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CUI C7 Fund Quiz 1
Vocabulary for chapters 1, 2, 15, 24, 32, 33, 34
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| nursing | the protection, promotion, and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response, and advocacy in the care of individuals, families, and communities. |
| Florence Nightingale | "Lady with the lamp"; established first nursing philosophy based on health maintenance and restoration. |
| Clara Barton | founder of American Red Cross |
| Mary Mahoney | first professionally trained African American nurse; brought forth an awareness of cultural diversity and respect for the individual, regardless of background, race, color, or religion. |
| Examples of threats to client (patient) safety? | medication errors, improper client transfers, client falls, and incorrect procedures |
| evidence-based practice | A problem-solving approach to clinical practice that uses the best available evidence along with your expertise and client preferences and values in making decision about care. |
| Standards of Nursing Practice: 1) Assessment | The registered nurse collects comprehensive data pertinent to the patient's health or the situation. |
| Standards of Nursing Practice: 2) Diagnosis | The registered nurse analyzes the assessment data to determine the diagnoses or issues. |
| Standards of Nursing Practice: 3) Outcomes Identification | The registered nurse identifies expected outcomes for a plan individualized to the the patient or the situation. |
| Standards of Nursing Practice: 4) Planning | The registered nurse develops a plan that prescribes strategies and alternatives to attain expected outcomes. |
| Standards of Nursing Practice: 5) Implementation | The registered nurse implements the identified plan. |
| Standards of Nursing Practice: 6) Evaluation | The registered nurse evaluates progress toward attainment of outcomes. |
| Standards of Professional Performance: Quality of Practice | The registered nurse systematically enhances the quality and effectiveness of nursing practice. |
| Standards of Professional Performance: Education | The registered nurse attains knowledge and competency that reflects current nursing practice. |
| Standards of Professional Performance: Professional Practice Evaluation | The registered nurse evaluates one's own nursing practice in relation to professional practice standards and guidelines, relevant statues, rules, and regulations. |
| Standards of Professional Performance: Collegiality | interacts with and contributes to the professional development of peers and colleagues |
| Standards of Professional Performance: Collaboration | collaborates with patient, family, and others in the conduct of nursing practice |
| Standards of Professional Performance: Ethics | integrates ethical provisions in all areas of practice |
| Standards of Professional Performance: Research | integrates research findings into practice |
| Standards of Professional Performance: Resource Utilization | considers factors related to safety, effectiveness, cost, and impact on practice in the planning and delivery of nursing services |
| Standards of Professional Performance: Leadership | provides leadership in the professional practice setting and the profession |
| continuing education | involves formal, organized educational programs offered by universities, hospitals, state nurses associations, professional nursing organizations, and health care institutions |
| in-service education | instruction or training provided by a heath care agency or institution; designed to increase the knowledge, skills, and competencies of those employed by the institution. |
| Knowledge level: novice | beginning nursing student, or any nurse entering a situation w/o prior experience; learns via a specific set of rules or procedures, which are usually stepwise and linear. |
| Knowledge level: advanced beginner | a nurse with some level of experience with the situation; exp may be observational but still able to identify meaningful principles. |
| Knowledge level: competent | Nurse with 2-3 years experience in the same clinical position; undertands the organization and specific care required by the type of clients; able to anticipate nursing care and establish long-range goals. |
| Knowledge level: proficient | Nurse with >2-3 years experience in same clinical position; perceives a client's situation as a whole, and able to assess entire situation quickly; focuses on managing care as opposed to managing and performing skills |
| Knowledge level: expert | Nurse with diverse experience who has intuitive grasp of an existing or potential clinical problem; able to zero in on problem and focus on multiple dimensions of the situation; skilled at identifying client-centered problems. |
| accountability | responsible (professionally and legally) for the type and quality of nursing care provided |
| acute care nurse practitioner (ACNP) | Nurse trained to function in the absence of a physician. |
