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Micro
MICRO FINAL
Question | Answer |
---|---|
A relationship between organisms in which the waste product of one provides nutrients for another is called | commensalism |
In the 16th century a father-and-son team, by the name of ____, produced a compound microscope consisting of a simple tube with lenses at each end. | Janssen |
Which of the following lack nucleic acids? Prions, Bacteria, Archaea, Viruses | prions |
A chemical bond in which electrons are equally shared is a(n) | non-polar covalent bond |
An atom with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons is called a(n) ____. | isotope |
Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a surface and are called ____. | biofilms |
When the solute concentration outside a cell is the same as the concentration inside the cell, the solution is called ____. | isotonic |
A positively charged ion is a(n) ____. | cation |
The breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones in the presence of water is called ____. | hydrolysis |
The cleanup of various industrial wastes by living organisms is referred to as ____. | bioremediation |
Molecules that can absorb hydrogen ions and not change the pH of the substance are ____. | buffers |
In a compound light microscope the lens closest to the eye is the ____ lens. | ocular |
A relationship in which two organisms benefit is referred to as ____. | mutualism |
The formation of polymers from simpler substances is referred to as ____ ____. | dehydration synthesis |
Three-dimensional images | Scanning electron microscope |
Ultra-thin sectioned specimens | transmission electron microscope |
Observing insects | Stereomicroscope |
Salt | Potassium chloride |
Glucose | Monomer |
Tritium | Radioactive isotope |
Acid | Hydrogen ion donor |
Polysaccharide | Cellulose |
Aseptic technique | Joseph Lister |
Animalicules | Antony van Leuwenhoek |
Opponent of spontaneous generation | Lazzaro Spallanzani |
Produced a collection of work called, "Micrographia" | Robert Hooke |
Proponent of spontaneous generation | John Needham |
Germ theory of disease | Louis Pasteur |
4 postulates linking organisms with disease | Robert Koch |
Vaccination | Edward Jenner |
List or describe 2 ways that normal flora protect you from pathogenic flora. | normal flora on skin prevent pathogenic flora from entering your system by using all available sources of nutrients and competing for space, flora in your digestive system produce enzymes to make the environment unsuitable for pathogenic flora |
Describe 2 important characteristics of biofilms. | have a sticky surface, resistant to antibiotics due to their growing and non-growing populations, difficult to kill |
In healthy people, bacterial biofilms may be found on teeth and nails. In the healthcare setting, patients may be particularly susceptible to additional biofilm development. Explain why this may be. | the inner layer of the biofilms are protected and therefore difficult to remove, indwelling catheters in patients are a perfect place for biofilms to attach and grow |
List or describe 4 uses for microorganisms in everyday life. | bioremediation - petroleum removal from water, agriculture - farming, food production - making cheese, pharmaceuticals - penicillin |
Chitin is a component of the cell wall of | Fungi |
Which transport mechanisms transports water across the plasma membrane? | Osmosis |
The cell organelles found only in algae and plant cells and which carry out photosynthesis are | Chloroplasts |
Matrix formed outside the plasma membrane is referred to as | Glycocalyx |
Which of the following is an active transport mechanism? Diffusion, Facilitated diffusion, Osmosis, Pinocytosis | Pinocytosis |
The fluid-like portion of a cell is referred to as | Cytoplasm |
Which of the following cell organelles contain digestive enzymes?Chloroplasts, Peroxisomes, Lysosomes, Mitochondria | Lysosomes |
Bacteria that have a single polar flagellum at one end are referred to as | Monotrichous |
Pili are also called | Fimbriae |
Which of the following organelles contain oxidative enzymes capable of oxidizing toxic substances? Mitochondria, Chloroplasts, Lysosomes, Peroxisomes | Peroxisomes |
The structures that can move fluid, mucus, or cells over the surface of a cell are | Cilia |
Cells without a nucleus are ____ cells. | prokaryotic |
