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pharm car crash
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Food,drug,and cosmetic act of 1938 prevented which of the following actions | sale of drugs that had not been thoroughly tested |
| In the drug approval process what is the purpose of the postmarketing surveillance stage | survey for harmful effects in a lg human population |
| Why is a drug classified as a scheduled drug | the drug can cause dependency |
| which schedule classification has the highest potential for abuse | schedule 1 |
| which pt would be appropriate for rectal administration | (all the above) unconscious pt, pt experiencing n/v, infant who can't swallow pills |
| Which drug delivery method is always affected by the first pass effect in liver | oral |
| which is true about physical properties of drugs | drugs with lipid properties mix well with components of cellular membranes |
| which is true regarding the half life of a med | the greater the half life the longer the drug takes to be excreted |
| when a drug is highly bound to protein complexes what is the effect on the pt | drugs bound to protein are not available for distribution to body tissues |
| what occurs when drug molecules bind with cell receptors | pharmacologic effects of agonism or antagonism occur |
| which statement best describes antagonists | the inhibit or block the action of agonist drugs |
| what is an idiosyncratic reaction | unpredictable and unexplained drug reaction |
| which drug category poses greatest risk to fetus | category x |
| why is it important for the nurse to know about prototype drugs | they represent the drug of choice for a particular disorder |
| what step of nursing process is being implemented when measuring vs, checking incision, and monitoring pain | assessment |
| when interacting with physical therapy to coordinate a pt plan of care what step of nursing process are you using | planning |
| what term describes how much of a drug is available to produce a biologic response | bioavailability |
| pt with liver disorders would most likely have problems with which pharmakinetic phase | metabolism |
| what is a drug side effect | an undesirable response to a drug |
| a therapeutic index | is the safe and effective range of a drug |
| half life describes | length of time needed for half of a drug dose to be metabolized |
| the first pass through the liver | (a and b) changes a prodrug into an active form ,inactivates most of a drug before it reaches the cell |
| the student nurse is correct in saying that an agonist | causes something to happen inside of a cell |
| what are receptor sites | areas on cell membranes that react with drugs |
| absorption of a drug taken orally can be affected by | acidity of gastric juices (pH) |
| if a drug is excreted in the urine what points should be included in nurses assessment of pt | pt renal function tests |
| what might indicate an allergic response | rash |
| what is a true statement regarding the half life of a medication | the greater the half life the longer the drug takes to be excreted |
| best response if a pt asks the difference b/t trade and generic tylenol | acetaminophen is the generic form of tylenol and is just as effective as the brand/trade name drug |
| nursing diagnosis related to bleeding for a pt with cirrhosis of the liver which explains etiology for potential problem | inability of the liver to produce essential clotting factors |
| priority outcome when caring for pt on anticoagulant therapy | prevent injury due to bleeding |
| when monitoring pt on warfarin therapy the INR is 7 after notifying physician the nurse would anticipate which order | administer vit k and withhold further coumadin until labwork repeates |
| which med is likely to be utilized to prevent thrombus formation in pt with PVD | pentoxifylline (trental) |
| which nursing actions should be utilized to when administering lovenox to a postop pt | administer med in the abdomen using a subcut technique |
| which order should the nurse question regarding pt who is placed on initial heparin therapy for tx of DVT | Heparin 5,000 units IM bid (heparin is never administered IM) |
| pt is being discharged on coumadin which pt behavior indicates additional teaching is needed | pt veralizes that he should limit the use of ASA for joint complaints |
| which food should be limited when taking coumadin b/c of drug food interactions | broccoli (green leafy veg contain vit k which antagonizes warfarin) |