| advanced practice nurse (APN) | Nurse with a master's degree in nursing, advanced education in pharmacology and physical assessment, and certification and expertise in a specialized area of practice. An APN usually works in a critical, acute, restorative, or community health care agency |
| American Nurses Association (ANA) | Organization of professional nurses in the United States that focuses on standards of health care, nurses' professional development, and economic and general welfare of nurses. |
| caregiver | One who contributes the benefits of medical, social, economic, or environmental resources to a dependent or partially dependent individual. |
| certified nurse-midwife (CNM) | Nurse who is educated in midwifery and possesses certification in accordance with criteria of the American College of Midwives. |
| certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA) | An RN who has received advanced training in an accredited program in anesthesiology. |
| client advocate | Role in which the nurse protects the client's human and legal rights and provides assistance in asserting those rights if the need arises. |
| clinical nurse specialist (CNS) | Nurse with a master's degree in nursing and expertise in a specific area of practice. |
| continuing education | Formal educational programs designed to further the knowledge, skills, and professional attitudes of practicing nurses. |
| in-service education | Instruction or training provided by an agency or institution to nurses practicing within that agency or institution. |
| International Council of Nurses (ICN) | International organization for professional nurses; the ANA and Canadian Nurses Association (CAN) are members. |
| National League for Nursing (NLN) | Organization of nurses and laypeople concerned with improving nursing education, nursing service, and the delivery of health care in the United States. The NLN is the official accrediting agency for nursing schools. |
| nurse administrator | Nurse in a management position with an agency who focuses on the delivery of nursing services. |
| nurse practitioner | Nurse with advanced training or education who provides primary care for nonemergency clients, usually in an outpatient or community setting. |
| nurse researcher | Nurse with graduate nursing education who investigates problems related to nursing practice. |
| professional organization | Association of professionals created to deal with issues of concern to the profession as a whole. |
| registered nurse (RN) | Health care professional who has completed a course of study at an accredited school of professional nursing and has passed an examination administered by a State Board of Nursing or the Canadian Nurses Association Testing Service. |
| adult day care centers | Centers that provide a variety of health and social services to specific client populations who live alone or with family in the community. |
| assisted living | Attractive long-term care setting with a homier environment and greater resident autonomy. |
| capitation | Method of paying a physician, hospital, or managed care system for annual services based on a fee per client. |
| discharge planning | Set of decisions and activities involved in providing continuity and coordination of nursing care when a client is discharged from a health care agency. |
| extended care facility | Institution providing medical, nursing, or custodial care for clients over a prolonged period. |
| home care | The provision of medically related professional and paraprofessional services and equipment to clients and families in their homes for health maintenance, education, illness prevention, diagnosis and treatment of disease, palliation, and rehabilitation. |
| integrated delivery networks (IDNs) | A set of providers and services organized to deliver a coordinated continuum of care to the population of clients served at a capitated cost. |
| managed care | Health care system in which there is administrative control over primary health care services. Redundant facilities and services are eliminated, and costs are reduced. Preventive care and health education are emphasized. |
| Medicaid | State medical assistance based on Title XIX of the Social Security Act. States receive 50% in matching federal funds to provide medical care and services to people meeting categorical and income requirements; covers home care services based on Medicare gu |
| Medicare | Federal government insurance coverage for persons over 65 years of age (or disabled and under 65) who have paid into the Social Security or Railroad Retirement system; covers inpatient hospital charges and some home care services. |
| professional standards review organization | Organization that focuses on the evaluation of nursing care provided in a health care setting. The quality, effectiveness, and appropriateness of nursing care for the client are the foci of evaluation. |
| prospective payment system (PPS) | Method of reimbursement for health care services. It involves a fixed reimbursement for a medical condition/procedure regardless of client's length of stay. |