Proteins that are partially embedded on one side of the plasma membrane are referred to as ____ proteins. | peripheral |
The nucleus is surrounded by a(n) ____. | envelope |
Movement of bacteria toward or away from a particular stimulus is called ____. | taxis |
Nucleic acid | DNA |
Phagocytosis | Endocytosis |
70S | Bacterial ribosome |
Primary protein structure | Sequence of amino acids |
What are the four chemical building blocks of all living things? | proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates |
List 5 differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes | prokaryotes-no nucleus, no membrane-bound organelles, free floating DNA & RNA, typically no cell wall; eukaryotes- have not free-floating DNA & RNA, cell walls, asexual and sexual. |
List the 5 characteristics of living things that make them different from non-living things | reproduction: cell division, binary fission, mitosis, meiosis, presence of DNA or RNA as genetic material, metabolism, respond to stimuli (example-temperature, pH, nutrient levels), plasma membranes (aka cell membranes) which is a phospholipid bilayer |
List or describe 3 important properties of plasma (cell) membranes. For example: what are they made of? What are their associated factors, and what do they help a cell to do? | made of sugars and techoic/lipotechoic acid, helps a cell retain it's structure (protection) and retain proper fluid balance, helps a cell attach to a surface if needed |
What is the difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria? | gram-positive has a thick peptidoglycan layer, gram negative has a thin peptidoglycan layer, periplasmic space in gram negative bacteria is bigger than in gram positive bacteria |
An inanimate object or substance capable of transporting pathogens from one medium or individual to another is referred to as a | Fomite |
The splitting of glucose into two, three-carbon molecules | Glycolysis |
A metabolic cycle that generates reducing equivalents (electron carriers) such as FADH or NADH | Electron transport chain |
The synthesis of larger molecules | Anabolism |
The use of alternative electron accepting compounds such as nitrate or sulfate under oxygen limited conditions. Used only by bacteria. | Fermentation |
The conversion of pyruvate to any number of organic acids when oxygen supply is limited | Anaerobic respiration |
A series of membrane bound enzymes that use electrons from reducing equivalents to pump protons across a membrane, create ATP and reduce oxygen to water | Krebs cycle |
The breakdown of larger molecules for energy | Catabolism |
The three natural mechanisms by which antibiotic-resistance genes can be spread rapidly through a population of bacteria, are __________, ___________ and ___________. | conjugation, transformation, transduction |
Explain what an enzyme is using the following terms: protein, catalyst, activation energy, active site, allosteric site, substrate, product, temperature, pH, cofactor/coenzyme. | They are biological catalysts, speeds up chemical reactions w/o changing, most are proteins, they have a active site (substrate to product) and an allosteric site where activity is regulated by temp/pH/[ ] in cofactor, coenzymes. |
Describe 5 steps doctors, patients and nurses can take to decrease the chances of bacteria developing resistance to the antibiotics we currently use to treat infections. | proper hand hygiene, antibiotics must be taken as prescribed, leftovers meds should be discarded, do not take someone else’s prescription, prescribe narrow spectrum antibiotics |
What is the difference between transcription, translation and replication? | Transcription- process that converts an mRNA message into a polypeptide.Translation- process of copying a sequence of DNA to produce a complementary strand of RNA. replication- process in which the RNA is duplicated |
List 5 cellular processes (that happen inside bacteria) that can be inhibited by antibiotics | 1) metabolic pathways disrupted 2) weakens integrity of cell membrane 3) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis 4) inhibits protein synthesis 5) causes weakness in cell wall |
What is aseptic technique? And why do we use it in the healthcare setting? | sterile procedure, prevents infections and spread of disease |
