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CBRN Practice 4
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| How many degrees are in a complete circle? | 360 |
| If you were traveling on an azimuth of 260 degrees and had to return to your original location, what is your back azimuth that you need to travel on? | 80 |
| When using an M1 lensatic compass, how far should the compass be from your rifle? | 1/2 meter |
| To navigate to a location using a global positioning system (GPS) unit, what must the user enter into the GPS? | A waypoint. |
| How many sets of batteries does the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR) require to fully operate? | Two. |
| If you use non-rechargeable alkaline (AA 1.5 volt) batteries in the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR), what is the unit’s anticipated operating life? | 11.5 hours. |
| To obtain the best satellite reception with the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR), what angle does the unit need to be held toward the horizon? | 90 degrees. |
| What level of reliability does the GeoXT have? | 2 to 5 meters. |
| When using a typical range finder, what must be adjusted to overlap the images? | One of the mirrors. |
| In a laser range finder, what determines the distance based on how fast the beam travels to the target and back? | Micro-processor. |
| What does the night vision goggle (NVG) require to function properly? | Night light. |
| Which subassembly converts the captured light into a visible image? | Image intensifier. |
| What part of the Vantage Pro2’s integrated senor suite (ISS) contains the brains of the ISS? | Sensor interface module. |
| All mobile command centers (MCC) are required to meet which DHS/FEMA requirements? | Type III. |
| When do you check a vehicle for unusual vibrations, noises, odors, and abnormal instrument readings? | During operation. |
| To reduce the possibility of an accident or equipment damage to an all-terrain vehicle (ATV), you should always | inspect your ATV before operation. |
| Which major command (MAJCOM) serves as the lead command for agile combat support and RD&A initiatives? | Air Combat Command (ACC). |
| The specific requirements in AFOSH Standard 48–137 are based on which requirement? | 29 CFR 1910.134. |
| What are the two basic types of protective breathing equipment used by first/emergency responders at a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear/hazardous materials (CBRN/HAZMAT) incident? | Air-purifying respirator (APR) and atmosphere-supplying respirators. |
| Which model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) will the Air Force use? | M50. |
| What color change occurs to the M61 filter time patch when it is expired and must be replaced? | White to dark blue. |
| Which statement best describes the purpose of the MCU–2/P mask? | Protects the face, eyes, and respiratory tract of the wearer against chemical and biological warfare agents and radioactive dust particles. |
| Which valve assembly for the MCU–2/P must have a supportive screen or six raised spokes on the valve? | Outlet. |
| The M45 second skin is made of what material and is available in how many sizes? | Agent-resistant rubber |
| What type(s) of chemical protective clothing does National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard 472 recognize? | Liquid-splash and vapor-protective clothing. |
| A process that when the characteristics of a material are altered through contact with chemical substances is called | degradation. |
| How many chemicals must liquid-splash protective clothing be tested against in accordance with National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard 1992? | Seven. |
| What do the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) protective equipment Level C provide users? | Splash-protecting garment and an APR or PAPR |
| The purpose of the ground crew ensemble (GCE) is to provide durable individual protection capable of preventing | field concentrations of CB warfare agents from physical contact with the wearer. |
| How long will the anti-contamination suit protect the wearer from gamma radiation? | It provides no gamma protection. |
| Which statement best describes an electron? | A very small negatively charged particle that is considerably lighter than the remainder of the atom. |
| Which statement best describes an electrically neutral atom? | The number of protons is equal to the number of electrons. |
| What portion of an atom undergoes a transformation resulting in a beta particle being produced? | A neutron changes to a proton. |
| The unit of measurement for dose rate of gamma radiation is | roentgens per hour. |
| An alpha particle can travel | a few inches in open air. |
| Beta particles can travel | 12 to 18 inches in open air. |
| A radiation dispersal device (RDD) is any device that causes the purposeful dissemination of | any radiological material across an area without a nuclear detonation. |
| Which substance is used to produce a nuclear explosion by the fission process? | Plutonium. |
| Which subatomic particle causes fission to take place? | Neutron. |
| Which term best describes impurities within the active material that absorb neutrons and ultimately decrease neutron availability for further fissioning of the active material? | Purification. |
| Which energy range from a normal nuclear explosion equals 10 percent of the weapon effects? | Residual nuclear radiation. |
| What is the point at which the primary wave and reflected wave join together? | Mach stem. |
