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BIOL237 Final
Anatomy flashcards for UNM BIOL237 final exam
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Spongy bone lacks: | Haversian systems |
| True/False: Is a mastoid sinus a one of the paranasal sinuses? | False. |
| The large anterior fontanel hardens at: | 1.5 to 2 years after birth |
| The occipital condyles articulate with superior surfaces on the: | atlas |
| The olfactory nerves pass through holes in the _____ on their way to the olfactory bulb of the brain. | cribriform plate |
| The cell which acts first in the process of remodeling in adult bone: | osteoclast |
| The primary bone which forms the nasal cavity is the: | ethmoid bone |
| The primary stimulus for adult bone remodeling is: | stress placed on the bone from weight bearing exercise |
| The component responsible for the flexibility and resilience of bone is: | collagen fibers |
| This hormone is directly necessary for calcium absorption from the gut. | Vitamin D3 |
| An excess or abuse of this hormone can lead to acromegaly and sometimes pituitary diabetes. | growth hormone |
| Endochondral ossification begins at about _____ in the developing embryo. | 8 weeks |
| Post-menopausal osteoporosis is characterized by ___ calcium in the blood. | higher than normal |
| The primary characteristic which causes melanocytes to metastasize is their: | ability to migrate |
| Which of the following signaling chemicals called pheromones? | apocrine glands |
| Chondrocytes are found within fluid-filled spaces called: | lacunae |
| When tissue wraps to form a tubule the ___ surface is toward the lumen. | apical |
| define hemidesmosome | these connect epithelium to its basement membrane |
| define gap junction | osteocytes use this to exchange calcium ions |
| define desmosome | also known as macula adherens, these prevent cells in the epidermis and other tissues from pulling apart |
| define tight junction | block or partially block the transport of molecules between cells in a semipermeable membrane |
| define zona adherens | these are small junctions for attaching cells together |
| The two primary components of all connective tissues are: | cells and matrix |
| A process which requires rapid response will usually utilize: | positive feedback |
| Which of the following tissues is well vascularized and experiences functional repair? bone, adipose, cartilage, all of the above, bone and adipose but not cartilage | bone and adipose but not cartilage |
| Unlike most other ligaments, the ligamentum flavum in the vertebral column contains: | elastic fibers |
| Goblet cells are an important functional cell in: | mucous membranes |
| The rectus femoris acts to move the: | tibial tuberosity |
| Extremely small passages that connect the lacunae to each other in bone tissue are called: | canaliculi |
| The patellar ligament connect the patella to the: | tibial tuberosity |
| Immediately after, and as a result of, the neurotransmitter making contact with receptors on the sarcolemma: | Na+ gates open causing Na+ to enter the muscle cell. |
| Which muscle is NOT a member of the rotator cuff? trees major, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis | teres major |
| The autoimmune disease in which the immune system cells release chemicals which attack the joint tissues and cause severe inflammation is called: | rheumatoid arthritis |
| Melanocytes are part of which layer? | stratum basale |
| Adipose tissue located in the ___ would be used to determine nutritional condition at time of death. | yellow marrow |
| A _____ is a tendinous structure that prevents the displacement of other tendons or ligaments and holds them in their normal positions. | retinaculum |
| The connective tissue surrounding each muscle cell is the: | endomysium |
| Which muscle listed is not a member of the rotator cuff muscles? | teres major |
| The latissimus dorsi and teres major are: | synergists in adducting the arm |
| White fibers have: | stored glycogen |
| Fast twitch red (intermediate) fibers can utilize _____ to provide energy for metabolism. | the phosphagen system, anaerobic glycosis, and aerobic metabolism |
| The type of muscle possessing short, branching, cells. | cardiac and smooth |
| The _____ along with the semimembraneosus and semitendinosus are called the hamstrings. | biceps femoris |
| An action of the tibialis anterior is: | dorsiflexion and inversion |
| The primary insertion of the triceps brachii is on the: | olecranon process |
| A synergist of the gastrocnemius is the: | soleus and peroneus (fibularis) longus |
| Which of the following muscles is not a member of the quadriceps group? biceps femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, rectus femoris | biceps femoris |
| Spasm of the _____ is a common cause of TMJ disorder. | lateral pterygoid muscle |
| Briefly explain why calcium supplements will not help a woman during the early stages of post-menopausal osteoporosis. | Reduced estrogen causes calcium to leave the bones, therefore serum calcium levels are high. This suppresses PTH and Vitamin D and reduces calcium absorption |
| Briefly explain what bursae are and their function. | Bursae are synovial sacks which lubricate the movement of tendons and ligaments to prevent friction and irritation. |
| All the parts of the ear are found in the ______ bone | temporal |
| What structural characteristic of epithelial cells would enhance their ability to secrete and absorb substances? | microvilli or mitochondria |
| What is the name for the portion of the bone containing holes through which olfactory nerves ascend to the brain? | cribriform plate |
| Which of the following is important in thermoregulation? | eccrine sweat glands |