| epogen (epoetin alfa) would be drug of choice for | tx of anemia associated with renal failure |
| nurse anticipates an increase in coumadin related to which lab value | INR 0.5 |
| which indicates additional teaching is needed for pt being tx for pernicious anemia (select all that apply) | I will take iron pills to help correct this problem; I will take folic acid to prevent furhter deficiencies |
| which is true about B12 therapy (select all that apply) | assessment of serum potassium levels will be needed; pt may experience itching and rash |
| which would be expected during course of therapy for iron deficiency anemia | constipation |
| which pt would be at risk for developing folic acid anemia | pt with hx alcoholism |
| when giving ferrous sulfate to a child the nurse knows | (all the above) excess iron can be toxic; med should be kept out of reach; liquid prep should be adm with straw to avoid staining of teeth |
| when assessing pt on anticoagulant therapy nurse observes tea colored urine the nurse knows that this | may indicate hematuria |
| heparin acts to prevent conversion of prothombin to thrombin. heparin effects are reversed with adm of what | protamine sulfate |
| in hrs following tx with fibrolytic (activase) appropriate nursing interventions include everything EXCEPT | monitor liver enzymes: (nurse would monitor vs,assess for reperfusion of dysrythmias, observe s/s of bleeding) |
| primary action of antifibrinolytics such as amicar includes | promoting formation of blood clots (drugs prevent breakdown of fibrin then allows clots to form) |
| what method is used when adm iron dextran IM | z-track method; LONGER NEEDLE - DEEP INTO MUSCLE - CAN'T FIND THE CORRECT ANS SORRY KG |
| when evaluating pt taking an anticoagulant assess for what | ecchymotic areas |
| pt with cancer is receiving epogen nurse evaluates effectiveness by | monitoring hematocrit and hemoglobin level |
| nursing care plan for pt receiving procrit should include careful monitoring of what symptoms | severe hypotension |
| pt receiving heparin therapy ask how the blood thinner works nurses response would be | heparin does not thin blood but prevents platelets from clumping |
| antagonist that may be administered if serious hemorrhage occurs during warfarin therapy | vit k |
| all statements regarding iron prep are true EXCEPT | iron should be adm with food to enhance absorption; (true:iron may turn stools black, pt must receive test dose before adm IV, iron may cause N,V, constipation) |
| primary advantage of using LMWH over heparin | LMWH produce a more stable effect on coagulation thus fewer lab tests are needed |
| if paroxetine displaces warfarin from binding sites which will most likely occur | toxicity to warfarin |
| order: heparin 5000 units sc bid on hand: heparin 20,000 units/ml how many ml would you adm | 0.25 ml |
| coumadin 7.5mg po daily is ordered. on hand: coumadin 2.5mg tabs how many tabs will you adm | 3 tabs |
| pt receiving quinidine should be monitored for what | dysrhythmias and edema |
| which would be included in care plan for pt taking quinidine sulfate | obtain prn order for antidiarrheal prior to initiation of therapy |
| which nursing intervention is appropriate prior to initiation of amiodarone therapy | ask pt when he last ate |
| which should be included in teaching for pt taking potassium channel blocker for tx of dysrhythmias | regular eye exams are needed while taking this med |
| which pt taking propranolol should be monitored closely for adverse reactions | pt with hx of asthma |
| which statement is true regarding the etiology of dysrhythmias | atrial fibrillation is most common dysrhythmia |
| pt comes it er with severe chest pain that occurred at rest and has lasted 30 min. and didn't respond to meds what describes pt present medical status | unstable angina |
| what would reflect a positive outcome for pt being treated for angina pectoris | reduction of cardiac workload |
| pt receiving topical nitrates for angina has b/p of 90/60 prior to adm what intervention should be taken | check pt chart for baseline b/p and determine if b/p is in normal perameters for pt if so adm med |
| If on phone with a pt that is at home having angina and pt has already taken 3 doses of nitro what is appropriate action | call ems |
| which should be included in plan of care for pt receiving therapy with beta blocker for angina | assess pulse and b/p prior to adm |