| rehabilitation | Restoration of an individual to normal or near-normal function following a physical or mental illness, injury, or chemical addiction. |
| resource utilization groups | A system for reimbursement used in the long term care setting. |
| respite care | Care that gives the primary care provider the opportunity to have time away. Respite care services can take place in the client's home, a hospital, or an extended care setting. |
| restorative care | Care settings that include but are not limited to inpatient and outpatient rehabilitation facilities, subacute care facilities, clinics, and home care agencies. The services provided in restorative care settings are designed to bring the client to the max |
| skilled nursing facility | Institution or part of an institution that meets criteria for accreditation established by the sections of the Social Security Act that determine the basis for Medicaid and Medicare reimbursement for skilled nursing care, including rehabilitation and vari |
| utilization review (UR) | Assessment of the appropriateness and economy of an admission to a health care facility or continued hospitalization. |
| vulnerable populations | Clients who are more likely to develop specific health problems. |
| acute care | Secondary and tertiary care; short-term care for medical conditions |
| globalization | The ability of health care providers to make their services more accessible globally. |
| Independent Practice Association (IPA) | Managed care organization contract physicians who are not members of the group and whose practices include fee-for-service and capitated patients |
| minimum data set (MDS) | Part of the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI) discussing the most appropriate health care interventions to support the health care needs of the residential population. |
| outliers | Clients with extended lengths of stay, well beyond allowed inpatient DRG days. |
| subacute care | Care for clients who need a greater intensity of care that usually provided in a skilled nursing facility who no longer require acute care. |
| utilization review (UR) committees | Committee that reviews the admissions, diagnostic testing, and treatments provided by physicians for clients receiving Medicare. |
| work redesign | The redesign of nursing units to make more services available on those units minimizing the need to transfer and transport clients across multiple diagnostic and treatment areas |
| evidence-based practice | The integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values taking into account a nurse's clinical experience, practice trends, and individual client preferences. |
| nurse educator | Nurse with a background in clinical nursing who works in a school of nursing as a faculty member, in a staff development department of a health care agency, or in an inpatient education department. |
| primary care | First contact in a given episode of illness that leads to a decision regarding a course of action to resolve the health problem. |
| critical thinking | Active, organized, cognitive process used to carefully examine one's thinking and the thinking of others. |
| database | Information about a client's level of health, health practices, past illnesses, present illnesses, and physical examination combined to serve as the basis for the plan of care. |
| decision making | Process involving critical appraisal of information that results from recognition of a problem and ends with the generation, testing, and evaluation of a conclusion. |
| problem solving | Methodical, systematic approach to explore conditions and develop solutions and that includes analysis of data, determination of causative factors, and selection of appropriate actions to reverse or eliminate the problem. |
| reflection | Process of thinking back or recalling an event or discovering the meaning and purpose of that event. |
| evidence-based knowledge | Knowledge that comes from scientific investigation or knowledge that is based on clinical expertise |
| prognosis | A prediction of the probable outcome of a disease or condition of a client and the usual course of the disease as observed in similar situations |
| clinical decision making | The use of critical thinking skills throughout the nursing process to obtain relevant information about the client and to plan and provide effective care and measure the outcomes of the care provided. Clinical decision making may occur alone or in collabo |
| diagnostic reasoning | Process that enables an observer to assign meaning and to classify phenomena in clinical situations by integrating observations and critical thinking. |
| scientific method | Codified sequence of steps used in the formulation, testing, evaluation, and reporting of scientific ideas. |
| nursing | Diagnosis and treatment of human responses to actual or potential health problems. |
| code of ethics | Code that defines the ethical principles by which nurses function. |