| The stroma of the lungs contains _____ which permits its expansion and recoil. | elastic connective tissue |
| When a tissue experiences parenchymal repair the new tissue _____ produce the tissue's orignal function. | does |
| The stroma of the body's soft organs is made of: | reticular tissue |
| Which of the following tissues is well vascularized and experiences true parenchymal repair? bone, adipose, cartilage | bone and adipose |
| Define areolar | the most abundant connective tissue |
| define p.c.c.e. | normally the the most abundant lining in the respiratory tract |
| define dense regular | tendons are made of this type |
| define dense irregular | comprises the deep dermis |
| define transitional | stretchable epithelium |
| where is fibrocartilage found? | in symphysis pubis |
| where is elastic cartilage found? | in the epiglottis and ear |
| where is hyaline cartilage found? | as costal cartilage |
| where is mesenchyme found? | all connective tissues are derived from this |
| where is serosa found? | a lining and covering membrane |
| Cranial bones start out as a: | fibrous connective tissue membrane |
| The last location within a long bone of cartilage formation is: | epiphyseal plate |
| The spaces in spongy bone are initially filled with: | red marrow |
| the myeloid tissue responsible for hematopoiesis is found in the: | red marrow |
| Collagen fibers which run from the fibrous bone covering into the bone itself are called: | Sharpey's fibers |
| The distal epiphyseal plate of long bones hardens at: | early twenties |
| The large anterior fontanel hardens at: | 1.5 to 2 years after birth |
| Once completely hardened, osteoprogenitor cells must come from the _____ for bone repair. | periosteum |
| Ca+2 is released into the sarcoplasm when an action potential stimulates the: | sarcoplasmic reticulum |
| A sack made of synovial membrane which lies between tendons, ligaments, and nearby bones is called: | bursa |
| The intervertebral disks are which type of joint classified according to structure? | cartilaginous |
| Which type of arthritis involves the greatest degree of inflammation and disability? | rheumatoid arthritis |
| The sarcolemma is polarized because more _____ are pumped out than ___ are pumped in. | Na+, and K+ |
| The _____ surrounds a muscle and fuses with a tendon or aponeurosis. | epimysium |
| The intervertebral disks are what type of joint, classified by movement? | amphiarthrosis |
| A syndesmosis is actually a small _____ which connects bones in a non-movable way. | ligament |
| Joints which non-movable are usually classified structurally as _____ joints. | fibrous |
| The trigger which causes vesicles of acetylcholine to move to the axon membrane and release ACh is: | Ca+2 |
| What event causes repolarization of the sarcolemma? | Opening of potassium channels. |
| What is the next thing which happens after an impulse enters the T tubules? | Calcium ions enter the sarcoplasm from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. |
| What is the first thing that happens when an impulse reaches the axon terminus of a neuromuscular junction? | Calcium ions enter the axon |
| As a result of threshold depolarization at the neuromuscular junction, what happens on the adjacent sarcolemma? | Opening of the voltage-gated sodium channels. |
| As soon as Ca++ ions enter the axon: | Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis. |
| What event causes opening of the chemically-gated Na+ channels? | Acetylcholine binds to post-synaptic receptors on the sarcolemma. |
| As a direct result of Ca+2 binding to troponin: | The troponin-tropomyosin complex shifts, exposing the active sites on actin. |
| As soon as the active sites are exposed on actin: | Attachment of actin-myosin crossbridges and swiveling of the myosin heads. |
| Which event is required for detachment of the crossbridges? | Uptake of ATP by the myosin heads. |
| Which event, required for continued function of the neuromuscular junction, is prevented by certain pesticide and nerve gas poisons? | Breakdown of ACh by AChase. |
| As soon as Ca++ ions are released into the sarcoplasm: | Binding of calcium ions to Troponin C. |
| Curare acts as a muscle relaxant by competing with this process: | Acetylcholine binding to post-synaptic receptors on the sarcolemma. |
| An action potential is generated on the sarcolemma by which event of the following: | Opening of the voltage-gated sodium channels. |
| What event causes depolarization of the sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction? | Opening of the chemically-gated sodium channels. |
| Which of the following binds calcium ions: sarcoplasmic reticulum, troponin C, myosin or all of them | sarcoplasmic reticulum and troponin C |
| The cell bodies of spinal sensory neurons are located in: | dorsal root ganglion |
| A multipolar neuron has: | Many dendrites and only one axon attached to the cell body. |
| A tract with the name vestibulospinal would be: | descending and motor |
| Which of the following tracts does not send impulses ultimately to the cerebral cortex? spinocerebellar tract, Fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis, spinothalamic tract | spinocerebellar tract |
| Unmyelinated fiber, synapses, and cell bodies in the brain and spinal cord are located in: | gray matter |
| The period during which the trigger region is effectively inhibited but not prevented from generating an action potential is the: | relative refractory period and the period of hyperpolarization |
| The crossed extensor reflex consists of: | A withdrawal reflex on one side of the body and extension on the other side. |
| A demyelination disorder of the CNS which results in impaired and disrupted conduction along axons is: | multiple sclerosis |
| Prior sub-threshold depolarization of a reflex pathway produces: | facilitation |
