maintenance? | Systematically and effectively incorporate changes to TPFDD files required to maintain as up-to-date as possible the database of phased forces, materiel, and sustainment that makes up the COCOMs concept. |
| (412)Who is responsible for keeping the TPFDD current? | Supported commanders, with the USTRANSCOM playing a key role. |
| (413) Why were the AETF Modules developed? | To provide a standardized template optimizing initial planning through rapid requirements generation. |
| (413) What are the six modular elements of the AETF? | (1) Open the airbase. (2) Command and control. (3) Establish the airbase. (4) Generate the mission. (5) Operate the airbase. (6) Robust the airbase. |
| (413) What module establishes operating capability in approximately 24 hours from the arrival of forces and no later than 36 hours if runway preparation is required? | Open the airbase. |
| (413) The command and control FM is estimated to be IOC in approximately how many hours from arrival at destination? | Sixteen hours. |
| (413) What module contains capabilities designed to support most missions or weapon systems? | Establish the airbase. |
| (413) How is a MUG identified? | By the specific type weapon system and number of aircraft supported |
| (414) How does the Air Force planning and execution community support JOPES? | By feeding Air Force unique data through DCAPES. |
| (414) What is DCAPES designed to do? | To provide OPLAN requirements communication/ resource monitoring capability by integrating planning data with ops, logs, MO, and persl processes to enable planners to dev and access real-time data from Service and joint systems. |
| (414) Who uses data in DCAPES to prepare resources for movement to deployment locations? | Air Force planners, readiness personnel, FAMS, and UDMs. |
| (414) Who will designate a DCAPES FM to manage allocated “08” series PIDs and respective user accounts? | MAJCOM, Component Headquarters, and ARC. |
| (414) What is a super user? | An individual that understands and has the ability to apply knowledge in cross-functional areas |
| (415) What is done each time we compare a UTC or DRMD requirement to manpower authorizations? | Assessing Air Force support force adequacy. |
| (415) What is the assessment of base-level resources based on? | The function’s wartime mission. |
| (415) When a manpower authorization can’t be identified on the unit manning document (UMD) to satisfy a UTC requirement, what is the result? | A shortfall (mismatch). |
| (415) What is updated as a result of the TFA? | The WMP to show what forces are available for planning. |
| (416) What initiates the BLPPs? | The initial scenario from headquarters that determines requirements. |
| (416) In determining augmentation forces, what must you consider? | Local needs and conditions. |
| (416) What are the three types of EE positions, and where are they used? | (1) Key. (2) CONUS. (3) EE. (4) Overseas; contingency essential, overseas foreign national. |
| (417) What is the responsibility of the DOD? | To maintain and employ Armed Forces to support and defend its possessions and areas vital to its interest and uphold and advance the national policies. |
| (417) Name the directorates that make up the Joint Staff? | J–1, MO and Personnel; J–2, Intel; J–3, Ops; J–4, Logistics; J–5, Strat Plans/Policy; J–6, Cmd, Ctl, Comm,/Compr Sys; J–7, Ops Plans and Interoperability; and J–8, Force Structure, Resources and Assessment. |
| (417) What are the military departments? | Army, Navy, and Air Force. |
| (417) Name three of the five common functions of the military departments? | 1) Prep frces, establish rsrvs, plan for expan. 2) Maint readiness of rsrv frcs. 3) Recruit, org, trn, equip frcs for Unifd Cmds. 4) Prep/submit budgets. 5) Dev, garrison, supply, equip, maint bases; furnish admin and logistic sup for all forces. |
| (417) Who informs the Service secretaries regarding military advice rendered by the JCS on matters affecting their departments? | Military Service Chiefs. |
| (417) What are the military services? | Army, Navy, Air Force, Marines, and Coast Guard. |
| (418) Who has full authority over assigned forces and cannot be delegated or transferred? | COCOM. |
| (418) What is the basic authority of OPCON? | OPCON is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. |
| (418) What has command authority over military capability or forces that are limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary for mission accomplishment? | TACON. |
| (418) Name the categories of support provided by the COCOM. | General, mutual, direct, and close support. |
| (419) What is Global Force Mgmnt? | GFM is a process to align force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirements. |
| (419) What does the RFAP establish? | The RFAP establishes a formal process to allocate Services’ rotational forces to meet combatant commander demands for military capabilities. |
| (419) What is the GFMB charge to assess in support of the GFM process? | Force allocation, apportionment, and assignment proposals. |
| (419) Who is tasked by the JS to develop recommended global sourcing solutions? | JFCOM. |
| (420) What process supports contingency planning within the DOD? | AP. |
| (420) What does AP allow combatant commanders to do? | Allows the combatant commander to develop a full range of flexible options and respond to rapidly changing strategic and military conditions. |
| (420) What are the stages of AP? | Initiation, implementation, and integration. |
| (420) What type of plans provides a foundation for transition to crisis planning? | Living plans. |
| (421) What resources are measured for unit resource and training status reporting? | Only organic resources under the OPCON of the reporting unit, or its parent unit. |
| (421) What four resource areas are measured in SORTS? | (1) Personnel. (2) Equipment and supplies on hand. (3) Equipment condition. (4) Training. |
| (421) What is a DOC statement? | A document that states the unit’s wartime mission capability. |
| (421) What does a DOC statement contain? | Unit identification, mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and resources to be measured. |
| (421) What types of units require DOC statements? | Non-aircraft-combat units; aircraft-combat units, aircraft -combat support elements, non-aircraft-combat support elements, and combat service support elements. |
| (422) What two conditions can be derived from a unit’s C-level? | The degree to which a unit can perform the wartime mission for which it is organized and meets the standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment. |
| (422) Which C-level indicates a unit is deployable, but isn’t fully capable and requires extra resources? | C-level 4. |
| (422) What are LIMFACs? | Deficiencies, problems, or conditions that decrease the ability of a unit to do its wartime mission. |
| (423) What readiness information is collected to ensure specific AEF goals are met? | Employment, management, resource allocation, and sustainment of AEF operations. |
| (423) How does ART complement SORTS? | ART focuses reporting on the modular scalable capability-based UTC’s designed to meet the needs of the 21st century force while SORTS is unit-centric with reporting based on MW commitments. |
| (423) ART is a method of identifying what UTC information? | UTC’s ability to perform its MISCAP and identify shortages of resources. |
| (423) What areas are considered during a commander’s rating of a UTC? | Personnel, equipment, training, and equipment condition. |
| (423) When will all Air Force and Air Force gained units submit and update UTC assessments? | Every 30 calendar days. |
| (424) Who acts as facilitator, ensuring that the base fulfills its deployment mission? | The IDO. |
| (424) Who assigns personnel to a UTC requirement? | The UDM. |
| (425) Who requests changes in manpower authorization in a deployed location, and who is the approval authority? | The AOR commander; the COCOM. |
| (425) What is the difference between a permanent and a provisional unit in dealing with personnel? | A permanent unit has authorizations and assigned personnel; a provisional unit has requirements and attached personnel that are temporary and has no history. |
| (423) How soon are notifications given to various agencies when activating or deactivating an MO office? | Within 24 hours. |
| (425) What type of information should be maintained in an events log? | Changes in operational status, briefings provided, organization/authorization change requests, and requests for information. |
| (425) What is the purpose of an after-action report, and to whom is it submitted? | It passes on information about what works or what could be improved; to each MO staff agency in the supported and supporting chain of command for review and action. |
Created by:
charles.barnes
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