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3S071 Edition 1
3S071
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which office is responsible for providing Admin support to DSC/A1 by managing workflow and tracking correspondence and moitoring security and safty programs, managing personnel programs and maintaing unit level records? | AF/A1Z |
| Which office does AF/A1 Communicate ne AF manpower requirements to? | AF/A1M |
| AF/A1 utilizes the directorate of force management policy, AF/A1P, to communicate all of the following except | Developing programs that help commanders meet their Amn's needs. |
| Which office serves as the program for AF/A1 IT planning, programming, and development? | AF/A1X |
| Which term provides independent analytical support directly to AF/A1 on all issues affecting AF member and their families? | AF/A1I |
| Which office defines the culture of AMN, including core standards and values and expections? | AF/A1D |
| As of December 2000, how many MAJCOMS are there? | 9 |
| Which field operating agency is responsible for determining requirments in order to excute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting AF CONOPS? | AF Manpower Agency (AFMA) |
| HQ AFPC integrates and executes personnel operations to develop AF people and | Meet filed commander requirments |
| When HQ AFPC needs to communitate with the rest of the AF, how many directorates do they have to choose from? | 7 |
| When AF/A1 is looking for FOA that measures and manages the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capitol through an effective performance management system, they contact | Air Force Personnel Operations Agency ( AFPOA) |
| When HQ AFPC requires help updating new UTC's and posturing, which directorate assists? | Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations |
| When HQ AFPC requires helps to faciliate the professional develope of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of Col, Which directorate assists? | Assignments |
| for assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future AF Leaders, the HQ AFPC contact the directorate of | Civilian Force Integration |
| Which directorate assists HQ AFPC with developing guidence , procedures and training for AD, Guard, Reserve, and civilian personnel accountability? | Force operations |
| When HQ AFPC requires help with IT, which directorate assists? | Personnel Data Systems |
| The AEFC is a direct reporting unit assigned under | HQ AFPC |
| Why did the AEFC move from Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, TX? | To bring two centers together in order to focus on operationalizing personnel by merging permanent authorization, wartime requirments and assignments under a single commander |
| AFRC's mission is to provide citizen AMN to defend the US and protect it's interests through | Air and Space power |
| How many officer and enlisted personnel, who serve 37 flying wings, does AFRC have | 74,000 |
| The AFRC vision is | citizen AMN fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. |
| How many aircraft does the AFRC have assigned to it? | 440 |
| in Aug 2005 Hurricane Katrina, one of the most devastating hurricances of all time, hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast, Which agency was activated to help with the natural diaster? | Air National Guard Bureau |
| During peacetime, the ANG combat-ready and support units are assigned to the AF MAJCOMS to carry out missions compatible with | training, mobilization readiness, and contingency operations |
| When the ANG unit are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the | Governor |
| If you were providing guidence to an enlisted retraining customer and the customer asked about the duties and responsibilties of a specific AFSC what reference would you refer? | Air Force Enlisted classification directory (AFECD) |
| The duties ans responsibilities of the craftsman and the superintendent include all the following except | Advise civilians on civilain personnel issues and programs. |
| You have just been notified that you will be working as a MSgt superintendent (9-level) over a section, and you will supervise two TSgt craftsman and four SSgt craftsman. What reference will tell you how their duties and responsibiliteies differ? | Air force Enlisted Classification directory (AFECD) |
| The duties of the superintendent include all of the following execept | perform dormitory checks |
| The wide scope of the work activities and functions that the superintendent is responsible for include all of the following execept | control |
| Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or TDY, in the 623A | If the trainee is having difficulty with upgrade training, the documentation can be referenced. |
| If a trainee completes CDCs, are signed off on all core task, have completed 15 months in UGT recommended by supervisor and approved by CC trainee is working towards? | Journeyman |
| All of the following are the trainees responsibilities in UGT process except? | Develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) |
| Within how many days of AD trainees initial assignment should a supervisor conduct and document an initial evaluation of trainees qualification? | 60 |
| When granting an individual access to classified information why is it important to use the SF 312, Classified information Nondisclosure Agreement (NDA) | To ensure that you have a source document signed and dated by the individual that reflects the date when attestation was completed. |
| When confirming a person's level of access to classified information, why is it imperative to complete the four-step process? | Because each step in an intricate piece of the "checks and balance" process |
| When dealing with classified material why is it important to develop and implement control measures? | To help decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. |
| What is the disposition of the Nondisclosure agreement and why is it so important the NdA be mailed off to the appropriate agency? | 50-year disposition date and it may need to be referred to again, |