| Prior sub-threshold hyperpolarization of a reflex pathway produces: | inhibition |
| High frequency stimuli result from: | A stimulus of high intensity on the body's soma. |
| Once an action potential is generated, another cannot be generated until the ion gates return to the following configuration: | Na+ activation gate closed, Na+ inactivation gate open, K+ gate closed. |
| A small local depolarization or hyperpolarization may be called: | EPSP, IPSP, graded potential |
| The relative refractory period occurs during: | closing of K+ gates when excess K+ has left the neuron. |
| When a pathway is automatically facilitated by the brain, when the proper circumstances are present, it is called: | learned reflex |
| The area said to represent intelligence and an interpretive area for language is the: | Wernicke's area |
| The receptive region of a multipolar neuron would include: | dendrites |
| Most glands are _____ by the sympathetic nervous system. | inhibited |
| Which of the following tracts is responsible for conscious sensations? | Fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis and the spinothalamic tract |
| The predominant fibers in dense regular connective tissue are: | collagen |
| The types of muscle which exhibit striations are: | skeletal and cardiac muscle |
| Both cartilage and bone possess: | lacunae |
| The _____ is derived from the canal within the primitive neural tube. | ventricles of brain and the spinal canal |
| The term "complementarity" used in Anatomy and Physiology refers to the deterministic relationship between: | Structure and function in body tissues, organs, and systems. |
| Which of the following is a way in which the somatic and autonomic nervous systems are similar? | both have motor fibers |
| For which of the following activities is the parasympathetic nervous system generally responsible? | resting and digesting |
| Oculomotor nerves are responsible for which of the following functions? | Focusing the eyes on close objects |
| Which of the following is NOT an autonomic nervous system effector? | skeletal muscle |
| Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? | skeletal muscle |
| Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation? | dilation of the pupils |
| The parasympathetic division uses only ________ as a neurotransmitter in the ganglionic neurons. | acetylcholine |
| True/False: Because the ANS is a visceral motor system, afferent pathways are of no importance and actually are rarely found. | False |
| True/False: Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and by the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings. | True |
| True/False: Most body organs are innervated by only the sympathetic division of the nervous system. | False |
| True/False: The ANS stimulates smooth and skeletal muscles and glands, whereas the somatic nervous system innervates cardiac muscles only. | False |
| Which of the following does not receive branch fibers of the vagus nerves? | Inferior hypogastric plexus |
| Why might an individual experience the phenomenon known as "referred pain"? | Visceral pain afferents travel along the same pathways as somatic pain fibers. |
| The two types of receptors that bind acetylcholine are _______ and _______ receptors. | Nicotinic; muscarinic |
| Which division of the nervous system has short preganglionic neurons? | sympathetic |
| Which of the following is NOT a function of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? | emergency action |
| What differentiates an autonomic reflex from a somatic reflex? | a two-neuron motor pathway |
| Sensory nerve endings that are located in the carotid bodies are rich in vagal fibers. How, and why, would external stimulation of the carotid artery, such as carotid massage, affect the heart rate? | The heart rate would slow down because of stimulation of the parasympathetic system. |
| The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________. | sympathetic stimulation |
| Which of the following does not describe the ANS? | a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells |
| The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________. | all of the neurotransmitters |
| Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. | sympathetic nervous system |
| The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________. | ciliary ganglion |
| Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________. | dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera |
| Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________. | X |
| The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. | a parasympathetic division |
| True/False: Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. | False |
| Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra? | first thoracic |
| The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision. | oculomotor |
| Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing form structures called ________. | splanchnic nerves |
| True/False: Is the celiac a plexus of the vagus nerve? | False |
| Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. | visceral arcs involve two motor neurons |
| Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. | increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure |
| The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________. | tenth cranial nerve |
| Parasympathetic functions include ________. | lens accommodation for close vision |
| The vagus nerve does not innervate the ________. | parotid gland |
| Sweat glands are innervated by the ________ fibers alone. | sympathetic |
| The ________ division alone stimulates the lens of the eye. | parasympathetic |
| The two cholinergic receptor types are ________ and ________. | nicotinic, muscarinic |
