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Ch. 31 (Egan's) - Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders

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Question
Answer
how many infants does neonatal respiratory distress syndrome affect each year in the US?   60,000-70,000  
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what is another name for RDS and what is RDS?   hyaline membrane disease; a disease of prematurity  
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what are the 4 major factors in the pathophysiology of RDS?   qualitative surfactant deficiency, dec. alveolar surface area, incr. small airways compliance, presence of DA  
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what does the severe hypoxemia and acidosis increase in RDS?   PVR  
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because of the low surfactant production, what happens to the alveolar? from this, what happens?   instability and collapse, leads to increased WOB; incr. surface tension, fluid in alveoli  
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the increased PVR leads to what? which overall leads too?   increases right-to-left shunting through the PDA; worsened acidosis, hypoxemia, surfactant production  
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what is the first sign in RDS? what occurs next?   tachypnea (occurs soon after birth); retractions, paradoxical breathing, grunting, nasal flaring  
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what does chest auscultation reveal?   fine inspiratory crackles  
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if central cyanosis is present, what is likely that the infant has?   severe hypoxemia  
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what mimics the aspect of RDS?   systemic hypotension, hypothermia, poor perfusion  
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what is definitive diagnosis of RDS made with? and what is typically found?   chest radiography; diffuse, hazy, reticulogranular densities w/ air bronchograms w/ low lung vols  
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what are the traditional support modes used to manage RDS? what else has been added?   CPAP and PEEP; surfactant replacement therapy and high-freq ventilation  
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if the condition is not severe, what is indicated?   a trial of nasal CPAP, 4-6 cmH2O (nasal prongs preferred)  
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when should MV with PEEP be initiated?   if oxygenation doesn't improve w/ CPAP or if the pt is apneic or acidotic  
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what is the goal of MV for RDS?   prevent lung collapse and maintain alveolar inflation  
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what type of tubes are used for ETT? and what type of ventilation is used for infants?   uncuffed; pressure  
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what does optimal PEEP provide for RDS? what is done if high PaCO2 persists? what should the PIP be to minimize potential for volutrauma?   lowest PaCO2, highest PaO2; must increase f or PIP; less than 30 cmH2O, lower for more immature infants  
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what are the 3 surfactant preparations to manage RDS?   1. beractant (survanta) 2. calfactant (infasurf) 3. poractant alfa (curosurf)  
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how is the surfactant given to infant?   liquid suspensions that are instilled directly into trachea; all given through ETT  
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what is the dosing, ml/kg, administration, and dosing interval for beractant (survanta)?   100; 4; 1/4 dose quickly in each of 4 positions; Q6 or more often  
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what is the dosing, ml/kg, administration, and dosing interval for calfactant (infasurf)?   100; 3; 1/2 dose slowly supine then rotated; Q12 or more often  
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what is the dosing, ml/kg, administration, and dosing interval for poractant alfa (curosurf)?   100-200; 1.25-2.5; whole or 1/2 dose supine; Q12 or more often  
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what is the most common respiratory disorder of the newborn?   transient tachypnea of the newborn (type II RDS)  
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what is the likely cause of TTN?   delayed clearance of fetal lung liquid  
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how much does the birth canal squeeze normally accounts for clearance? what accounts for the final third?   2/3; lyphatics' absorption (immature lymphatics impairs absorption)  
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what are the first clinical manifestations of TTN?   tachypnea; normal VA, pH, and PaCO2  
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what does the chest radiograph reveal?   looks like pneumonia; hyperinflation, pleural effusions, perihilar streaking (lymphatic engorgement)  
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what is the most common treatment that infants respond to in TTN?   low FiO2 by infant oxygen hood or nasal cannula; need higher FiO2, use CPAP  
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what is given once a culture is obtained?   antibiotics  
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how long should it take to show clearing of the lungs on chest radiograph and clinical improvement?   24-48 hours  
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what is meconium aspiration syndrome a disease of? what does it involve and associated with?   term and near-term infants; aspiration of meconium in central airways of the lung; perinatal depression and asphyxia  
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what does meconium consist of?   mucopolysaccharides, cholesterol, bile acids and salts, intestinal enzymes, others  
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amniotic fluid stained with meconium is found in approximately ___ of all births. it is rare if the infant is less than ___ weeks' gestation age. ___ of infants w/ inhaled meconium clear lungs spontaneously.   12%; 37; 95  