| what is atenolol | selective beta 1 adrenergic blocker |
| what is potential side effect of calcium channel blocker | edema |
| what should nurse report to physician when pt receiving thrombolytic therapy | nosebleeds |
| how would you explain good and bad cholesterol to pt with hyperlipidemia | that cholesterol synthesis normally occurs in body and good is heart friendly bad correlates with risk for heart disease |
| which indicates additional teaching is needed for pt attempting to lower cholesterol | i will take simvastatin in morning with coffee |
| when is most appropriate time to adm an antilipidemic agent | evening |
| which best explains relationship b/t niacin and cholesterol levels | in order to be effective large doses of niacin are required to help decrease cholesterol levels |
| which should be taken into consideration when adm cholestyramine (questran) | med should not be given at same time as other meds |
| why would pt receive 2 antilipidemia meds to lower cholesterol | meds work together to maintain a serum therapeutic level |
| which is an inaccurate statement regarding the use of statin therapy to lower cholesterol | statin therapy cures hypercholesterolemia |
| example of calcium channel blocker | diltiazem (cardizem) |
| an adverse reaction of nitroglycerin | headache |
| which is a beta adrenergic blocker | propranolol (inderal) |
| which sodium channel blocker may be utilized to treat dysrhythmias as well as a local anesthetic | lidocaine (xylocaine) |
| what is the most appropriate nursing dx for 80 yr old that c/o blurred vision an nausea that is taking digoxin and hctz | ineffective tissue perfusion related to dig toxicity |
| pt is hypokalemic he has been taking a thiazide med for tx of hypertension nurse will instruct pt to increase dietary intake of | bananas and citrus fruit |
| which nitrate compound is used therapeutically to abort acute attacks of angina pectoris | nitroglycerin |
| if signs of dig toxicity occur what should nurse do | withhold next dose of med and contact physician |
| physician ordered dopamine IV for a pt in shock initial rate of infusion is ordered as | micrograms per kilogram per minute |
| pt is receiving dopamine the IV extravasates into subcut tissue the nurse should (select all that apply) | stop infusion, notify physician and get order for antidote |
| pt describes a halo around table light and c/o things looking yellow these are signs of what | dig toxicity |
| what assessment is critical when evaluating response to meds for pt with hypovolemic shock | B/P |
| pt has shock following a miscarriage she is receiving vasoconstrictive med and requires vs every 15 min which room is best | admit to icu |
| pt teaching for newly dx hypertensive pt would include | recommendation to lose 10 pounds |
| which pt statement indicates additional teaching is needed regarding hypertension | since I am taking meds there will be no further restrictions on fluid or salt |
| which pt is most likely to begin hypertensive therapy | 38 yr old with BP 150/90 on two office visits |
| which med could be etiology for dx of hypokalemia | furosemide (lasix) |
| which would nurse include in teaching for pt beginning ACE inhibitor | report any cough that develops while on this med |
| which pt statement indicates additional teaching is needed for pt on lisinopril | it may take some time for med to take effect anywhere from wks to months |
| which electrolyte imbalances should nurse monitor for in pt who is taking furosemide (lasix) and digoxin together | hypokalemia and hypocalcemia |
| genetic group that does not respond well to beta blockers or ACE inhibitors | african americans |
| generic names for ACE inhibitors end in | pril |
| what drugs may be prescribed to alleviate side effect of fluid retention from calcium channel blockers | diuretics |
| what drug interactions could occur if a pt takes captopril with a nitrate, diuretic, or adrenergic blocker | hypotensive reaction |
| pt states she wishes to stop taking captopril how would nurse respond | captopril is controlling BP and should not be stopped until you discuss with physician |
| heparin can be adm via what routes | IV and subcut |
| vaopressors that does not constrict renal vessels and is effective in increasing BP during shock | dopamine (intropin) |
| example of loop diuretic | furosemide (lasix) |
| pt is on two antihypertensive drugs nurse know that the advantage of combination therapy is | fewer side effects and greater pt compliance |