| What portion of thermal radiation causes widespread burns and incendiary effects? | Infrared. |
| What types of radiation does fallout primarily generate? | Beta and gamma. |
| The blast wave causes damage primarily at junctions between | tissues of different densities. |
| What are the two types of blast injuries? | Direct and indirect. |
| Which is not a phase of radiation sickness? | Dormant. |
| What do Geiger-Mueller (G-M) tubes use to limit Townsend discharge? | Certain types of gases. |
| The major radiation hazard encountered during a peacetime nuclear weapon accident is | alpha. |
| The beta gamma probe can be located up to how far away from the ADM–300? | 500 feet. |
| Which radioactive source is associated with ADM–300 calibration? | Thorium 232. |
| Which components comprise the Air Force air sampling kit? | High volume air sampler, 4” diameter filter holder, filter paper, and tripod. |
| What can the GR–135 Plus identify? | Industrial and medical isotopes and illicit nuclear materials. |
| The GR–135 allows the user to | survey, measure dose, and analyze nuclides for risk assessment |
| Which primitive plants do not use photosynthesis, are capable of anaerobic growth, and draw nutrition from decaying vegetable matter? | Fungi. |
| Tricothecene toxins are | absorbed through the skin. |
| What type of microorganisms grows only in the presence of free oxygen? | Aerobes. |
| A biological agent aerosol is most effective when the disseminated agent is viable, virulent, the correct size, and | airborne. |
| Which term best describes particles in a biological warfare agent aerosol cloud that strike and stick to objects in their path? | Impaction. |
| What does a biological warfare (BW) agent gas-generating submunition use to deploy the BW agent? | Cartridges to expel the agent through a simple orifice. |
| Casualty rates from biological warfare agent filled submunitions are a function of the number of submunitions per square kilometer, the infectivity of the agent, and the | area of coverage. |
| Aerodynamic stability makes which threat delivery platform easier cheaper to deliver and to disperse chemical and biological agents? | Cruise missiles. |
| What period(s) of the day provide the best conditions for a successful biological warfare (BW) agent attack? | Nightime and early morning. |
| What biological detection technology operates under the principle that every living organism has a substance with which it is incompatible? | Antibody techniques. |
| Which biological detection technology identifies the agent by heating the sample to extremely high temperatures and breaking the sample into its individual components? | Mass spectrometry. |
| How many biological agent tests can be conducted with a single Department of Defense (DOD) biological sampling kit? | 1 |
| As a minimum, what individual protective equipment should you wear while sampling with the Department of Defense (DOD) biological sampling kit? | Respirator protection and gloves. |
| The key to the BioCapture® 650 is its | integrated collector cartridge. |
| The dry filter unit (DFU) 1000 is rated for how many continuous hours? | 40,000 |
| Which chemical warfare agent disrupts the oxygen-carrying properties of blood? | Blood agents. |
| What type of agent is Phosgene oxime (CX)? | Blister agent |
| Which term is defined as the rate at which the body is able to counteract the effects of a poisonous substance? | Rate of detoxification. |
| Chemical warfare agents with high molecular weights indicate | solids |
| Chemical warfare agents with high boiling points tend to | evaporate slower at ambient temperatures. |
| Which is the most important factor that impacts the persistency of a chemical warfare agent? | Volatility |
| A surface burst has occurred if a tactical ballistic missile (TBM) detonates | below 150 feet |
| What is the primary concern for exposure to toxic industrial chemicals (TIC)? | Inhalation |
| What are the principal factors in the development of chemical detection systems? | Toxicity of agents and ability of agents to off-gas. |
| What chemical agents can you detect using M8 paper? | Nerve and blister. |
| How long is M9 paper useful after being removed from the shipping bag? | Approximately one year for tropic and desert regions. |
| pH paper indicates the presence of specific | acid and alkalines hazards. |
| What does the M256A1 use for the detection of vapor nerve agent? | An enzyme from an eel |
| What is the use of the heater pads associated with the M256A1 kit? | Prevent glass from cutting your gloves or hands when crushing ampoules 3 and 5 |
| After crushing the first heater ampoule on the M256A1 sampler detector, how many minutes do you leave the heater in place over the test spot? | Two |
| Which item inside the chemical agent monitor (CAM) conducts a classification process of the chemical warfare agent detected? | Software stored in the memory of the internal microprocessor. |
| The automatic chemical agent alarm (ACAA) passes the air sample drawn in through the inlet to | two detection cells through a permeable membrane. |
| What does the MultiRae detect? | Oxygen levels. lower explosive limits, and two preselected gases |
| How many database libraries does the Hazmat ID include? | Eight |
| The Drager Haz-Mat Simultest Kit measures | 15 organic and inorganic chemicals and/or chemical families |
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TruCancer
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