| delegation | Process of assigning another member of the health care team aspects of client care (e.g., assigning nurse assistants to bathe a client). |
| assertiveness | Comprises respect for others, respect for yourself, self-awareness, and effective, clear and consistent communication. |
| channels | Means of conveying and receiving messages through visual, auditory, and tactile senses. |
| communication | Means by which people interact. |
| empathy | Ability to understand and accept another person's reality. |
| interpersonal communication | Exchange of information between two persons or among persons in a small group. |
| interpersonal variables | Factors within both the sender and receiver that influence communication. |
| intrapersonal communication | Communication that occurs within an individual (e.g., a person who talks with the self silently or who forms an idea in the mind). |
| message | Information sent or expressed by the sender in the communication process. |
| metacommunication | Communication that includes not only what is said but also the relationship of those involved in the interaction. It is a message that conveys the sender's attitude toward the self, the message, and the attitudes, feelings, and intentions toward the liste |
| nonverbal communication | Communication using expressions, gestures, body posture, and positioning rather than words. |
| perceptional biases | Human tendencies that interfere with accurately perceiving and interpreting messages from others. |
| public communication | Interaction between one person and a large group of people. |
| receiver | Person to whom the message is sent during the communication process. |
| referent | Factor that motivates a person to communicate with another individual. |
| sender | Person who initiates interpersonal communication by conveying a message. |
| small-group communication | Interaction that occurs when a small number of persons meet together. |
| symbolic communication | Verbal and nonverbal symbolism used by others to convey meaning. |
| sympathy | Concern, sorrow, or pity felt for the client, generated by the nurse's personal identification with the client's needs. |
| therapeutic communication techniques | Specific responses that encourage the expression of feelings and ideas and convey the nurse's acceptance and respect. |
| transpersonal communication | Interaction that occurs within a person's spiritual domain. |
| verbal communication | Sending of messages from one individual to another or to a group of individuals through the spoken word. |
| diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) | Groups of clients classified for purposes of measuring a hospital's delivery of care. |
| feedback | In communication theory, information produced by a receiver and perceived by a sender that informs the sender about the receiver's reaction to the message. Feedback is a cyclical part of the process of communication that regulates and modifies the content |
| inference | Taking one proposition as a given and guessing that another proposition follows. |
| nursing process | Systematic problem-solving method by which nurses individualize care for each client. The five steps of the nursing process are assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. |
| perfusion | Passage of a fluid, such as blood, through a specific organ or an area of the body. |
| afebrile | Without fever. |
| antipyretic | Of or pertaining to a substance or procedure that reduces fever. |
| auscultatory gap | Disappearance of sound when obtaining a blood pressure: typically occurs between the first and second Korotkoff sounds. |
| blood pressure (BP) | Pressure exerted by the circulating volume of blood on the walls of the arteries, veins, and chambers of the heart. The pressure in the aorta and the large arteries of a healthy young adult is approximately 120 mm Hg during systole and 70 mm Hg during dia |
| bradycardia | Slower than normal heart rate; heart contracts fewer than 60 times per minute. |
| Celsius | Denotes a temperature scale in which 0° is the freezing point of water and 100° is the boiling point of water at sea level. |
| concept map | Visual representation of client problems and interventions that shows their relationships to each other. Metacognitive tool that assists learners in developing a self-appraisal of their own individual thinking processes and in considering the context of n |
| conduction | Transfer of heat from one object to another with direct contact. |
| convection | Transfer of heat away by air movement. |
| core temperature | Temperature of deep body tissues and organs. |
| diaphoresis | Secretion of sweat, especially profuse secretion associated with an elevated body temperature, physical exertion, or emotional stress. |
| diastolic pressure | Minimum level of blood pressure measured between contractions of the heart. |
| eupnea | Normal respiration that is quiet, effortless, and rhythmic. |
| evaporation | Transfer of heat energy when a liquid is changed to gas. |
