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Integument MS
skin test
Question | Answer |
---|---|
What structures are included in the integument? | includes structures that cover body's exterior surface. Skin (sebaceous and sweat glands) and sensory nerve endings. Accessory structures (hair and nails |
How often is the epidermis totally replaced? | every 35-45 days |
What is the dermis also referred to as? | "true skin" |
What four methods is skin lost by? | radiation, conduction, evaporation, and convection' |
What is radiation? | transfer of surface heat in the environment (ex: fron surface of warm skin into cooler air) |
What is conduction? | the transfer of heat through contact. (placing cool cloth on warm skin) |
What is evaporation? | loss of moisture or water |
What is convection? | transfer of heat by means of currents of liquids or gases-> warm air molecules move away from body. (ex: cool breeze blows across body surface) |
What cooling methods are ineffective when temperature and humidity outside the body increases? | radiation, evaporation, and convection |
what texture does vellus hair have? | has a wooly or wispy texture |
What type if texture does terminal hair have and when does it develop? | terminal hair is coarser hair. It develops at jpuberty. (axillae, pubic region, face of men, arms, chest, and legs. |
What are the two types of sweat glands? | eccrine and apocrine glands |
What are eccrine glands? | release water and lytes (Na and Cl)- perspiration |
What are apocrine glands? | found around nipples, anogenital region, in the eyelids (Moll's glands), in mammary glands, and in external ear canals (cerumen). Release pheromones in some species. |
What are characteristics of stage I pressure ulcers? | redness, fails to blanch (return to normal color) |
What are characteristics of stage II pressure ulcers? | red, blistering, or shallow break in the skin (skin tears) |
What are characteristics of stage III pressure ulcers? | shallow crater extends to subcu tissue. Serous drainage (plasma) or purulent drainage (infection). Relatively painless. |
What are characteristics of stage IV pressure ulcers? | life-threatening, muscle and bone exposed, rand odor. Infection can spread throughout body- sepsis. |
What is the normal appearance of the nails? | slightly convex with a 160 degree angle between nail base and skin |
What problem do concave-shaped nails indicate? | (spooning), iron deficiency anemia |
What problem would clubbing nails indicate? | (angle greater than 160 degrees), suggests cardio disease |
What do thickened nails indicate? | fungal infection and poor circulation |
What is Wood's light used for? | (black light), help identify fungal infections (blue-green color emitted) |
Who should tattooists be certified through? | the Alliance for Professional Tattooists (follow infection-control guidelines) |
What is vesiculation? | blister formation |
What is a furuncle? | a boil |
What is furunculosis? | having multiple fununcles |
What is a carbuncle? | a furuncle that drains pus |
What is shingles also known as? | herpes zoster |
When does shingles develop? | develops years after infection with varicella (chicken pox) |
What types of cells in the epidermis can skin cancer be involved with? | squamous cells (flat and scaly), basal cells (round), and melanocytes (cells that contain color pigment) |
How are squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas treated? | electrodesiccation, surgical excision, cryosurgery, or radiation therapy |
How is melanoma treated? | radical excision of tumor and adjacent tissues, followed by chemo |
What is onychomycosis? | fungal infection (toenail or fingernail) |
What is onychocryptosis? | an ingrown toenail. |
What is tinea pedis? | athlete's foot |
What is characteristic of a 1st degree burn and how long does it take to heal? | suerficial burn, heals in about 5 days. (sunburn) |
What is characteristic of a 2nd degree burn and how long does it take to heal? | superficial partial thickness and deep partial thickness. A partial thickness heals in about 14 days. a deep partial thickness burn may require debridement or grafts. |
What is characteristic of a 3rd degree burn? | full thickness burn |
How is burn depth determined? | determined by assessing color, characteristics of skin, and sensation in the area of the burn. |
What is the zone of coagulation? | at the center of the injury, area where injury is most severe and usually deepest |
What is the zone of stasis? | the area of intermediate burn injury. Blood vessels are damaged here, but tissue has potential to survive |
What is the zone of hyperemia? | the area of least injury. The epidermis and dermis are only minimally damaged. |
What are symptomes of hypovolemic shock? | hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and anuria |
What are three life-threatening complications of burns? | inhalation injury, hypovolemic shock, and infection |
What is a stridor? | a harsh sound during breathing |
What is tachypnea? | An increased rate of breathing |
What is eschar? | A hard, leathery crust of dehydrated skin |
How do you determine if fluid resuscitation was successful? | a successful fluid resuscitation is gauged by a urinary output of 0.3 to 0.5 mL/kg/hr |
What is epithelialization? | regrowth of skin |
What are purposes of skin grafts? | lessens the potential for infection, minimizes fluid loss by evaporation, hastens recovery, reduces scarring, prevents loss of function |
Why are pressure garments worn after having skin grafts? | worn after skin grafts to reduce scarring. May need to wear up to 2 years. |
How many calories should a burn victim increase to daily? | increase calories to 4000 to 5000 per day |
How much protein should a burn victim intake? | 2.0 to 2.5 g/kg (especially if burns are over 10% TBSA) |
What supplements should a burn victim add to their diet? | supplements of Vit. C, A, and zinc |