| When communicating a message , why is it important to have success with your audience? | So they will pay attention long enough to receive and understand the message that you are sending. |
| Why is important to fight for feedback in effective communication? | So the coordination process becomes much smoother and you get a second pair of eyes to review the communication. |
| What would happen if an individual brought reenlistment paperwork into the reenlistment clerk and the clerk did not update MilPDS? | The reenlistment would not be updated, no DJMS action would be produced, no update would flow to finance, and the individuals pay would stop. |
| When performing the E6C update DJMS, if the individual is in T status, why is it important to correct the status A status before update? | The update will produce a reject at DFAS. |
| Which office is responsible to update the reenlistment and extension DJMS transaction? | Reenlistment's |
| What is E63 update used for? | To update a reenlistment or extension to DFAS. |
| If a new MPS CC looks at the MPS's file monitor TR and sees an excessive amount of data in overdue status, what can he/she conclude? | The MPS CC did not complete their updates in a timely manner. |
| A Transaction register (TR) is a standard product designed and controlled by HQ | AFPC |
| The Transaction registers (TR)are pro grammatically controlled and produced | daily |
| If an individual is showing up on the MAP2-Enhancement-HYT, What conclusion can we make? | Individual is within 1year of their HYT and their reenlistment code does not reflect the correct code. |
| If an individual contacts customer service stating that they have not been assigned a sponsor, their name should be reflected on MAP | 7A |
| If an Individual is inquiring about reenlisting, and the reenlistment clerk checks MILPDS and finds that the individual is not eligible b/c they are not a US citizen, The customer service clerk checks MAP | 27 |
| If LT smith walks into your office and asks a question, but you cannot locate his record in MILDPDS, what could this mean? | That he is a AFROTC accession, and his personnel record has not been built yet. |
| If a member is projected to PCS and receives a demotion, what MPA can the Career Development Section use in order to ensure database integrity? | MAP 6 |
| All of the following are basic instruments of national power except | Strategic |
| American Military power plays a vital role in all of the following except | Politics |
| Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the | Secretary of Defense |
| All of the following are examples of planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans and operational orders except | reconstitution |
| The total force is represented by | Active duty, Guard and Reserves |
| The National Guard is a very important component of the total force in | Offensive, Defensive, and relief operations |
| Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the | 1920's and 30s |
| The Reserves bring what three things to the Military environment from their civilian employment | Talent, depth, and experience |
| All of the following are wartime responsibilities of the personnel craftsman except | personnel briefings |
| Which activity is responsible for maintaining accurate strength data on personnel resources? | Personnel accountability |
| What is the name of the document that reflects all the positions for a TDY location | Deployed requirement manning document |
| If a member's legal, fiscal, and morale, and informational needs are being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling? | Personal support |
| In order to meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the air and space expeditionary force concept was designed to do all of the following except | manage |
| The AF organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces? | 10 |
| The goal of the Air and Space expeditionary force (AEF) concept is to | equitably align available AF UTCs across 10 AEFs so each posses equal capabilities. |
| Where the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force is responsible for sustaining all bases operating and support functions, it will normally organize as an | Air and expeditionary Wing |
| Which group in the Air and space expeditionary force construct may be formed to conduct mission that do not involve flying operations? | Air and Space Expeditionary group |
| Once an Amn arrives at a base, they are required to report to the | Military Personnel element/Military personnel flight |
| AEF alignment is alignment is documented in the MILPDS and each Airman is issued a/an | AEF identification card |
| The AEF construct was designed where Airman should not have to deploy more than once every | 20 months |
| What is the basic buliding block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task force? | Unit type code |
| Planners use unit type code to document total funded manpower and fund logistics requiremtns needed to support the | National military strategy during contingency, cris action, and rotatioal planning. |
| The AF has origanized its total force into 10 Air and Space expeditionary forces and | one enable force |
| Deviations the Air and space Expeditionary force cintruct may be implemented on a case by case basis woth whose approval? | Chief of Staff |
| The concept of mobilization is associated with "calling up" Reserve comonent forces. | Increase military capability |
| The concept of mobilization can be assoicated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve component forces from | peacetime to wartime posture |
| If the President or Congresss would expand the active armed forces not to exceed 1,000,000 forces for not more than 24 consective months, they would elect what type of mobilization? | Partial |
| If a planner needed to review a directive that contained general polices and guidence concerning mobilization planning and the support of combatant commands in the war, which directive would that be? | War and Mobilization Plan Voulme 1 (WMP-1) |