| Fahrenheit | Scale for the measurement of temperature in which the boiling point of water is 212° and the freezing point is 32° at sea level. |
| febrile | Pertaining to or characterized by an elevated body temperature. |
| fever | Elevation of the hypothalamic set point so that body temperature is regulated at a higher level. |
| fever of unknown origin (FUO) | Refers to a fever whose cause cannot be determined. |
| frostbite | Traumatic effect of extreme cold on the skin and subcutaneous tissues; first manifested by distinct pallor. |
| heat exhaustion | Abnormal condition characterized by weakness, vertigo, nausea, muscle cramps, and loss of consciousness; caused by depletion of body fluid and electrolytes resulting from exposure to intense heat or the inability to acclimatize to heat. |
| heatstroke | Severe and sometimes fatal condition resulting from the failure of the temperature-regulating capacity of the body; caused by prolonged exposure to the sun or high temperatures. |
| hematocrit | Measure of the packed cell volume of red cells, expressed as a percentage of the total blood volume. |
| hospice | A system of family-centered care designed to allow clients to live and remain at home with comfort, independence, and dignity while alleviating the strains caused by terminal illness. |
| hyperthermia | Situation in which body temperature exceeds the set point; fever. |
| hypotension | Abnormal lowering of blood pressure in which pressure is inadequate for normal perfusion and oxygenation of tissues. |
| hypothalamus | Portion of the diencephalon of the brain that activates, controls, and integrates the peripheral autonomic nervous system, the endocrine processes, and many bodily functions such as body temperature, sleep, and appetite. |
| hypoxemia | Abnormal deficiency of oxygen in arterial blood. |
| nonshivering thermogenesis | Condition that occurs primarily in neonates; because neonates cannot shiver, a limited amount of vascular brown tissue, present at birth, is metabolized for heat production. |
| postural hypotension | Abnormally low blood pressure occurring when an individual assumes the standing posture; also called orthostatic hypotension. |
| pulse pressure | Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures, normally 30 to 40 mm Hg. |
| pyrexia | Abnormal elevation of the temperature of the body above 37° C (98.6° F) because of disease; fever. |
| pyrogen | Any substance that causes a rise in body temperature (e.g., bacterial toxins). |
| radial pulse | Pulse of the radial artery palpated at the wrist over the radius. The radial pulse is the one most often taken. |
| radiation | Method of temperature regulation used by the body to lower body temperature. |
| shivering | Process used by the body to raise body temperature. |
| sphygmomanometer | Device for measuring the arterial blood pressure that consists of an arm or leg cuff with an air bladder connected to a tube, a bulb for pumping air into the bladder, and a gauge for indicating the amount of air pressure being exerted against the artery. |
| stria (striae) | Streak or linear scar that results from rapidly developing tension in the skin, commonly seen on the abdomen after pregnancy. |
| systolic pressure | Pressure exerted in the aorta and large arteries of a human during systolic contraction of the left ventricle; indicated during blood pressure measurement as the point when sound can first be heard during deflation of the pressure cuff. |
| tachycardia | Rapid heart rate ranging between 100 and 150 beats per minute. |
| thermoregulation | Internal control of body temperature. |
| vital signs | Temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure. |
| hypertension | Blood pressure of greater than 120-139/80-89 |
| acromegaly | Chronic metabolic condition caused by overproduction of growth hormone and characterized by gradual, marked enlargement and elongation of bones of the face, jaw, and extremities. |
| adventitious sounds | Abnormal lung sounds heard with auscultation. |
| aneurysm | Localized dilation of the wall of a blood vessel, usually caused by arteriosclerosis, hypertension, or a congenital weakness in the vessel wall. |
| apical impulse | Point at which the apex of the heart touches the anterior chest wall; best site for auscultation of heart sounds; also called the point of maximal impulse (PMI). |
| arcus senilis | Thin white ring along the margin of the iris. |
| atherosclerosis | Common arterial disorder characterized by yellowish plaques of cholesterol, lipids, and cellular debris in the inner layers of the walls of the large- and medium-sized arteries. |
| atrophied | Wasting or diminution of size or physiological activity of a part of the body caused by disease or other influences. |
| basal cell carcinoma | Malignant epithelial cell tumor that begins as a papule and enlarges peripherally, developing a central crater that erodes, crusts, and bleeds. Metastasis is rare. Primary cause is excessive exposure to the sun or to x-rays. |
| borborygmi | Audible abdominal sound produced by hyperactive intestinal peristalsis. |