| The ________ receptor type is used by the heart, and when activated increases heart rate. | beta |
| Which of the following best demonstrates an example of cooperation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems? | Parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; sympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation. |
| Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the autonomic nervous system? | hypothalamus |
| Which of the following target organs/systems is affected by the sympathetic nervous system, but not affected by the parasympathetic nervous system? | Cellular metabolism and coronary blood vessels |
| Which of the following is not an antagonistic interaction of the sympathetic nervous system? | Increased cognitive functioning |
| Conduction through the autonomic efferent chain is faster than conduction in the somatic motor system. | False |
| Which autonomic neurons release norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter? | sympathetic postganglionic neurons |
| Which target organ is NOT affected by the parasympathetic division of the ANS? | adrenal medulla |
| The two divisions of the ANS normally have what relationship? | antagonistic |
| What is the effect of norepinephrine on the heart? | an increase in heart rate |
| Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the ANS? | hypothalamus |
| Fainting occurs only in warm room. What is the cause of the fainting, and how does it relate to the autonomic nervous system and to room temperature? | The fainting episodes are a result of orthostatic hypotension. The condition is exaggerated when blood supply to the skin is increased, such as when the room is warm. |
| What surgery is needed to correct Raynaud's disease; will she have anhidrosis (lack of sweating) or hyperhidrosis (profuse sweating) after? | The doctor will perform a sympathectomy, and the affected hand will suffer from anhidrosis. |
| The Ears would be ____________ to the Nose. | lateral |
| The Integumentary system is the most __________ organ system of the body. | superficial |
| The Fingers would be ___________ to the shoulder. | distal |
| Location of the epithelial tissue: simple cuboidal | tubules of the kidney |
| Location of the epithelial tissue: transitional | lining of the bladder |
| Location of the epithelial tissue: simple squamous | alveolar sacs of the lungs |
| Location of the epithelial tissue: PCCE | respiratory tract |
| Location of the epithelial tissue: stratified squamous | integumentary system |
| What is the function of adipose connective tissue? | insulates body from heat and cold |
| What is the function of osseous connective tissue? | forms your hip bone |
| What is the function of areolar connective tissue? | composes basement membrane and packages organs |
| What is the function of hyaline cartilage? | form the larynx |
| What bone markings aid in forming joints? | facet, head, ramus and condyle |
| What are the bone Marking that allows blood vessels and/or nerves to pass? | foramen |
| The most common cartilage in the body, which forms the articular cartilage, costal cartilage and Nose is __________. | hyaline cartilage |
| Once completely hardened, bone forming cells must come from the _____ for bone repair. | periosteum |
| Collagen fibers which run from the fibrous bone covering into the bone itself are called: | sharpley's fibers |
| For the bone category "long bones", the spaces within spongy bone are initially filled with: | red marrow |
| Which type of bone is a rib? | flat |
| Which type of bone is the humerus? | long |
| Which type of bone are the carpals? | short |
| Which type of bone are the vertebrae? | irregular |
| Both cartilage and bone tissues possess: | lacunae |
| All ribs articulate directly with the: | thoracic vertebrae |
| There are _____ pair of ribs. | 12 |
| The first cervical vertebra is called the: | atlas |
| Almost all growth of the _____ occurs by 2 years of age. | cranial bones |
| The last part of a long bone to harden is the: | epiphyseal plate |
| True/False: Is the coxyx part of the hip (coxal) bone? | false |
| This bony landmark of the pelvic girdle receives the head of the femur. | acetabulum |
| The type of muscle found in the intestines is _________. | smooth muscle |
| Which types of joints give you the three types of Functional Joints? | synarthroses, ampiarthroses and diarthroses |
| The type of synovial joint created by the articulation of the humerus and the ulna is a _________ joint. | hinge |
| Which muscle play a role in inspiration (i.e., drawing air into the lungs)? | diaphragm, scales and external intercostals |
| The Triceps Brachii has how many origins? | 3 |
| The superficial Flexor muscles of the forearm all originate on what bony landmark? | Medial Epicondyle of the Humerus |
| A muscle that opposes the movement of another muscle is a/an ____________. | antagonist |
| The gluteus minimus and sartorious are synnergists for what function? | abduction of the thigh |
| True or False: the "Hamstrings" are made up of the semitendinosus, the semimembranosus, and the biceps brachii. | false |
| What is the action of the: peroneus longus | extension |
| What is the action of the: tibialis anterior | dorsiflexion |
| What is the action of the: psoas major | flexion |
| Which muscle is antagonist to the: iliacus | gluteus maximus |
| What is the action of the: biceps femoris | gluteus medias |
| What is the action of the: adductor longus | vastus lateralis |
| What is the action of the: erectus abdominus | erector spinae |
| The tibialis anterior and the peroneus longus are _______ to each other. | antagonists |
| True/False: the gastrocnemius is a synnergist to the soleus. | true |
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