Munitions Systems Craftsman Block 1
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| 1. Determine Air Crew training requirments by using ______________________. Peacetime Conventional Ammunition Requirements. GMAT AFI 11-212 WR-ALC | AFI 11-212
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| 2. To whom does GACP provide annual forecast instructions | MAJCOM Munitions Staff
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| 3. Forecast for CAT B munitions using applicable table in __________. Peacetime Conventional Ammunition Requirements GMAT AFI 11-212 WR-ALC | GMAT
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| 4. GACP provides annual requirements forecast instructions to MAJCOM munitions staffs not later than __________. | 15 OCT
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| 5. What is the primary vehicle to request and allocate air-to-ground and ground munitions required for testing, training, and operational need? | Five Year Forecast
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| 6. Who hosts the allocation conference in May of each year? | GACP
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| 7. MAJCOMs use which document recorded by GACP to prepare for the GAP conference? Initial DLAR WCDO RAFT PCAR | Initial DLR
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| 8. When may an Out Of Cycle Request be submitted? | After 70% of allocation has been expended
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| 9. Which of the following will present procurement recommendations based on forecasted requirements, inventory analysis, prior procurement actions, and industrial production capabilities? | GACP
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| 10. What information will assist the Department of Defense in determining future allocation levels and the amount of munitions to procure or purchase? | Past Expenditures
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| What is used to support stock levels for munitions items w/o a Master Subsidiary Relationship Code (MSRC)? | SAAR System
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| In how many days must the MASO notify customers of excess munitions requiring turn-in action by NSN, quantity, and category code? | 7 duty days
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| 13. Customers must contact Munitions Inspection within how many days of MASO notification to schedule turn-in of munitions excess to allocation? | 14 calendar days
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| 14. The MASO submits consolidated Time-Change Item requisitions __________. Semi-Annually Quarterly Annually | Quarterly
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| 15. Who performs the final quality control on stock level process to ensure that the current fiscal year allocation document has been loaded into CAS without error? AF/AQXR GACP MAJCOM MASO | MASO
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| 16. identifies the USAF War Reserve Material pre-positioning/pre-stocking requirements at designated locations worldwide to support wartime activities. | The War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO)
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| 17. Who is responsible for developing the Munitions Employment Plan? Squadron Commander Wing CC Munitions Flight Supervision MASO | Munitions Flight Supervision
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| 18. What does an OPLAN identify that is necessary to carry out military operations in theater? | Functional Support, Resources, Special Forces
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| 19. What plan is tailored directly for munitions? ESP OPLAN IGESP MEP | MEP *Munitions Employment Plan
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| 20. What is one of the two types of site plans used in development of the Munitions Employment Plan? | IGESP In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan
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| 21. Which plan is prepared in response to actual and potential contingencies? | OPLAN Operation Plan
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| 22. What document does the Master Training Plan (MTP) utilize to employ a strategy for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements? | Master Task Listing (MTL)
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| 23. What AFI governs enlisted personnel skill-level training requirements? | AFI 36-2201
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| 24. Where are all core tasks outlined? | CFETP
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| 25. What form is created for shop specific tasks not outlined in the 623? | AF Form 797
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| 26. What is one of the trainer responsibilities? | Plan, conduct, and document training
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| 27. The trainer and supervisor may be the same individual? | True
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| 28. Trainers must plan, conduct, and evaluate training. | False - •Supervisors must plan, conduct, and evaluate training.
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| 29. Work center orientations must be conducted within 30 days of the date arrived on station. | False - Conduct and document work center orientations within 60 days of assignment
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| 30. Trainees must budget on-and off duty time to complete required training. | True
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| 31. The training manager maintains the 623 for all assigned personnel. | False-•Supervisors maintain the AF Form 623 for all assigned personnel
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| 32. Upon separation, retirement, commissioning, or promotion to master sergeant, return the 623 to the Military Personnel Flight. | False-•Upon separation, retirement, commissioning, or promotion to master sergeant, return the 623 to the individual
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| 33. The Career Field Education Training Plan is a complete history of qualifications and training completed. | True
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| 34. An individual is not required to maintain qualification on a task unless it is a part of their duty position. | True
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| 35. Transcribe within 120 days (240 days for ARC) of CFETP revision date or from date revision is posted to automated training records system | True
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| 36. Once entered into the automated system, a previously signed off task may not be deleted. | False
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| 37. AFI 36-2201V3 authorizes the use of IMDS as a method of tracking training. | True
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| 38. IMDS can only be used on a off-line terminal. *Integrated Maintenance Data System | False - •Web based program accessible through the AF Portal
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| 39. Accounts inactive for more than 15 days will be locked out. | False- •Accounts inactive for more than 30 days will be locked out.