| If a war planner needs to document total AF manpower and logistics requirements needed to support the national military strategy during operational planning and executuion activities, what will they use? | Unit Type code |
| All of the following are mobilizations principles except | Securing resources |
| In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using the | Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the dd Form 214 and the paid travel voucher. |
| If actvated personnel experience personal, finacial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, earlly deactivation, or demobilization, what action can they take? | Request retention on AD |
| When a member is interested in requesting retention on AD for hardship reason, the application process must be submitted at least how many days before the established deactivation or demobilization date? | 15 |
| Once the military processing flight receives the hardship package, reviews | Three Duty days |
| Days that are allocated , or put to the side, for use by the AF Reserve and Air National Gurad officers, NCO's and Amn are commonly referred to as | Miltary personnel appropriation man days |
| MPA man days support short term needs of the active duty force by authorizing no more than | 139 days annually |
| Air Reserve component member on a man-day tour will comply with the dress and appearance standards of the | Active force |
| Man-day tour usually include how many travel days? | one day maximum |
| Durning a natural diasters or national emergencies, the ability tio quickley assess the status of AF Amn, Department of the AF, nonappropriated funds civilians, and civilians, and families is criical to resuming normal | Accountability |
| Whose responsibility is it to ensure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forward to the installation command post? | The commander |
| All of the following day-to-day readiness responsibilities listed below belong to the personnel readiness function except | Installation deployment plan overview |
| The personnel readiness function provides all of the following PERSCO team training except | Training on the reclama/shortfall process |
| The personnel readiness function serves as the military personnel flight/military personnel section war planner for all of the following except | Assignment limitation codes |
| In order to determine in manpower personnel base-level operations is working a real world deployment or an exercise, what should the personnel readiness function do? | Hook up, plug in, and turn on the personnel system. |
| Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingeny operations team? | Force Support Squadron |
| During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contigency operations team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section within the timelines outlined in the | designed operations capability response time |
| During the planning phase, what predeployment action is the most important? | Training |
| It is imperative the personnel support for contigency operation team maintain a hard copy of the accountability file b/c | Electronic information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction, operator error, sabotage, damage, environment, or loss of power. |
| If a reception control center has not been establish, whose responsibility is it to coordinate with all of the deployed support agencies involved in the processing of personnel? | The personnel support for Contengency operations team. |
| The sustainment phase is | A trasition phase from a build up or surge phase, where the majority of the man operating for has arrived and completed in processing actions. |
| Who's responsibility is it to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian, or a 3AoA1 and a UIF monitor? | Commander |
| Once a UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has how many days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor? | 30 |
| How many days does an active duty memeber(enlist/oficer)have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decison? | 3 Duty days |
| Which element in the Military personnel section is responsible for filing any statements or documents by the individual in the UIF? | Customer support element |
| All of the following are Customer Support Element responsibilities wxcept | Administer UIF documentation to individual |
| What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adves action | G |
| What assignment availability codes are associated with adverse actions? | 12 and 16 |
| After updating a UIF/control roster, what is /are the output product/s that you will receive? | TR's reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates |
| If a commander wishes to initate removal actions from the control roster, which AD IMT form must he/she utilize? | 1058 |
| Who's responsibility is it to ensure the casualty representative has a private offoce for counseling the next of kin? | Military personnel Section Commander |
| It is the responsibility o fthe casualty representative to prepare written instruction to supplement AFI 36-3002, outlining the responsibilities of all listed below except | Force support Superintendent |
| Once casuality representative (CAR) notifies the family member if casualties, the CAR provides the mortuary services officers and the PA office the member | Name, age, home of record, and race |
| Id a family member dies, the casualty, who is the firt group of people te casualty representative will contact you? | Casualty team |
| All of the following are publications that apply to releasing information on AF casualties except | AFI 36-3002, Casualty services |
| How many hours must casualty represetive wait until releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public? | 24 |
| In the case of a peacetime casualty, if a casualty is an AF member, the notification officer must confirm completed notification with what two agencies before MPS commander release the names of the casualty? | The servicing CAR abd HQ AFPC/DPFCS |
