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N201: Test III Q
Questions/Vocab
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Weight supporting bones | Long bones |
| Largest bone in the body | Femur |
| A fractured pelvis is | The biggest risk for damaged organs |
| The biggest risk for damaged organs is | A fractured pelvis |
| Bones protect the | Inner organs |
| Reservoir for immature blood cells | Bands |
| Because of all of the blood vessels within, bones are | Blood rich |
| Significant factors of a fracture are | Loss of blood & hematomia |
| Bones produce blood cells, this is known as | Hematopoesis |
| Bones facilitate | The return of blood to the heart |
| Synarthrosis joints are | Immovable joints |
| Amphiarthrosis joints | Allow limited movement |
| Diarthrosis joints | Are freely movable |
| Dislocation can occur in | Ball and socket joints |
| Arthritis, hyperextension, tendinitis, and overuse are concerns with | Hinge joints |
| Bone cells that build bones | Osteoblasts |
| Bone cells that destroy bones | Osteoclasts |
| Mature bone cells that maintain the bones | Osteocytes |
| Change in muscle length without using force (extend arm) | Isotonic movement |
| Change in muscle force, not length (push arms against something) | Isometric movement |
| Muscles are attached to bones by | Tendons |
| rocess of bone formation | Osteogenesis |
| The process of formation of the bone matrix and deposition of minerals | Ossification |
| When a bone is broken, WBC's rush to the site bringing blood with them | Hematoma & inflammation |
| New bone formation | Calciogenesis |
| Development of new blood supply (fibroblasts) | Angiogenesis |
| The lungs are a large concern in a pt. with | Kyphosisosis |
| The kidneys are a large concern in a pt. with | Lordosis |
| Involuntary muscle movements | Clonus Fasciculation |
| Fine muscle tremors that keep going when stimulated | Clonus |
| With pelvic fractures, the nurse needs to monitor for | Internal bleeding/injury |
| Bone deformities Joint changes | X-ray |
| Tumors Ligament or tendon changes | CT scan |
| Soft tissue damages (Lumbar issues) | MRI |
| Fast - takes about 2 minutes Dye injected | Computed Tomography (CT) |
| Camera actually enters the body and looks at the joint | Arthrography |
| The leading cause of disability in the United States is | Arthritis |
| The most common musculoskeletal condition that necessitates hospitalization in those over 65 years of age is | Hip Fractures |
| Hip Fractures | The most common musculoskeletal condition that necessitates hospitalization in those over 65 years of age is |
| In the human body, there are ____ bones | 206 |
| Approximately ____ mg of calcium daily is essential to maintain adult bone mass. | 150 |
| The approximate percentage of total body calcium present in the bones is | 98% |
| ___________ is located in the shaft of these four long and flat bones sternum, ileum, vertebrae & ribs. | Red bone marrow |
| The major hormonal regulators of calcium hemostasis are: | Parathyroid hormone (PTH) & calcitonin |
| Ossification for major adult long bone fractures can take up to: | 4 months |
| The term used to describe the grating, crackling sound heard over irregular joint surfaces like the knee is: | Crepitus |
| The fibrous membrane that covers the bone: | Periosteum |
| These connect muscles to muscles: | Ligaments |
| The contractile unit of skeletal muscle: | Sarcomere |
| These attache muscles to bones: | Tendons |
| Loss of bone mass common in postmenopausal women: | Osteoporosis |
| A lateral curving deviation of the spine: | Scoliosis |
| Excessive fluid within a joint capsule: | Effusion |
| Aspiration of a joint to obtain synovial fluid: | Arthrocentesis |
| Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan | The only way to diagnose osteoporosis |
| The only way to diagnose osteoporosis | Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan |
| Going oin with syringe and removing fluid | Centesis |
| Needles - test that looks for response to sensation | Electromyography (EMG) |
| Test determines structure and composition of bone marrow, bone, muscle, synovium | Biopsy |
| The most prevalent M/S disease in the world is | Osteoporosis |
| A precursor for osteoporosis is | Osteopenia |
| Peak bone mass is achieved between the ages of | 18 - 25 y/o |
| Primary oteoporosis occurs after | menopause |
| Secondary osteo from conditions that affect bone metabolism such as | celiac, hypogonadism, corticosteroids and anti-seizure meds |
| Post menopausal women need _______ Ca+/day | 1200 mg |
| Primary osteoporosis begins in women usually between the ages of | 45 and 55, postmenopausal |
| The primary deficit in osteomalacia is: | a deficiency in activated vitamin D (calcitrol), which promotes calcium absorption from the GI tract |