| most of the drugs used to raise BP in pt with shock do what | activate sympathetic nervous system |
| first line drugs for treating mild to moderate hypertension b/c they act on kidney tubule to block reabsorption of sodium | diuretics |
| what drugs can cause hypoglycemia with no S/S | beta blocker |
| which group of drugs can cause a decrease in libido | beta blockers |
| what drug is sometimes added to local anesthesia to lengthen duration of action of anesthetic | epinephrine |
| how do local anesthetics work | by blocking sodium calcium channels |
| pt is having major surgery tomorrow nurse knows pt understands preop teaching by what statement | I will lose consciousness movement and memory |
| the nurse knows that the only depolarizing blocker is succinylcholine (anectine) which works by binding acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions causing | total skeletal muscle relaxation |
| which statement by pt indicates an understanding of teaching for asa | I will check with my physician before taking any OTC meds |
| what must be assessed prior to administering a narcotic | quality, intensity, location, and duration of pain |
| when teaching a pt proper procedure for taking an ER med the nurse knows teaching is effective when pt states | b/c these are ER tabs I must swallow them whole |
| pt is receiving morphine every 4h for pain when nurse obtains vs they are 120/80 P80 R10 whats nurses first action | withhold med |
| what is the antidote for morphine overdose | narcan |
| what would the nurse be concerned about when a pt is taking tylenol | severe upper or lower abdominal pain (this is an indication of hepatotoxicity) |
| what med should be readily available for a pt who has a morphine PCA | narcan |
| to decrease possibility of a HA after spinal anesthesia nurse instructs pt to | lie flat in bed (reduces leakage of csf into surrounding tissue) |
| pt severely sprained her ankle in determining how much med should be taken to reduce symptoms the nurse explains that | scheduled doses of NSAIDS may be necessary to achieve anti-inflammatory response |
| pain that lasts longer than 6 mths is called | chronic pain |
| a common side effect of NSAID therapy is | GI distress |
| contraindications of NSAIDS include | bleeding disorders (nsaids can interfere with blood clotting) |
| severe acute pain is best treated with what | morphine sulfate |
| which is NOT necessary to include in an assessment before giving an opioid analgesic | blood clotting times |
| anticholinergics are administered prior to surgery for purpose of | decreasing secretions |
| advantage of balanced anesthesia includes | reduced doseages of drugs are needed to maintain desired state of anesthesia |
| which stage of general anesthesia is termed surgical anethesia b/c it is the stage in which most surgery occurs | stage 3 |
| which paraympathomimetic is sometimes administered to stimulate smooth muscle of the bowel and urinary tract after surgery | bethanechol (urecholine) |
| what should be assessed prior to administering an opioid | respirations |
| epidural anesthesia is often used in surgical situations the nurse knows this is safe b/c | the needle is inserted below the level of the spinal cord |
| when providing pt teaching about receiving local anesthesia the nurse tells the pt that the sensations which will be blocked include | pain, cold, warmth, touch |
| as part of an oral endoscopy an anesthetic is sprayed onto the oropharynx the nurse will include which info as part of post procedure | do not eat or drink anything for at least one hour after the procedure |
| if pt has had a severe allergic reaction to novacaine the nurse knows that the pt may also have a cross sensitivity to | lidocaine |
| purpose of balanced anethesia is to produce | amnesia, hypnosis, relaxation, analgesia, loss of reflexes |
| major routes for applying local anesthetics include | spinal, epidural, topical |
| Mr. Eads is recovering from bronchitis. He is producing large amounts of thick mucus, especially in the mornings. The nurse would? | administer the PRN expectorant and tell the patient to force fluids.these measures will thin the secretions so they can be coughed out. |
| Ms. Hanks is experiencing severe headache and pressure over her eyes. She feels congested. She has no temperature elevation or any other sign of infection. The nurse would administer the PRN? | decongestant., this will shrink the patient's swollen mucous membranes. |