| bronchophony | Increase in intensity and clarity of the vocal resonance that may result from an increase in the lung tissue density, such as in the consolidation of pneumonia. |
| bruit | Abnormal sound or murmur heard while auscultating an organ, gland, or artery. |
| chancre | Small open ulcer that drains serous material; found on genitalia, associated with syphilis. |
| cherry angiomas | Ruby red papules of the skin. |
| cholecystitis | Inflammation of the gallbladder; may be acute or chronic. |
| cirrhosis | Chronic degenerative disease of the liver. |
| clubbing | Bulging of the tissues at the nail base due to insufficient oxygenation at the periphery resulting from conditions such as chronic emphysema and congenital heart disease. |
| conjunctivitis | Highly contagious eye infection; the crusty drainage that collects on eyelid margins can easily spread from one eye to the other. |
| dermatitis | Inflammation of skin characterized by itching, redness, and skin lesions. |
| distention | Swelling of a body cavity; may be caused by fluid, gas, or a mass. |
| ectropion | Eversion of the eyelid that exposes the conjunctival membrane and part of the eyeball. |
| eczema | Superficial dermatitis of unknown cause. |
| entropion | Condition in which the eyelid turns inward toward the eye. |
| epidemiology | Study of the occurrence, distribution, and causes of disease. |
| erythema | Redness or inflammation of the skin or mucous membranes that is a result of dilation and congestion of superficial capillaries; sunburn is an example. |
| exophthalmos | Abnormal protrusion of one or both eyeballs. |
| exostosis | Abnormal benign growth on the surface of a bone. |
| goniometer | Device that measures the precise degree of motion in a particular joint and is used mainly in clients who have a suspected reduction in joint movement. The instrument has two flexible arms with a 180-degree protractor in the center. |
| hepatitis | Inflammatory condition of the liver. |
| hirsutism | Excessive body hair in a masculine distribution caused by heredity, hormonal dysfunction, or medication. |
| hydrocephalus | Abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain. |
| hypertonicity | Increased muscle tone. |
| hypotonicity | Low muscle tone. |
| iatrogenic infections | Infections caused by a treatment or diagnostic procedure. |
| indurated | Hardened tissue, particularly skin, due to edema, inflammation, or infiltration by a tumor. |
| integument | Skin and its appendages: hair, nails, and sweat and sebaceous glands. |
| invasive | Referring to procedures that involve puncture, incision, or insertion of a foreign object, such as a needle or catheter, into the body. |
| jaundice | Yellow discoloration of the skin, mucous membranes, and sclera, caused by greater than normal amounts of bilirubin in the blood. |
| kyphosis | Exaggeration of the posterior curvature of the thoracic spine. |
| leukoplakia | Thick, raised, pearly-white patch of precancerous tissue found on the lips, buccal mucosa, penis, or vulva. |
| localized | With regard to infections, a type of infection in which the infectious process is limited to a particular area, such as a wound infection. |
| lordosis | Increased lumbar curvature. |
| melanoma | Group of malignant neoplasms, primarily of the skin, that are composed of melanocytes; common in fair-skinned people having light-colored eyes and in persons who have had a sunburn; any black or brown spot having an irregular border, pigment appearing to |
| metastasize | To spread. |
| microorganisms | Any microscopic entity capable of carrying on living processes, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. |
| murmur | Low-pitched fluttering or humming sound, such as a heart murmur. |
| nystagmus | Involuntary rhythmic movements of the eyes; the oscillations may be horizontal, vertical, rotary, or mixed. |
| occlusion | Blockage in a canal, vessel, or passage of the body. |
| ophthalmoscope | Instrument used to illuminate the structures of the eye for the examination of the fundus, which includes the retina, choroid, optic nerve disc, macula, fovea centralis, and retinal vessels. |
| otoscope | Instrument with a special ear speculum used to examine the deeper structures of the external and middle ear. |
| ototoxicity | Referring to the characteristic of any drug or substance that has a harmful effect on the eighth cranial nerve or the organs of hearing and balance. |
| pancreatitis | Inflammation of the pancreas. |
| Papanicolaou (Pap) test | Painless screening test for cervical cancer; specimens of squamous and columnar cells of the cervix are taken. |
| peritonitis | Inflammation of the peritoneum produced by bacteria or irritating substances introduced into the abdominal cavity by a penetrating wound or perforation of an organ in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract or the reproductive tract. |
| PERRLA | Acronym for pupils equal, round, reactive to light, accommodative; the acronym is recorded in the physical examination if eye and pupil assessments are normal. |