| The medicines used to treat Paget's Disease are: | calcitonin, bisphonates, and plicamycin |
| The vertebrae can be classified as a type of: | irregular bone |
| The sternum, a bone that is a site for hematopoiesis, is classified as a: | flat bone |
| The basic cells responsible only for the formation of bone matrix are: | osteoblasts |
| About 3 weeks after fracture, an internal bridge of fibrous material. cartilage, and immature bone joins bone fragments so that ossification can occur. The building of a "fracture bridge" occurs during the stage of bone healing known as: | callus formation |
| The hip and the shoulder are examples of diathroses joints that are classified as: | ball-and-socket joints |
| The primary energy source for muscle cells is: | adenosine triphosphate (ATP) |
| Isometric contraction of the vastus lateralis is part of the exercise known as: | quadriceps exercises |
| Pt. understanding for musculoskeletal conditions for the aging is based on the understanding that there is a gradual loss of bone after a peak of bone mass at age: | 35 years |
| By age 75 years, the average woman is susceptible to bone fractures and has lost about what percentage of cancellous bone? | 40% |
| Thr removal of synovial fluid from a joint is called: | anthrocentesis |
| Red bone marrow is located in the shafts of all of the following long and flat bones, EXCEPT: | femur |
| The intervertebral disks that are subject to the greatest mechanical stress and greatest degenerative changes are: | L4, L5, and S1 |
| Back pain is classified as "chronic" when the pain lasts without improvement for longer than: | 3 months |
| The best position to ease low back pain is: | supine with knees slightly flexed and the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees |
| When lifting objects, patients with low back pain should be encouraged to maximize the use of the following muscles: | quadriceps |
| The most common symptoms of osteomalacia are: | bone pain and tenderness |
| The accute inflammatory stage of a strain or sprain usually lasts: | between 24 to 48 hours |
| The most serious complication of an open fracture is: | infection |
| Which of the following data is most important for the nurse to record while assessing a patirnt with an open wound? | Time when patient last received a tetanus immunization |
| Which lab study indicates the rate of bone turnover? | serum osteocalcin |
| Skull joints are an example of which type of joint? | synarthrosis |
| After a fracture, the onset of symptoms for fat embolism syndrome occurs: | within 1 to 2 days |
| The femur fracture that commonly leads to avascular necrosis or nonunion because of an abundant supply of blood vessels in the area is a fracture of the: | neck |
| Patients who experience a fracture of the humoral neck are advised that healing will take an average of ____ weeks, with restricted vigorous activity for an additional ____ weeks. | 10 / 4 |
| After an arm fracture, pendulum exercises are begun: | as soon as tolerated, after a reasonable period of immobilization |
| The most serious complication of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus is: | Volkmann's ischemic contracture |
| The two most serious complications of pelvic fractures are: | hemorrhage and shock |
| An acetabular fracture of the femur involves the: | neck of the femur |
| The most common complication of a hip fracture in the elderly is: | nonunion |
| A break occurs across the enter section of the bone | complete |
| A fragment of the bone is pulled off by a ligament or tendon | avulsion |
| Bone is splintered into several fragments | comminuted |
| One side of the bone is broken and other side is bent | greenstick |
| A fracture occurs at an angle accross the bone | oblique |
| Fragments are driven inward | depressed |
| The fractured bone is compressed by another bone | compressed |
| The fracture extends through the skin | open |
| Joint dislocations can lead to ____________ if not treated. | Avascular necrosis |
| Avascular necrosis is: | tissue death due to anoxia and diminished blood supply |
| Crepitus, a grating sensation felt when the hands are placed over the extremity, is caused by: | the rubbing of the bone fragments against each other |
| Patients with open fractures are at risk for three major complications: | osteomyelitis, tetanus, and gas gangrene |
| The most common fracture of the distal radius is: | Colles' fracture |
| The most common complication of hip fracture in the elderly is: | deep vein thrombosis |
| Common pulmonary complications, after hip fracture, for the elderly include: | atelectasis and pneumonia |
| Stage 3 of fracture healing is called: | Callus formation |
| Stage 1 of fracture healing is called: | Hematoma formation |
| Stage 2 of fracture healing is called: | Fibrocartilage formation |
| Stage 4 of fracture healing is called: | Ossification |