| An important concept to teach patients who take expectorants, antitussives, decongestants, or bronchodilators is that? | these preparations frequently cause serious adverse effects and the patient should not take them without consulting a physician. OTC meds are generally safe, and do not cause adverse effects unless they are mis-used. |
| Intranasal steroids are used when? | allergy is suspected. |
| Marilyn has recently recovered from pneumonia. She discovers that she now wheezes when she goes jogging in the morning. Appropriate nursing education for her would be? | use her PRN oral bronchodilator before running. |
| Antitussive agents are used to? | relieve coughing. |
| Which of the following causes histamine release? | Mast cells. |
| Which of the following local corticosteroids is administered intranasally? | fluticasone propionate (Flonase). |
| Antihistamines should be used with caution in patients with? | asthma. |
| Antitussives are useful in blocking the cough reflex and preserving the energy associated with prolonged, non-productive coughing. Antitussives are best used with? | patients with a dry irritating cough.It is safe to suppress a dry cough . |
| Overuse of oxymetazoline hydrochloride (Afrin) could result in? | rebound congestion. |
| The use of an oral nasal decongestant such as pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) is contraindicated in clients with? | hyperthyroidism, diabetes mellitus, prostate hypertrophy. |
| A second generation antihistamine that is less sedating than most is? | cetirizine (Zyrtec). |
| Patients with swollen nasal passages who use intranasal steroid products might be advised to? | use a decongestant prior to administration of the steroid product. |
| All the following are true re the admin of aminophylline IVroute except:IV infusion pump should be used,Rate shud b atleast 10ml/min, Clients shud b monitored closely for tachycardia,Aminophylline should be used with caution in children and elders? | The rate should be at least 10 ml/min. |
| Which of the following is classified as a leukotriene receptor antagonist? | montelukast (Singulair). |
| Mrs. Green has the nursing diagnosis of "Gas exchange, impaired related to disease process" Upon evaluation, which of these outcomes would indicate successful resolution? | Client's oxygen saturation > 90 %the only way to objectively assess gas exchange is to measure the amount of gas in the blood stream. |
| Marcia Longhorn is experiencing an exacerbation of COPD. Which of the following meds may complicate her condition? | propranolol (Inderal). |
| The nurse is aware that albuterol (Proventil) is Inhibits release of histamine from mast cells,is a bronchodilator, is best used in the treatment of an acute asthma attack, produces a parasympathetic effect? | is a bronchodilator,is best used in the treatment of an acute asthma attack. |
| Aminophylline relieves dyspnea by? | relaxing the smooth muscles of the bronchioles thereby producing bronchodilator. |
| Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) can best be described as a? | Mucolytic agent. |
| Which of the following is a xanthine bronchodilator? | theophylline (Elixophyllin). |
| Your patient, Sally Kling has both an inhaled bronchodilator and an inhaled steroid ordered. How will the nurse go about administering the meds? | Administer the bronchodilator first.this will dilate the airways so that the steroid can be administered more efficiently. |
| Persons lacking coordination between hand and inhalation, but who must inhale medications, may benefit from the use of a (an)? | we knew it as a spacer, she put Extender device. Reminds me of a song from Journey HEAD GAMES! |
| Your client mentions that he has been using a decongestant nose spray for the last two days. What precautions should you give him? | Stop the medication after one more day. |
| A patient taking an OTC cold medication and an OTC allergy medicine is found to be taking double doses of pseudoephedrine. As a result, the patient might exhibit? | restlessness, tremors.this med is a sympathomimetic . |
| Treatment of obstructive pulmonary disorders is aimed at? | opening the conducting airways through muscular bronchodilator. |
| A patient with many adverse reactions to drugs is tried on an inhaled steroid for treatment of bronchospasm. For the first 3 days, the patient does not notice any improvement. The nurse should? | Encourage the patient to continue the drug for 2 to 3 weeks |