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what is the real causative agent in MAS?   fetal asphyxia that precedes after aspiration  
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what are the 3 primary problems of MAS?   1. pulmonary obstruction 2. lung tissue damage 3. pulmonary HTN  
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the lung tissue injury caused by MAS is _________ __________.   chemical pneumonia  
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what is evidence that the fetus is at high risk of MAS?   thick meconium, fetal tachycardia, absent fetal cardiac accelerations during labor  
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what do infants normally have with MAS?   gasping respirations, tachypnea, grunting, retractions  
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what does the chest radiograph show?   irregular pulmonary densities (areas of atelectasis), hyperlucent areas (hyperinflation from air-trapping)  
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what does the ABG normally show? and what happens in severe cases?   hypoxemia with mixed resp and metabolic acidosis; R-to-L shunting and persistent PHTN  
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what should be done first for treatment?   immediate intubation and suctioning; after ETT is inserted, it is removed to see meconium, if there is new ETT is inserted  
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what is indicated if the primary problem is hypoxemia? what if resp acidosis is severe and excessive WOB?   CPAP; MV  
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what is shown to decrease the risk of air leak in MAS?   HFV and SIMV  
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what has become a major adjunt in the management of persistent pulmonary hypertension?   nitric oxide (DO NOT use high mean airway pressures)  
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what infants may have bronchopulmonary dysplasia?   infants with severe respiratory failure in the first few weeks of life  
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what have been implicated in the origin of BPD?   immaturity, genetics, malnutrition, O2 toxicity, MV  
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what are the intiating factors of BPD?   atelectrauma and volutrauma  
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what conditions lead to BPD?   hyperoxia/hypoxia, mechanical forces, vascular maldevelopment, inflammation, nutrition, genetics  
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__________ is the term coined to describe loss of alveolar volume that is both a consequence and a cause of lung injury. ____________ is the term used to describe local overinflation (and thus stretch) of airways and alveoli.   atelectrauma; volutrauma (both increase lung injury)  
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what does atelectrauma and volutrauma cause a need for?   increased supplemental O2 concentrations  
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what is the "new" BPD?   decreased alveolarization rather than prominent airway damage of the "old" BPD  
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what occurs approximately 2-3 weeks of life?   progressive respiratory distress (needs O2 and MV)  
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what does the chest radiograph for severe disease show?   atelectasis, emphysema, fibrosis diffusely intermixed  
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what does the ABG look like?   hypoxemia and hypercapnia secondary to airway obstruction, air-trapping, pulm fibrosis, atelectasis  
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what is the best management of BPD?   prevention  
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_________ should be delivered early in the course of treatment.   surfactant  
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what is involved in the treatment steps of BPD?   minimize additional lung damage and prevent pulmonary HTN and cor pulmonale  
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________ are given as needed to decrease pulmonary edema; __________ are given to manage existing pulmonary infection. ______ ___________ for retained secretions. ____________ therapy to decrease RAW.   diuretics; antibiotics; chest physiotherapy; bronchodilator  
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what is given to produce substantial short-term improvement in lung function, often allowing rapid weaning from ventilatory support?   steroid therapy with dexamethasone  
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what are the periods of apnea of prematurity in infants?   5-10 seconds followed by 10-15 seconds of rapid respiration  
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when are the apneic spells abnormal?   1. they last longer than 15 secs 2. they are associated with cyanosis, pallor, hypotonia, or bradycardia  
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when is it considered central apnea?   if no effort to breathe occurs during a spell  
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when is it considered obstructive apnea?   if breathing efforts occur but obstruction prevents air flow  
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when is it considered mixed apnea?   combination, that starts as obstructive and develops into central  
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premature infants have an immature ____________ of ___________ ______.   chemo-control; respiratory drive  
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what should be managed in infants with apnea? and what can terminate apnea periods in infants?   underlying cause if identified; tactile stimulation  
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______ is used to reduce mixed and obstructive apnea by splinting the upper airway.   CPAP  
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what does apnea secondary to prematurity respond well to? if they dont respond well to this, what is used?   theophylline and caffiene; doxapram  