| greenstick | The term _________ fracture has been used to describe the incomplete fractures most commonly seen in children. The bone is splintered on one side but only bent on the other. |
| stress | A ______ fracture is caused by either repeated or prolonged stress. |
| open, compound | In a(n) ______ or a ________ fracture, fragments of the broken bone break through the skin. |
| pathologic | A __________ fracture occurs as a result of a condition in the bone such as a tumor or disease process that causes a spontaneous break. |
| _________________ is the first sign of a fat embolism, followed by tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness. | Respiratory distress |
| Respiratory distress is the first sign of a ____________, followed by tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness. | fat embolism |
| ______________ checks include assessment of pulse, skin color, capillary refill time, and sensation in the areas distal to the area of concern. | Neurovascular |
| Bile, made in the liver, enters the hepatic ducts and travels the common bile duct to the small intestines to break down food we eat. If we don't need it right away, the bile can be... | stored in the gallbladder for later use. |
| Liver bile is made primarily of | bilirubin and cholesterol |
| Liver functions include: | glucose metabolism ammonia conversion drug metabolism |
| The liver stores glucose as _________. When glucose is needed, the liver can breakdown these stores or produce new glucose. | glycogen |
| The creation of new glucose by the liver is called | gluconeogenesis |
| _________ is turned into urea by the liver and excreted in the urine. If liver fails, there will be a build up of this. | ammonia |
| The liver breaks down RBC's from the body. The bi-product of this is ________ | bilirubin |
| Once the liver has broken down the RBC's, __________ is produced, but the body cannot excrete it in this form. | unconjugated bilirubin |
| Incubation period for Hep A is: | 15 - 50 days |
| Incubation period for Hep B is: | 28 - 160 days |
| Incubation period for Hep C is: | 15 - 160 days |
| Incubation period for Hep D is: | 21 - 140 days |
| Incubation period for Hep E is: | 15 - 65 days |
| Mode of transmission Hep A | Water/food borne Poor sanitation Person-to-person contact Fecal to oral route |
| Mode of transmission Hep B | Sexual contact Peri-natal |
| Health care workers at an increased risk for Hep | B & D |
| Mode of transmission Hep C | Sexual contact Blood transfusion |
| Mode of transmission Hep D | Sexual contact Peri-natal (Must have Hep B) |
| Mode of transmission Hep E | Person-to-Person contact Fecal-to-oral |
| Average immunity for Hep A | 30 days Homologous |
| Average immunity for Hep B | 70 - 80 days Homologous |
| Average immunity for Hep C | 50 days |
| Average immunity for Hep D | 35 days Homologous |
| Average immunity for Hep E | 42 days Unknown if it is Homologous |
| Some people may get Hep A and not know it because the symptoms are similar to the flu. What is one of the key differences? | Pt may develop jaundice. |
| The medical term for excessive hunger is | Polyphagia |
| This means increased red blood cell production | Polycythemia |
| This means excessive thirst | Polydipsia |
| This means increased urine volume. | Polyuria |
| Adequate intake of vitamin ____ is essential for absorption of Ca+ from the GI tract and for bone mineralization. | D |
| Muscle fatigue during strenuous exercise results from the accumulation of _______ acid. | lactic |
| When the nurse assesses a pt's spine, uneven shoulders and iliac crests are signs associated with _______. | scoliosis |
| Pt's receiving long-term steroid therapy are at increased risk for medication-induced ________, which increases their risk for fractures. | osteopenia |
| Flexion of the forearm is an example of an ________ muscle contraction. | isotonic |
| A means of stabilizing or securing a fracture is known as: | Traction |
| _______ traction indicates that there are pins involved. | Skeletal |
| _______ traction involves weights being applied to skin in some manner. (ace bandage, etc.) | Skin |
| When you have ossification, a ______ forms. | callus |
| ___________ traction applies pulling force in a straight line with the body part. | Straight or running |
| __________ traction supports the extremity off the bed and allows for some movement. | Balanced suspension |
| movement away from the center or medianline of the body | abduction |
| movement away from the center or medianline of the body | adduction |
| death of tissue due to insufficientblood supply | avascular necrosis |
| a device thatpromotes range of motion, circulation, and healing | continuous passive motion (CPM) device: |
| soft tissue swelling due to fluid accumulation | edema |
| external metal frame attached to bonefragments to stabilize them | external fixator |