| Clients who are using inhalers require careful teaching about which of the following? | The difference between rescue treatments and prophylaxis. Only a few inhalers are helpful in a breathing emergency. |
| The most serious side effect of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ, Bactrim)is ? | bone marrow depression |
| A "culture" is helpful in prescribing antibiotic agents because? | it identifies the causative organism. |
| Mrs. Alpha took Keflex 500 mg 4x a day for 7 days. She c/o vaginal itching with excessive vaginal discharge. You would suspect that the reason is? | a superinfection. |
| When preparing to administer an injection of penicillin the patient comments, "I was allergic to penicillin once." Which of the following would be appropriate nursing action? | Withhold the injection and contact the prescriber. |
| When teaching the patient regarding the prescribed anti-tubercular drug, the nurse should tell the patient? | that medications will be necessary for several months. |
| When explaining the drug regimen to a patient who will be taking chloroquine for the prevention of malaria, the nurse instructs the patient? | to begin taking the drug two weeks before exposure. |
| An antibiotic with a high degree of activity against many organisms would be called? | broad-spectrum. |
| The sulfonamides are used chiefly to? | treat urinary tract infections. |
| Which of the following symptoms would lead a nurse to suspect an allergic reaction to an antibiotic? | Generalized rash on extremities. |
| Penicillinase is? | an enzyme which destroys penicillin. |
| A "sensitivity" is necessary because? | it tells which agent will kill the organism. |
| Bacterial superinfections are often seen in the? | bowel. |
| Bacteriostatic drugs? | prevent bacterial growth allowing the host to build his own defenses. |
| If a patient is allergic to penicillin, there is a possibility s/he will also be allergic to? | cephalosporins. |
| To slow bacterial resistance to anti-tubercular drugs the physician prescribes? | two or more drugs, even for initial therapy. |
| A photosensitivity reaction may be seen during use of many antibiotics and is manifested by a(n)? | exaggerated sunburn reaction after brief exposure to sunlight. |
| Adverse effects of acyclovir (Zovirax) the nurse needs to assess for include? | increased serum creatinine and BUN. |
| In order for an antibiotic to be effective? | adequate blood levels of the drug must be maintained. |
| Antibiotic drugs which kill or actively destroy bacteria are called? | bactericidal |
| Which of the following is unlikely to result from administration of aminoglycosides? | Cardiac arrhythmias. |
| The patient receiving a sulfonamide is encouraged to? | increase his fluid intake to 2000 or more ml per day. |
| Which of the following may indicate the patient is responding to antibiotic therapy? | a decrease in the amount of wound drainage. |
| Ototoxicity may occur with the use of some antibiotics. Symptoms of this adverse reaction include? | tinnitus, mild to severe hearing loss. |
| If a patient is allergic to one drug and there is an increased possibility s/he will be allergic to another type or group of drugs, is called? | cross-sensitivity. |
| With regard to tetracycline, the nurse knows that it? | will often cause a super infection. |
| A disadvantage in the use of penicillin is? | multiple and frequent allergic reactions. |
| In a patient with genital herpes, an expected outcome after the administration of acyclovir (Zovirax) would be? | prevention of outbreaks. |
| evaluate a patient's response to antibiotic therapy, the nurse should? | compare the present symptoms to the original symptoms frequently and record. |
| A neurotransmitter present in both the sympathetic and para-sympathetic nervous system is? | Acetylcholine |
| Beta2 adrenergic receptors are found primarily in the? | LUNGS |
| Which of the following is a response observed when sympathetic stimulation occurs? | Dilation of the bronchioles. |
| The sympathetic nervous system is also called the ? | ”Fight of flight” system. |
| The autonomic nervous system consists of the? | Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. |
| A common adverse reaction of anticholinergic (cholinergic blocking) drugs is? | Dryness of the mouth. |
| Anticholinergic drugs are contraindicated or used with caution in those with? | Glaucoma, enlarged prostate. Anticholinergics can raise intraocular pressure, and interfere with urination. |