Which of the following stains is generally used for the diagnosis of tuberculosis? Gram stain, Fluorescent stain, Wright stain, Acid-fast stain | Acid-fast stain |
Macrolesions in which the order of bases is switched or inverted are called | Inversions |
A mutation that involves the deletion or insertion of one or more bases is a | Frameshift mutation |
Which of the following is considered to be an essential nutrient for microorganisms? Nitrogen, Folic acid, Riboflavin, Copper | nitrogen |
Bacteria that require levels of CO2 that are higher than the level found in the atmosphere | Capneic |
Cold-tolerating organisms | Psychrotrophs |
Comma shaped rods | Vibrio |
Microbes that use CO2 as their source or energy and carbon | Chemoautotrophs |
Heat-loving organisms | Thermophiles |
Microbes that use chemical compounds as their source or energy and carbon | Chemoheterotrophs |
Spiral shaped bacteria | Spirillium |
Bacteria with a spherical or rod shape | Pleomorphic |
Rod-shaped bacteria | Bacilli |
Cocci arranged in groups of 4 | Tetrads |
Bacteria that show variation in cellular size and shape as a result of environmental conditions or age of the organisms are referred to as __________ bacteria. | pleomorphic |
The four risk groups for agents have been established by the __________. | NIH (National Institute of Health) |
Microorganisms that acquire energy from light are called __________. | phototrophs |
Non-chromosomal DNA molecules in bacteria are __________. | plasmids |
Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called _________ _______. | obligate aerobes |
List or describe the 6 steps of multiplication of a bacteriophage. | Adsorption, Penetration, Replication, Assembly, Maturation, Release |
List 2 organisms considered to be Biosafety level 1 organisms. | E. coli, Lactobacillus spp., canine hepatitis virus, bovine leukemia virus |
List 2 organisms considered to be Biosafety level 3 organisms. | SARS, Yellow fever virus, Bacillus anthracis, brucella spp. |
Explain a growth curve for a bacterial culture. Define lag, log, stationary, death phase, and what happens | Lag- bac are not increasing in num as they become accustomed to the environment; log-bacteria increase exponentially; stat-depletion of nutrients and accumulation of waste cells num remains constant, death- cells become less by suicide |
Explain the purpose of the Gram stain and describe the steps used to Gram stain a specimen. | to stain the cell wall of gram pos bacteria to see if neg or pos 1.apply crystal violet, sit 1 min, rinse 2.gram’s iodine sit 1 min, rinse w/water 3. decolorizer drop by drop until stain color removed 4. safranin sit 1 min rinse |
Fungi that help the roots of plants to absorb minerals and water from the soil are | Mycorrhizae |
True or False HIV is a double stranded DNA virus. | True |
True or False Most viruses can be seen with a light microscope. | False |
Toxoplasma gondii belongs to which class of organisms? | Protozoans |
Which of the following are technically not microorganisms? Protozoans, Bacteria, Helminths, Fungi | Helminths |
The process by which the nucleus of protozoans undergoes multiple divisions before the cell divides is called | Schizogony |
True or False Viral infections can be treated effectively with antibiotics. | False |
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are caused by | Prions |
Viral capsids are composed of subunits called | protomeres |
The so-called "red tide" is generally caused by what organism? | Dinoflagellates |
Sexually transmitted protozoan | Trichomonas vaginalis |
Cause of amoebic disentery | Entamoeba histolytica |
Protozoan associated with contaminated pork products | Balantidium coli |
Protozoan often found in mountain lakes and streams | Giardia lamblia |
A virus that infects bacteria is referred to as a __________. | bacteriophage |
The most common parasitic worm infections in the world are caused by _________, while the most common parasitic worm infections in the US are caused by __________. | giant roundworm, pinworm |
Staphylococci are Gram-__________ facultative anaerobes. | positive |
The two general categories of worms that infect mammals are called __________ and ___________. | flatworms, roundworms |
A fully assembled virus is called a __________. | virion |
Capsids forming multifaced structures having 20 triangular faces are called __________. | icosahedral |
Describe two common fungal infections of the body. | yeast infection, athletes foot |