| a break in the continuity of the bone | fracture |
| misplaced formation of bone | misplaced formation of bone |
| open surgical procedure to repair and stabilize a fracture | open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF) |
| infection of the bone | osteomyelitis |
| surgical cutting of bone | osteotomy |
| application of a pulling force to a part of the body | traction |
| A drug or medicine given to reduce pain without resulting in loss of consciousness | Analgesic |
| Aspirin, acetaminophen | Tylenol |
| Ibuprofen | Motrin, Advil |
| Naproxen | Aleve, Naprosyn |
| Narcotic analgesics | Morphine, oxycodone, and hydrocodone |
| Hydrocodone | Vicodin |
| without tone; denervated muscle that atrophies | atonic |
| shrinkagelike decrease in the size of a muscle | atrophy |
| fluid-filled sac found in connective tissue, usually inthe area of joints | bursa |
| cartilaginous/fibrous tissue at fracture site | callus |
| latticelike bone structure; trabecularbone | cancellous bone |
| Carpal tunnel syndrome is a neuropathy characterized by: | median nerve compression at the wrist |
| The term for onychocryptosis, a common foot condition, is: | ingrown toenail |
| An overgrowth of the horny layer of epidermis on the foot is called a: | corn |
| The average 75-year-old woman with osteoporosis has lost how much of her cortical bone? | 25% |
| The estimated intake of calcium to prevent bone loss for a postmenopausal woman is ______ mg/day. The actual intake is about _____ mg/day. | 1200/400 |
| Most causes of osteomyelitis are caused by: | Staphylococcus aureus |
| The specific treatment for chronic osteomyelitis would probably be: | surgical removal of the sequestrum |
| The most common benign bone tumor is: | an osteochondroma |
| A muscle tear that is microscopic and due to overuse is called a: | strain |
| The accute inflammatory stage of a strain or sprain usually lasts: | between 24 to 48 hours |
| After arthroscopic surgery for a rotator cuff tear, a patient can usually resume full activity in: | 6 to 12 months |
| A patient who has a meniscectomy by arthroscopic surgery needs to know that normal athletic activities can usually be resumed after: | 3 weeks |
| An open fracture with extensive soft tissue damage is classified as a what grade fracture? | III |
| The most serious complication of an open fracture is: | infection |
| Shock, as an immediate complication of fractures, is usually classified as: | hypovolemic |
| Which of the following describes an osteon? | a microscopic functional bone unit |
| Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? | isotonic contraction |
| A patient is exhibiting diminished ROM, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height. The history and physical findings are associated with age-related changes of which area? | Joints |
| Which of the following data is most important for the nurse to record while assessing a patirnt with an open wound? | Time when patient last received a tetanus immunization |
| Which lab study indicates the rate of bone turnover? | serum osteocalcin |
| Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? | ulnar |
| Skull joints are an example of which type of joint? | synarthrosis |
| The majority of bone infections are caused by which of the following organisms? | Staphylococcus aureus |
| After a fracture, the onset of symptoms for fat embolism syndrome occurs: | within 1 to 2 days |
| The femur fracture that commonly leads to avascular necrosis or nonunion because of an abundant supply of blood vessels in the area is a fracture of the: | neck |
| An immediate nursing concern for a patient who has suffered a femoral shaft fracture is assessment for: | hypovolemic shock |
| The longest immobilization time necessary for fracture union occurs with a fracture of the: | tibial shaft |
| The nurse knows to assess the pt. in an arm cast for possible pressure ulcers in the following area: | lateral malleolus. |
| A common pressure problem are for a long leg cast is the: | peroneal nerve. |
| The nurse is very concerned about the potential debilitating complication of peroneal nerve injury, which is: | footdrop |
| When caring for a pt. with cirrhosis, which of the following symptoms should the nurse report immediately? | change in mental status |
| Using gastric analysis, the nurse would expect that a pt. diagnosed with peptic ulcer would secrete | some acid. |
| Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for ischemic stroke? | gender |
| Which of the following is an inappropriate use of traction? | Decrease space between opposing structures |
| Half of all spinal cord injuries are related to: | substance abuse |
| Which diagnostic test is more accurate in detecting malignancies than a CT scan? | PET scan |
| Skin traction is limited to a weight between: | 4.5 to 8 lbs. |