| petechiae | Tiny purple or red spots that appear on the skin as minute hemorrhages within dermal layers. |
| phagocytosis | Process by which certain cells, such as macrophages, engulf and dispose of microorganisms. |
| pigmentation | Organic coloring material, such as melanin, that gives color to the skin. |
| point of maximal impulse (PMI) | Anatomical point along the fourth to fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line where the heartbeat can most easily be palpated through the chest wall. |
| ptosis | Abnormal condition of one or both upper eyelids in which the eyelid droops; caused by weakness of the levator muscle or paralysis of the third cranial nerve. |
| scoliosis | Lateral spinal curvature. |
| senile keratosis | Slowly developing, localized thickening of the outer layers of the skin as a result of chronic, excessive exposure to the sun; commonly develops in older adults. |
| stenosis | Abnormal condition characterized by the constriction or narrowing of an opening or passageway in a body structure. |
| syncope | Brief lapse in consciousness caused by transient cerebral hypoxia. |
| systemic | Of or pertaining to the whole body rather than to a localized area. |
| tactile fremitus | Tremulous vibration of the chest wall during breathing that is palpable on physical examination. |
| thrill | Continuous palpable sensation, like the purring of a cat. |
| turgor | Normal resiliency of the skin caused by the outward pressure of the cells and interstitial fluid. |
| varicosities | Superficial veins that become dilated, for example, varicose veins on the lag or esophageal varicosities along the surface of the esophagus |
| ventricular gallop | Abnormal low-pitched extra heart sound (S3) heard in early diastole. |
| vocal fremitus | Vibrations created by sound waves that can be palpated externally. |
| whispered pectoriloquy | Transmission of a whisper through the pulmonary structures so that it is heard as normal audible speech on auscultation. |
| aphasia | Loss of ability to comprehend language or communicate |
| benign breast disease (fibrocystic) | Condition characterized by lumpy, sore breasts and sometimes nipple discharge. Symptoms are more apparent before the menstrual period. |
| capillary refill | The time it takes for a nail bed to return to its usual color after the blood flow has been momentarily occluded—is an indicator of peripheral circulation. |
| squamous cell carcinoma | Skin cancer that develops on outer layers of sun damaged skin; may travel to lymph nodes. |
| aerobic | Of or pertaining to the presence of air or oxygen; requiring oxygen for the maintenance of life. |
| anaerobic | Absence of oxygen. |
| asepsis | Absence of germs or microorganisms. |
| bactericidal | Destructive to bacteria. |
| bacteriostasis | State in which the development or reproduction of bacteria is suspended. |
| broad-spectrum antibiotics | Antibiotics that are effective against a wide range of infectious microorganisms. |
| carriers | Animals or persons who harbor and spread a disease-causing organism but who do not become ill. |
| communicable disease | Any disease that can be transmitted from one person or animal to another by direct or indirect contact or by vectors. |
| disinfection | Process of killing pathogenic organisms. |
| endogenous infection | Infection produced within a cell or organism. |
| exogenous infection | Infection originating outside an organ or part. |
| hand hygiene | CDC-recommended approaches for cleansing of the hands involving the use of an instant alcohol hand antiseptic before and after providing client care, hand washing with soap and water when hands are visibly soiled, or performing a surgical scrub. |
| hand washing | Vigorous, brief rubbing together of all surfaces of hands lathered in soap, followed by rinsing under a stream of water. |
| immunocompromised | Abnormal condition of the immune system in which cellular or humoral immunity is inadequate. |
| inflammatory response | Protective vascular and cellular reaction that neutralizes pathogens and repairs body cells. |
| leukocytosis | Abnormal increase in the number of circulating white blood cells. |
| medical asepsis | Procedures used to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms; also known as clean technique. |
| necrotic | Of or pertaining to the death of tissue in response to disease or injury. |
| normal flora | Microorganisms that live on or within a body to compete with disease-producing microorganisms and provide a natural immunity against certain infections. |
| pathogenicity | Ability of a pathogenic agent to produce disease. |
| sterile field | Specified area, such as within a tray or on a sterile towel, that is considered free of microorganisms. |
| suprainfection | Secondary infection usually caused by an opportunistic pathogen. |
| surgical asepsis | Procedures used to eliminate all microorganisms, including pathogens and spores, from an object or area; also known as sterile technique. |