| When applied topically to the eye, a cholinergic drug such as pilocarpine (Isopto Carpine) will? | Constrict the pupil. |
| Beta adrenergic blocking drugs are primarily used in the treatment of? | Hypertension. Pts w other conditions listed in this question might have beta blockers prescribed; however, their main use is in treating HTN. (stroke, peripheral vascular disease, mitral stenosis). |
| The parasympathetic nervous system is partly responsible for activities such as? | Slowing the heart rate, eliminating body waste. |
| The two primary neurotransmitters of the sympathetic nervous system are? | Norepinephrine and Acetylcholine. |
| Ms Hay, suffers from asthma each spring. During this season, she inhales albuterol (Proventil) several times a day, as prescribed. What is the rationale for this treatment? | Albuterol stimulates beta 2 receptors which dilate the bronchi. |
| Most beta blocker medications can be recognized by their names which include? | ”-olol”. |
| George Woods, age 18, is suffering from nasal congestion caused by hay fever. His physician is most likely to prescribe which of the following adrenergic agents? | pseudophedrine. |
| Ms Gill is takng propranolol(Inderal) for HTN,recently experienced adverse reactions including bronchospasm.MD plans to substitute atenolol(Tenormin),50mg PO od. Why does the MD expect atenolol to cause fewer adverse reactions than the other beta blocker? | Atenolol is a cardiac selective beta blocker; propranolol is not. |
| The parasympathetic nervous system? | Works to help conserve body energy. |
| Ms White, 36, has poor bladder tone secondary to multiple sclerosis. She is consistently troubled by urinary retention with overflow. Recently, the MD prescribed bethanechol (Urecholine),20mg PO tid Why is bethanechol the drug of choice for this problem? | Bethanechol binds w the muscarinic receptors on the bladder wall causing a parasympathetic response. Drug will cause the detrusor muscle of bladder to contract so that urine will be expelled. |
| Mr Bates has HTN & his MD decides to prescribe a beta-adrenergic blocking agent. Prior to giving Bates the 1st dose of his drug, the most important assessment performed by the nurse would be? | Measuring the blood pressure and pulse. Assessing these vital signs prior to admin is necessary so that hypotension & brachycranic can be avoided. Baseline VS will B helpful in evaluating the effect of meds afterwards. |
| After several days of beta-blocker therapy, the patient experiences postural hypotension, which is defined as? | A feeling of lightheadedness or dizziness when changing position. Aka Orthostatic hypotension. |
| Cholinergic blocking drugs are capable of? | reversing the action of cholinergic drugs. |
| Epinephrine (Adrenalin) is a nonselective adrenergic agonist. What is the disadvantage of this nonspecific action? | It causes more autonomic side effects. |
| When a drug is referred to as an agonist, it can do which of the following? | Be a facilitator of an action. |
| A drug that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system may be called? | Sympathomimetic. |
| The primary way that cholinesterase inhibitors work is? | Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. A cholinesterase inhibitor will allow a longer parasympathetic action. |
| Parasympathomimetics such as sarin and malathion are poisons. If a person is exposed, an appropriate antidote would be? | Atropine, a sympathetic adrenergic is needed as an antidote. |
| Ms McFly has been diagnosed w Parkinson’s disease, & has been placed on an ant cholinergic medication to control his symptoms. Common side effects that are anticipated include? | Dry mouth, sensitivity to light, anxiety (all of the above). |
| Ms Rolo has been placed on a beta blocker for hypertension. As part of her patient education, the nurse tells her to report? | feelings of sadness or depression, difficulty w urination, worsening of her asthma symptoms (all of the above). |
| The patient is being discharged on a sympathomimetic prescribed for asthma. Patient education will include? | Report any dizziness, take this medication early in the day to avoid insomnia, report any palpitations (all of the above). |
| The MD orders 0.3 mg atropine sulfate subcutaneous q 4h. The pharmacy sends atropine sulfate 0.6 mg/ml. The nurse should administer ____ ml subcutaneous q4h? | 0.5ml |
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