| A pt. in pelvic traction needs his/her circulatory status assessed. The nurse should check for a possitive (1) Homans' sign by asking the pt. to: | extend each leg and dorsiflex each foot to determine if pain or tenderness is present in the lower leg. |
| The nurse expects that up to how much weight can be used in skeletal traction? | 25 lb |
| Pts. with a hip and knee replacement begin ambulation with a walker or crutches how long after surgery? | 24 hours |
| The recommended leg position to prevent prosthesis dislocation after a total hip replacement is: | abduction |
| Postoperatively a pt. with a total hip replacement is allowed to turn: | 45 degrees onto his/her unoperated side if the affected hip is kept abducted |
| One of the most dangerous of all postoperative complications is: | pulmonary embolism |
| The nurse caring for a post-op hip-replacement pt knows that the pt should not cross his/her legs, at any time, for how long after surgery? | 4 mos. |
| After a total hip replacement, stair climbing is kept to a minimum for: | 3 to 6 mos. |
| After a total hip replacement, the pt. is usually able to resume daily activities after: | 3 mos |
| A ______ reduces a fracture, corrects a deformity, applies uniform pressure to underlying soft tissue, and supports and stabilizes weakened joints. | cast |
| A wet cast should only be handled with the ______ to prevent indentations. | palm of the hand |
| A wet cast should only be handled with the palm of the hand to prevent _________. | indentations |
| The leading cause of disability in the US is: | arthritis |
| The most common M/S condition that necessitates hospitalization in those over 65 y/o is: | hip fractures |
| The approximate % of total body Ca+ present in the bones is: | 98% |
| The nurse who assesses bone fracture pain expects the patient to describe the pain as: | sharp and piercing |
| The nurse knows to assess the pt. in an arm cast for possible pressure ulcers in the following area: | lateral malleolus |
| A common pressure problem are for a long leg cast is the: | peroneal nerve |
| The nurse is very concerned about the potential debilitating complication of peroneal nerve injury, which is: | footdrop |
| Fracture healing occurs in 4 areas, including the | external soft tissue |
| Which lab study indicates the rate of bone turnover? | Serum osteocalcin |
| Which of the following is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip or wrist? | Arthrography |
| Which of the following is an indicator of neurovascular compromise? | Capillary refill of more than 3 seconds |
| This is necessary for Ca+ absorption | Vitamin D |
| A site of Ca+ absorption is the | Duodenum |
| This increases bone mass and decreases bone loss by inhibiting osteoclast function | Biphosphonates |
| This directly inhibits osteoclasts, reducing bone loss and increasing BMD | Calcitonin |
| Metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of the bone, weakness of skeleton | Osteomalacia |
| Deficiency of calcitrol (activated vit D) which promotes Ca+ reabsorption from GI Tract; Not Ca+ deficient, just can't absorb it | Osteomalacia |
| What is true about Paget's Disease? | Localized rapid bone turnover |
| What is true about Paget's Disease? | Proliferation of osteoclasts |
| What is true about Paget's Disease? | Increased osteoblastic activity |
| What is true about Paget's Disease? | Cause is unknown |
| Loss of hearing from Paget's Disease is caused by the compression of which cranial nerve? | VIII Vestibulocochlear |
| Fractures, arthritis and hearing loss are complications of: | Paget's Disease |
| Infection of the bone, results in inflammation and necrosis | Osteomyelitis |
| Metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of the bone, weakness of skeleton (malabsorption Ca+) | Osteomalasia |
| __________ causes 50% of cases of Septic Arthritis | Staph aureus |
| Septic Arthritis is common in _________ & diabetes | RA |
| When joints become infected from an infection elsewhere in the body, this is called | Septic Arthritis |
| The most common site for Septic Arthritis is: | The Knee |
| How long does a pt. taking bipohoshonates need to stay upright after administration? | 30 minutes |
| Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse chose as the priority for a pt. with Paget's Disease? | Impaired physical mobility |
| Age related bone loss from Osteoporosis begins in the: | 4th Genreation |
| ________, which inhibits bone breakdown, is decreasing in osteoporosis | Estrogen |
| ________, promotes bone formation and is decreasing in osteoporosis | Calcitonin |
| ________. increases bone turnover & resorption, is increased in osteoporosis | Parathyroid Hormone |
| ________ muscles are important in lifting to reduce stress on spine | Abdominal |
| Ligament tears, muscles, tendons and soft tissue problems | Ultrasound |