Describe 5 static host defenses your body has to protect you from infections. | skin, mucus/tears, ciliary motion, coughing, gastric acid, flushing urine, peristalsis |
When do people first become colonized with bacteria? What type of bacteria is first? | during birth in the birth canal, normal flora |
What is the ratio of bacteria to cells in your body? | 50 trillion cell to 500 trillion bacteria |
What is an opportunistic infection? | when the balance is interrupted microbes of the normal flora become opportunistic pathogens causing infection when they normally wouldn’t. |
Describe the three main outcomes or types of viral infections that can occur within a host. | Abortive-infection w/o viral production, Lytic kills the host cell, and Persistent does not cause cell death. |
All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except Hands, Mouth, Gentials, Peritoneum | Peritoneum |
The degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism has is referred to as | Virulence |
Langerhans cells, which play a role in defense against microbes, are located in the | Epidermis |
Health care associated infections are also known as | Nosocomial infections |
Bacterial infection of a burn victim yeilding green pus | Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
Mycobacterium leprae | Leprosy |
Scalded skin syndrome | staphylococci or streptococci |
Impetigo | Staphylococcus aureus |
Necrotizing fasciitis | Streptococcus pyogenes |
Chicken pox | HSV-3 |
Rubeola | Measles |
Genital herpes | HSV-2 |
German measles | Rubella |
Small pox | Variola |
Scarlett fever | Streptococcus pyogenes |
Otitis media | Streptococcus pneumoniae |
Common cause of pneumonia, no cell wall | Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
Eye infection | Acanthamoeba keratitis |
Fungal infections of the hair and skin | Microsporum |
Subcutaneous mycoses | Sporothrix schenckii |
Rheumatic fever is a rare complication of __________. | group A strep |
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-__________ bacterium. | positive |
A living or non-living residence for pathogens in nature is called a ___________. | reservoir |
Insects, (arthropods), that carry pathogens from one host to another are called __________. | vectors |
A disease transmitted from an animal host to a human host is called __________. Such diseases are ___________ (seldom/often) transmitted from human to human. | zoonotic, seldom |
List 4 physical or biochemical properties of skin that help it protect you from infection. | normal flora compete for resources, pH, keratinized cells act as a barrier and are constantly sloughed off, lipids in sebum are toxic to bacteria |
List 2 organisms classified as group A strep. | streptococcus pyogenes and streptococcus pneumoniae |
List 4 physical or biochemical properties of mucus that help it protect you from infection. | the GI tract highly acidic pH, the respiratory tract mucous trap microbes, urinary tract flush out bacteria, and the conjuctiva |
Rare cause of respiratory infections in elderly, an encapsulated bacillus | Klebsiella pneumoniae |
Rare cause of bronchitis and meningitis | Haemophilus influenzae |
Typhoid fever | Salmonella enterica |
Diphtheria | Corynebacterium diphtheriae |
Q-fever | Coxiella burnetii |
Leading cause of bacterial diarrhea in the US | Campylobacter spp. |
Bacillary dysentery | higella spp. |
Legionellosis | Legionella pneumophila |
Peptic ulcer | Helicobacter pylori |
Common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis, ranging in severity | E. coli |
Common cold | Rhinovirus |
Flu | Orthomyxovirus |
Acute respiratory distress with high fatality | Hantavirus |
Flu-like then pneumonia-like illness | SARS |
Adenovirus | Conjuntivitis |
Caused by inhalation of spores found mainly in southwestern US | Coccidioidomycosis |
Acute lung infection, reservoir includes soil from around chicken houses | Histoplasmosis |
Produces lung infection, sometimes mimicing Tuberculosis. Reservoir is soil in wooded areas. | Blastomycosis |
Often produces a fungal ball in preformed cavities of the lung. | Aspergillus flavus |
consumption of alkaloids from this organism can produce burning sensation in limbs | Claviceps purpurea |
Can produce a carcinogenic aflatoxin | aspergillosis |
A periodontal disease that is restricted to the gums is an inflammation called __________. | gingivitis |