| susceptibility | Condition of being vulnerable to a disease or disorder. |
| vector | Carrier, especially one that transmits disease. |
| virulence | The ability to produce disease. |
| health care-associated infections | A client develops an infection that was not present or incubating at the time of admission. |
| critical pathway | Tool used in managed care that incorporates the treatment interventions of caregivers from all disciplines who normally care for a client. Designed for a specific case type, a pathway is used to manage the care of a client throughout a projected length of |
| zygote | Fertilized ovum created by the joining of the mother's ovum and father's sperm. |
| case management | Model of care; the case manager advises nursing staff on specific nursing care issues, coordinates the referral of clients to services provided by other disciplines, ensures that client education has been implemented, and monitors the client's progress th |
| nosocomial infection | Infection acquired during hospitalization or during a stay in a health care facility. |
| environment | Physical circumstances in which a person works or lives; can increase the likelihood that certain illnesses will occur (e.g. some kinds of cancer and other diseases are more likely to develop when industrial workers are exposed to certain chemicals or whe |
| sterilization | Rendering a person unable to produce children; accomplished by surgical, chemical, or other means. |
| pulse deficit | Condition that exists when the radial pulse is less than the ventricular rate as auscultated at the apex or seen on an electrocardiogram; indicates a lack of peripheral perfusion for some of the heart contractions. |
| autonomy | Ability or tendency to function independently. |
| perception | Person's mental image or concept of elements in the environment, including information gained through the senses. |
| hypothermia | Abnormal lowering of body temperature below 95° F (35° C), usually caused by prolonged exposure to cold. |
| ventilation | Respiratory process by which gases are moved into and out of the lungs. |
| alopecia | Partial or complete loss of hair; baldness. |
| cardiac output | Volume of blood expelled by the ventricles of the heart; equal to the amount of blood ejected at each beat (the stroke output) multiplied by the number of beats in the period of time used in the computation. |
| caries | Abnormal condition of a tooth, characterized by decay. |
| cerumen | A yellow, waxy substance produced by sweat glands in the external ear canal. This is normal. |
| pathogen | Any microorganism capable of producing disease. |
| cyanosis | Bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood or a structural defect in hemoglobin. |
| orthopnea | Abnormal respiratory symptom in which a person must sit or stand to breathe deeply or comfortably. |
| phlebitis | Inflammation of a vein. |
| basal metabolic rate (BMR) | Amount of energy used in a unit of time by a fasting, resting subject to maintain vital functions. |
| excoriation | Injury to the skin's surface caused by abrasion. |
| hemorrhoid | Permanent dilation and engorgement of a vein within the lining of the rectum. |
| polyps | Small tumorlike growths that projects from a mucous membrane surface. |
| orthostatic hypotension | Drop in systolic blood pressure of 15 mm Hg or more when a person rises from a recumbent position to a sitting or standing position. |
| osteoporosis | Disorder characterized by abnormal rarefaction of bone, occurring most frequently in postmenopausal women, in sedentary or immobilized individuals, and in clients on long-term steroid therapy. |
| aphasia | Neurological disorder influencing the production and understanding of language. |
| diffusion | Movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. |
| malignant hyperthermia | Autosomal dominant trait characterized by often fatal hyperthermia in affected people exposed to certain anesthetic agents. |
| exudates | Fluid, cells, or other substances that have been slowly discharged from cells or blood vessels through small pores or breaks in cell membranes. |
| granulation tissue | Soft, pink, fleshy projections of tissue that form during the healing process in a wound that is not healing by primary intention. |
| purulent | Producing or containing pus. |
| sanguineous | Fluid containing red blood cells. |
| serous | A clear (like plasma) fluid that forms an exudate at the site of an inflammation. |
| dysrhythmia | Heartbeat that deviates from the normal pattern. |
| edema | Abnormal accumulation of fluid in interstitial spaces of tissues. |
| peristalsis | Coordinated, rhythmic, serial contractions of smooth muscle that force food through the digestive tract. |
| paralytic ileus | Usually temporary paralysis of intestinal wall that may occur after abdominal surgery or peritoneal injury and that causes cessation of peristalsis; leads to abdominal distention and symptoms of obstruction. |
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ultraRNner
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