| Nerve root disorders | EMG |
| Spinal Pathology | MRI |
| One or more vertebrae fused together to stabilize them | Spinal fusion |
| A soft tissue injury caused by blunt force | Contusion |
| A contusion generally lasts: | 1 - 2 weeks |
| What does the T stand for in TNM? | Tumor size |
| What does the N stand for in TNM? | lymph Node involvement |
| What does the M stand for in TNM? | distant Metstasis |
| Responsible for turning on/off cell growth when needed. Cancer - no OFF switch. | Oncogenes |
| Diagnostic test where radioisotope is injected in body - tumor will not pick-up radioisotope. | Bone Scan |
| This med. should be taken first thing in the morn. on an empty stomach w/a full glass of water, and sit upright for 30-60 mins after administration. | Bisphosphonates |
| What hormone stimulates release of Ca+ from the skeleton? | PTH |
| When the spine is fused together, it can be done with bone grafts or metal implants. Where does the bone usually come from? | Iliac crest |
| Which of the 5 Ps of Neurovascular Compromise refer to: numbness or tingling of the extremities? | Parasthesia |
| Which of the 5 Ps of Neurovascular Compromise refer to: the inability to move the extremity? | Paralysis |
| Which of the 5 Ps of Neurovascular Compromise refer to: pale skin, cool to touch? | Pallor |
| Which of the 5 Ps of Neurovascular Compromise refer to: not being relieved by meds & out of proportion to injury? | Pain |
| Which of the 5 Ps of Neurovascular Compromise refer to: diminished or absent distal to injury? | Pulses |
| Norm. value of Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) | 5-35 units |
| Norm. value of Aspirate aminotransferase (AST) | 10-40 units |
| Norm. value of Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) | 10-48 IU/L |
| Norm. value of Ammonia | 15-45 ug/dL |
| What happens to ammonia in the liver? | It is turned into urea |
| If the liver is not functioning, what happens to Ammonia levels? | Increased (can't break down urea) |
| Norm. value of Albumin | 1.7-3.3 g/dL |
| If the liver is not functioning, what happens to Albumin levels? | Decreased (can't make enough) |
| Where is Albumin made? | In the liver |
| Norm. Prothrombin Time (PT) | 12-16 seconds |
| If the liver is not functioning, what happens to Prothrombin Time (PT)? | Increased time (longer time for body to clot) |
| Norm. value of Serum bilirubin, direct | 0-0.3 mg/dL |
| Serum bilirubin, direct measures | Conjugated bilirubin |
| Norm. value of Serum bilirubin, total | 0-0.9 mg/dL |
| Serum bilirubin, total measures | Both conjugated & unconjugated bilirubin |
| Norm. value of Urine urobilinogen | 0.05-2.5 mg/24h |
| 0.05-2.5 mg/24h is the normal value of which LFT? | Urine urobilinogen |
| 5-35 units is the normal value of which LFT? | Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) |
| 10-40 units is the normal value of which LFT? | Aspirate aminotransferase (AST) |
| 10-48 IU/L is the normal value of which LFT? | Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) |
| 15-45 ug/dL is the normal value of which LFT? | Ammonia |
| 1.7-3.3 g/dL is the normal value of which LFT? | Albumin |
| 12-16 seconds is the normal value of which LFT? | Prothrombin Time (PT) |
| 0-0.3 mg/dL is the normal value of which LFT? | Serum bilirubin, direct |
| 0-0.9 mg/dL is the normal value of which LFT? | Serum bilirubin, total |
| emolytic, Hepatocellular & Obstructive are types of: | Jaundice |
| _________ jaundice is caused by Sickel-cell or blood transfusions | Hemolytic |
| _________ jaundice is caused by Cirrhosis or hepatitis: | Hepatocellular |
| _________ jaundice is caused by an obstruction | Obstuctive |
| A large amt. of blood travels from the liver to the GI tract by way of the: | Portal vein |
| Postnecrotic cirrhosis is caused by | Pt. having chronic hepatitis |
| Biliary cirrhosis is caused by | Pt. having chronic obstruction |
| Which type of surgery is being done when lesions that are removed are likely to develop into cancer? | Prophylactic |
| A pt. with newly diagnosed breast cancer is scheduled for a lymph node biopsy and asks the nurse why it is necessary when the diagnosis of cancer is already made. The nurses' best response is based on which of the following? | To determine if cancer has metastasized |
| A new nurse is admitting a severely neutropenic pt. who is receiving radiation therapy. The precepting nurse knows that the nurse understands precautionary measures necessary for the client when he assigns the pt. to which or the following rooms? | A private room with protective isolation |
| The nurse determines that the pt. with Ewing's Sarcoma understands instruction related radiation therapy when the pt. states that the side effects include which of the following? | An increased risk for infection |
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