A microbial biofilm that can form on the enamel surface of teeth and often causes tooth decay and/or periodontal problems is referred to as __________ __________. | dental plaque |
The three forms of anthrax caused by Bacillus anthracis are __________, __________, and __________. | cutaneous, respiratory, gastrointestinal |
True or False? Some antibiotics can be used to treat protozoan infections. | true |
How might you tell if a patient has a parasitic worm infection? | by obtaining a stool sample |
List or describe 4 defense mechanisms your mouth and teeth have to fight tooth decay. | enzymes in saliva, normal flora, remineralization of teeth, mechanical action of tongue |
Which type of meningitis is more common? Bacterial or viral? Which is more dangerous? | viral is more common, but bacterial is more dangerous |
List or describe 3 ways that oral bacteria cause or contribute to tooth decay or periodontal disease. | tissue damage, demineralization, form plaque |
Describe 2 differences in the symptoms experienced by a patient with bacterial intoxication, versus a patient with a bacterial GI infection. | bacterial intoxication shows symptoms much faster, but once bacteria leaves body, symptoms are gone. GI infection may take weeks to show up and may last for an extended period of time |
Describe 4 symptoms of meningitis. | stiff neck, sensitivity to light, nausea, headache, vomiting |
Plasmodium spp. | Cause of malaria |
Opportunistic protozoan that can be sexually transmitted or in rare cases, a commensal organism | Trichomonas vaginalis |
Shistosoma haematobium | Parasitic worm, larvae can burrow into bladder and cause blood in urine |
Toxoplasma gondii | Cause of toxoplasmosis |
Yersinia pestis | Cause of the plague |
Borrelia burgdorferi | Cause of Lyme disease |
Most common cause of urethritis and cystitis | E. coli |
Cause of leptospirosis | Leptospira interrogans |
cause of "cat scratch fever" | Bartonella henselae |
Second most common cause of cystitis | Staphylococcus spp. |
Cause of "rat bite fever" | Streptobacillus moniliformis |
Cause of undulant fever | Brucella spp. |
Cause of "rabbit fever" | Francisella tularensis |
Bacteria often associated with inflammation of the heart, and rheumatic fever | Streptococcus pyogenes |
Rare cause of viral urinary tract infections | Polyomaviruses JC and BK |
Hemorrhagic fever | Ebola |
Common cause of mononucleosis | HHV-4 |
Asymptomatic infection that may cause graft failure in organ transplant patients | Cytomegalovirus |
A urinary tract infection of the kidneys is called ____. | pyelonephritis |
Prion disease is also called ____ ____ ____. | Transmissible Spongiform Encephalitis |
Glomerulonephritis is also referred to as ____ ____. | Bright’s disease |
List 4 ways pathogens can enter the blood. | dental procedure, wound infection, catheterization, insect bites |
Diagnosis of a urinary tract infection is a two step process: describe the two steps. | clean catch sample, culture and sensitivity test |
Describe 2 steps that should be taken if someone is bitten by an animal carrying rabies. | receive post-exposure vaccination, receive antibodies |
Syphilis | Treponema palidum |
Virus capable of being sexually transmitted, infection may lead to liver failure | Hepatitis C |
Donovanosis | Klebsiella granulomatis |
Cause of mastitis in cows and uterine infections in women | Streptococcus agalactiae |
Common cause of STD, Gram negative diplococci. | Neisseria gonorrhea |
Sexually transmitted virus that frequently results in an asymptomatic infection. May also cause warts or cervical cancer. | HPV |
Common cause of STD, intracellular organism, accumulates in elementary bodies | Chlamydia trachomatis |
Virus capable of infecting white blood cells | HIV/AIDS |
The organism most frequently associated with mastitis in women is ____ ____. | staph aureus |
The bacterium most frequently responsible for toxic shock syndrome that originates in the reproductive system is ____ ____. | staph aureus |
In cases of endometritis, the two bacteria most often responsible for the infection are ____ ____ and ____ ____ ____. | E. coli, group b strep |
Vaginal epithelial cells that can be examined to determine the presence of Gardnerella vaginalis are referred to as | clue cells |
List or describe the 3 outcomes or symptoms of HPV infections and give the vaccine name for HPV. | warts,cancer, asymptomatic, Gardacil |