| For ill or injured casualties all of the following information may be released except | Social Security number |
| For decesed casualties all of the following personal information may be release except | Any information on the members family |
| After the CAR learns of a casuality, they complete the necessary reports and they contact HQ AFPC casualty section. Next, the CAR needs to fax what document on the military member/s? | DD form 93, SGLV 8286, DD form 4, and any other VA forms related to SGLI |
| If a permanent party memner has a permanent change of station, what system do they use to outprocess? | Defense integrated military human resource system |
| When the career Developemnt element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, how many days do they have to verify the member s eligibility? | 7 |
| Once the Career Development element verfies the member eligibility for an assignment, who do they send the assignment rip to? | Superintendent of the Career Developement Element |
| Once the unit commander receives the assignment rip on a member. how many days does he/she have before the rip is required to be back at the Carrer Developement | 14 |
| The following documents are located in the relocation folder except | decoration citation |
| Where is the AF IMT 907 kept? | In the relocation folder |
| Which AF IMT form is used to contact an active duty service commitment? | 63 |
| If a member's assigment requires a higher or more current security clearance on file, What does the Career Developement element forward to the members commander | Security requirments memorandums |
| Enlisted and officers are required to attend weapons training when they are selected for an assignment | overseas |
| If a member requires a passport and/or visa, the Career Development element will advise the member to start processing their passports and/or visa no later than how many days after their initial briefing? | 15 |
| Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element will publish PCS orders not later than how many days prior to departure? | 60 |
| If a member is PCSing to a stateside assignment, he/she can out process no earliers than | 1 Duty day prior to departure date |
| What is the name of the system the Career Development element utilizes to manage training rips? | Oracle training adminstrative |
| If a member is going contingency TDY, which element will handle their outprocessing relocation procedures? | Personnel Readiness |
| If your are looking for the source of record for all AF PME and formal training, what system would use? | Oracle training adminstration |
| If the formal training office is located outside of the Career Development element, which agency is reponsible for the overall management of the training line number? | Career Developement element |
| To ensure training quitas are managed effectively the formal training section is responsible to ensure all of the following except | Indiciduals are qualified regardless of active duty service commitment |
| What is the purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application | Eliminates the delay of notification |
| Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure /link on the AF portal website to query enlisted promotions results by name | Name, MAJCOM, unit , line number, AFSC, PAS Code, and state /country |
| The career Development element at the MPS will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local media cintaining all if the following except | name and rank of the board president |
| Which element/function identifies all assigned officers and verfies the eligibility status for promotion? | Career Development Element |
| which mission personnel section element manages the unit personnel management document? | Forcer management |
| What AFI, AFMAN, or computer systems manual will the Force Development operations element utilize to update an active duty arrival? | AFCSM 36-399 |
| The unit manning document provides all of th efollowing except authorized positions a unit is allowed to | share with other units |
| When units identify mistakes or needed changed to the positions on their UDM, who will they work with to get the changes completed? | Functional area manager |
| PRESTEMPO data is reported all of the following except | The installation commander |
| If you are lookinh for a system to initiate duty status change application for confinement absent with leave , and deserter, what system would you use? | Case Management system |
| Which element/function updates the suty status for all contigency TDYs? | _Personnel Readiness Function |
| Once a duty statys application has been entered, which agency is the first ti review the duty status chance application | TFSC |
| Local emergencies or overages may be the basis for an airman's prolonged assignment outside of the normal career progression patteren. to negate any career regression, assignments should be rotated between | All Amn in the same CAFSC |
| Amn are not used outside their CAFSC if they have an assignment limitation code | O |
| For personnel assigned to a crital personnel reliability program, position, all of these attributes apply except | has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors |
| Who will the eviewing official work with if theu need to review medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program to determine disqualifying conditions? | Competent medical authority |
| When a certifying official is conducting a personal interview and members of the personnel relianility program , the interview will cover, as minimum all of the following except | inquire about their marital status, where they were married, and on what date they were married |
| What is the main objective of supervisors monitoring their suoervisees in regards to the personnel reliabilty program ? | Monitor the reliability and notify the certifying offical of any potentially disqualifuing information. |
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