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| 40. IMDS tracks individual users by Employee Number. | True
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| 41. The training levels for IMDS are Training Task Table, Work Center Tasks, and Unit Directed tasks. | False-•Training Task Table•Work Center Task Assignment•Individual Task Assignment
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| 42. G0-81 is also known as TBA-101. | False-•Also known as Core Automated Maintenance System-For Mobility (CAMS-FM)
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| 43. G0-81 is used primarily by AMC units for tracking individual training requirements. | True
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| 44. IMDS and G0-81 may be accessed through the AF Portal. | True
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| 45. Users request access to IMDS/G0-81 on a DD Form 1297. | False-•Users request access by filling out a DD Form 2875, System Authorization Access Request
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| 46. AMC units have been directed to utilize G0-81 as of FY 2011. | False
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| 47. Prior to handling explosive items, all personnel will be trained IAW __________. | AFI 91-202
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| 48. After developing locally written instructions, they must be approved by __________. | Squadron CC or equivalent
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| Who is responsible for enforcing personnel/explosives limits? | Supervisors
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| 50. Clearly post personnel limits for the operations being conducted at each explosives operating location. Posted limits will distinguish between supervisors, workers, and __________. | Casuals
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| 51. The munitions Crew Chief ensures crew briefings are given before performing | any operation
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| 52. Who must establish an In Progress/End Item Inspection program IAW TO 00-20-1? | MAJCOM
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| 53. Who is responsible for compiling a list of In Progress/End Item Inspections? | Operations Officer/Maintenance (MX) Superintendent
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| 54. Which of the following is not an example of an In Progress/End Item Inspection? AIM 9L/M- Bomb body curvature -Bomb fuze settings- Trailer cotter pins | Bomb body curvature
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| 55. Which of the following individuals places their signature in the 'inspected by' block of the applicable form or automated system? | IPI Inspector
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| 56. After review, where are compiled lists of In Progress/End Item Inspections sent for approval? | Maintenance Group Commander (MXG)
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| 57. Prior to filling out an AFTO Form 244/245, individuals must reference _________. | TO 00-20-1
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| 58. When using the AFTO Form 244, identification of the system or equipment is entered in | Part 1
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| 59. Use this format when documenting the date on an AFTO Form 244/245: | YYYMMDD
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| 60. When applying this symbol, you restrict an item from use: | Red X
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| 61. After a piece of equipment has been involved in an incident significant to its history, document the incident using this form. | AFTO Form 95
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| 62. What prescribes the items and quantities of equipment required to perform the mission? | Allowance Standards
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| 63. What system is designed to account for and manage all Air Force equipment? | AFEMS * Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS)
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| 64. What is the minimum interval for conducting equipment inventories? | 365 Days
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| 65. What is the minimum interval for conducting equipment inventories? | Both Outgoing and Incoming Custodian
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| 66. What is a listing of equipment utilized by equipment custodians called? | CA/CRL *Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)
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| 67. What provides supervisors a list of personnel appointed to perform, evaluate, and or inspect work of a critical nature? | Special Certification Roster
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| 68. Who approves individuals listed on the SCR? | MOO/MX SUPT
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| 69. What is the lowest skill level normally approved to be on the SCR? | 7-level
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| 70. What form is used to add/remove personnel from the SCR? | AF IMT 2426
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| 71. Who submits personnel for approval to be listed on the SCR? | Work Center supervisor
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| 72. Which storage facilities require exterior and door lighting? | Buildings storing Cat I and Cat II munitions
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| 73. What is the minimum perimeter fence height required for MSAs? | 6 ft.