List 5 consequences of untreated reproductive tract infections. | misscarriage, infertility, PID, ectopic pregnancy, increased risk of contracting STI’s |
List 4 organisms commonly found as normal flora of the reproductive tract. | lactobaccili, streptococcus, niesseria, bacteroides, myobacterium |
Describe the 3 stages and associated symptoms of syphilis. | primary (red sores), secondary (rash), tertiary (systemic, gummas in vital organs) |
What is the most common STD in the US? | herpes |
List or describe 6 defense mechanisms of the reproductive tract. | acidic pH, lysozyme, high salt secretions, urine flow flushing, sphincters prevent backflow, normal flora |
The antibody found in body secretions is | IgA |
An antibody is a marker on the cell surface of | macrophages |
Which of the following cell types secretes antibodies? | plasma cells |
Which of the following provide defense against viral infections? | interferons |
Which of the following cells is a granulocyte? | basophil |
Immunity that is a result of an actual infection is called | naturally acquired active immunity |
A substance capable of raising the body temperature is | pyrogen |
When an organ or tissue is transplanted between genetically different individuals it is called a(n) | allograft |
Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disease? | myasthenia gravis |
Which of the following is not part of the second line of defense? | pH of the skin |
Cells infected with a virus produce glycoproteins that interfere with viral replication and impede its spread; these glycoproteins are called | interferons |
The first line of defense that prevents microbes from entering the body includes | skin |
T cells (T lymphocytes) are divided into four categories: | Killer T cells, helper T cells, suppressor T cells, memory T cells |
_____ is a pentamer and the largest of the immunoglobulins. | IgM |
The category of immunoglobulins that can also be found in colostrum and mother’s milk is | IgA |
Enzymes that attack the peptidoglycan layer of bacteria and are present in perspiration, nasal secretions, saliva, and tears are | LYSOZYME. |
Delayed hypersensitivity is a result of | CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNE REACTIONS. |
B cells are responsible for_____-mediated immunity. | HUMORAL |
Substances that stimulate the production of antibodies are called | ANTIGEN. |
The body’s decreased ability to fight infections is called | IMMUNODEFICIENCY. |
The category of immunoglobulins that is implicated in allergic reactions is | BASOPHILS. |
Granulocytes are subdivided into three groups: | BASOPHILS, EOSINOPHILS, and NEUTROPHILS. |
Large, circulating phagocytic agranulocytes that develop into macrophages as they leave the blood vessels are called | MONOCYTES. |
A(n) _____is a strong immune response to a substance that is usually not harmful to the body but causes hypersensitivity reactions. | ALLERGY |
______occurs when the immune system is unable to distinguish between self- and nonself-antigens and attacks the cells of the body. | AUTOIMMUNITY |
Monomer bound to surface of B cells | IgD |
pentamer | IgM |
monomer found in tears, saliva | IgA |
monomer that can cross the placenta | IgG |
cell that reacts to allergic reactions | basophil |
two arms of the immune system | innate and adaptive immunity |
____immunity is a defense mechanism that is always present and most of the time are enough to fight off the replication and spreading of infectious agents. ___ and ___lines of defense | Innate, 1st and 2nd |
___immunity is when innate immunity has failed to prevent infection. This defense takes time to reach maximal strength and its response is specific for a specific antigen, ___line of defense | Adaptive, 3rd |
Explain Severe-combined immunodeficiency, how often it occurs and expected outcome | inherited, born w/o an immune defense, reoccurring infections of pneumonia, meningitis and chicken pox, very rare, 80% of pts saved with bone marrow and stem cell transplantation, untreated the pts rarely make it past their 1st yr of life. |
Where do white blood cells come from? | red bone marrow |
2 things that happen in a lymph node. | Filter lymph of pathogens and debris with macrophages, and it contains B cells and T cells which are activated in response to an antigen to fight infection. |