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| 74. Who assigns Controlled Inventory Item Codes (CIICs) to munitions items? | Item manager/system manager
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| 75. What are the sub-categories of Controlled Inventory Item Codes (CIIC)? | Classified, Sensitive, Pilferable
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| 76. Risk categories are assigned based on which of the following? | Security and Protection
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| 77. How many levels of IDS are required for Category I and II Missiles and Rockets and Category I and II ammunition and/or explosives? | Two
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| 78. What category of CIIC requires protection in the interest of national security? | Classified
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| Which of the following do not need to be segregated from remaining stocks using ropes, tape, placards, painted lines or other highly visible means? Unserviceable assets (CC's H, J, P and V) Serviceable assets (CC's B, C and D) | Serviceable assets (CC's B, C and D)
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| 80. Which type of storage configuration is the easiest to organize? | General Bulk Stack Storage
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| 81. Which type of configuration allows for fast response to contingencies or operational changes? | Complete Round Storage
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| 82. Which type of storage configuration can dramatically increase NEW of magazines or open stacks? | Buffered Storage
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| 83. Items in which of the following risk categories will be given storage priority in facilities with IDS? | I, II, and Classified
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| 84. What height of dunnage is required if munitions are stored outside on an asphalt surface? | 4”
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| 85. If munitions are stored inside an igloo on a concrete floor, how many inches of dunnage is required? | 2”
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| 86. If munitions are stored outside on a dirt pad, how much dunnage is required? | 6”
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| 87. What are your options when the dirt on top of an igloo gets below 24 inches? | Recover the igloo by adding dirt to get the 24 inches required Re-site the building
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| 88. Provides training to individual technicians and leaders | Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
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| 89. Ensures munitions facilities sited for explosives storage are used for their intended purpose. | Squadron Commander ( or Equivalent)
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| 90. Who briefs OG and MXG on WRM posture? | Munitions Supervision
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| 91. Storage structure ventilators may be closed ____________. | For Blowing sand/snow
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| Earth covered igloos with less than 24 inches of earth cover must be corrected within how many days or be reclassified? | 90 Days
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| 93. What types of separation should you consider when site planning? | Public Traffic Route Distance Inhabited Building Distance Intermagazine Distance Intraline Distance
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| 94. What is defined as the distance to be maintained between two AE storage locations? | Intermagazine Distance
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| 95. What is defined as the distance to be maintained between any two AE related buildings within an AE related operating line? | Intraline Distance
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| 96. What is a building, facility, or site in which operations pertaining to the manufacturing, processing, handling, or assembling of ammunition and explosives are done? | Operating Location
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| 97. What are structures, other than AE-related buildings, occupied by personnel or the General Public? | Inhabited Building
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| 98. What is the location of a quantity of AE that will create a blast, fragment, thermal, or debris hazard in the event of an accidental explosion of its contents? | Potential Explosive Site
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| 99. What report may be used in lieu of the AF Form 4331 to record re-warehousing actions? | AM567A
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| 100. Use direct input methods or which form to track all munitions movements? | AF Form 4331
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| 101. What percentage of all movements is physically verified at least weekly? | 10%
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| 102. What percentage of all movements are verified against the transaction history listing? | 100%
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| 103. After an A/C lands, reconciliation is performed by the weapons expediter per this instruction. | AFI 21-201
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| 104. True or False? The goal of AF Nuclear Surety is to incorporate maximum safety consistent with operational needs. | True
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| 105. High fences, barbed wire, 2 person concept, locks, alarms, WS3 vaults (USAFE only), and security forces are all positive measures to ensure adequate security for nuclear weapons. | True
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| 106. Each person in the Nuclear Surety program has specific responsibilities as outlined in AFI 91-201. | False as outlined in AFI 91-101
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| 107. A design feature, procedure, safety rule, or accident prevention or mitigation measure that works to reduce the likelihood, severity, or consequence of an accidental or deliberate threat involving a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system is called | False-Positive Measure
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| 108. Nuclear Surety training will be conducted initially upon assignment and annually thereafter (every 24 months). | False-will be conducted initially upon assignment and annually thereafter (every 12 months).
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| 109. ANY Nuclear Safety deficiency which does or could degrade nuclear safety is known as: | Dull Sword
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| 110. ANY Nuclear Safety deficiency which does or could degrade nuclear safety is known as: | External
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| 111. Malfunction, failure, or anomaly involving the command and control system which results in indications of critical function activation is considered | Operational
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| 112. Malfunctions or failures (catastrophic) to an intrusion detection system monitoring equipment are considered what type of incident? | Security
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| 113. Nuclear surety violations, where there is the opportunity to tamper with or damage the nuclear weapon, component or system are considered what type of incident? | Personnel
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| 114. What is the proper signature format used on equipment forms? | Interim
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| 115. What type of certification allows personnel to perform duties without restrictions as long as the AF Form is completed and signed? | Initial
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| 116. What is a temporary removal from PRP status referred to as? | Suspension
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| 117. What is a characteristic of a Suspension from PRP? | Last a maximum of 120 days
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| 118. What is not a characteristic of PRP Temporary Decertification? | Longer than 365 days
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| 119. What AFI requires development of an NWRM Fundamentals Course? | AFI 20-110
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| 120. What is considered a passing score on the NWRM Fundamentals Course? | 80%
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| 121. What is an Air Force approved NWRM listing? | Master NWRM listing
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| 122. What is the ability to identify and account for material anywhere in the supply chain? | Positive Inventory Control
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| 123. What are the two MIL-STDs used for marking and packaging NWRM assets? | MIL-STD 129/2073
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