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_________ decreases hypoxic depression by increasing oxygen-carrying capacity. _________ __________ provides support when respiratory effort is inadequate.   transfusion; mechanical ventilation  
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when does periods of apnea begin to disappear?   37-44 of postmenstrual age with no apparent long-term effects  
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what is a common denominator in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn?   return to fetal circulatory pathways, usually because of high PVR  
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what does this condition result in?   further R-L shunting, severe hypoxemia, and metabolic and resp acidosis  
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what 2 anatomic shunts does the fetus have?   foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus  
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the intrauterine total pulmonary blood flow is ____.   low  
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when is it definite that the infant has PPHN?   if the PVR does not decrease to allow the PVR/SVR ratio to become less than 1  
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what are the 3 fundamental types of PPHN?   1. vascular spasm 2. increased muscle wall thickness 3. decreased cross-sectional area of pulmonary vessels  
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what is vascular spasm?   acute event thats triggered by hypoxemia, hypoglycemia, hypotension, and pain  
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what is increased wall thickness?   chronic condition develops in utero in response to several different factors (chronic fetal hypoxia, incr pulm blood flow, pulm venous obstruction)  
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what is decreased cross-sectional area of vasculature related to?   hypoplasia of the lungs and occurs with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, absent kidneys, and decreased amniotic fluid  
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when should PPHN be suspected?   when rapidly changing SpO2 hypoxemia is worse than indicated on chest radiograph  
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how is this detected?   performing preductal and postductal SpO2 (pred should be >5% post)  
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what is the initial therapy for PPHN?   removal of underlying cause, hypoxemia w/ O2 and surfactant for RDS  
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what if correction does not correct hypoxemia?   needs intubation and MV; sedation, paralysis; HFV; inhaled nitric oxide; ECMO (if all fails)  
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what are the three fundamental mechanisms of airway abnormalities?   internal obstruction, external obstruction, disruption  
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what does internal obstruction include?   laryngomalacia, tracheomalacia, laryngeal webs, tracheal stenosis, hemangiomas  
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what do these conditions manifest as?   inspiratory stridor, gas trapping, expiratory wheezing, accessory resp muscle activity  
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what is caused by external obstruction?   hemangiomas, neck or thoracic masses, vascular rings  
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airway disruptions usually are related to ____________ ________ in a newborn.   tracheoesophageal fistula (usually associated with esophageal atresia)  
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what are the 5 types of TEF?   esophageal atresia w/ proximal fistula; distal fistula; w/ both; w/out either; w/ intact esophagus w/ H fistula  
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what is the most common of these? least common?   esophageal atresia w/ a distal fistula (85%-90%); H fistula  
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what do all these malformations manifest as?   difficulty swallowing, bubbling/frothing at mouth, choking  
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what is TEF managed with?   surgical ligation of the fistula and reconnection of the interrupted esophagus  
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what is the most common severe lung malformation?   congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation of the lung (C-CAM)  
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what is the usual treatment of C-CAM?   surgical removal of the affected lobe  
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what are less common lung malformations?   pulmonary sequestration and lobar emphysema  
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what is congenital diaphragmatic hernia?   severe disease that usually manifests in newborns as severe respiratory distress  
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what is the pathophysiologic mechanism of CDH?   lung hypoplasia and abnormal development  
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what are the 2 types of hernia?   1. Bochdalek hernia (lateral/posterior, left) 2. Morgagni hernia (medial/anterior, either side)  
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what might physical examination include in CDH?   scaphoid abdomen, decreased breath sounds, displaced heart sounds, severe cyanosis  
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what is the initial treatment?   intubation, paralysis, MV, continuous gastric suction  
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what is delayed in tx?   surgical repair for PVR to fall  
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what can large defects in the abdominal wall cause?   severe respiratory compromise, most commonly omphalocele  
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what is omphalocele?   abdominal wall defect involving insertion of umbilical cord  
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what must omphalocele be distinguised from?   gastroschesis (abdominal wall defect that is completely separate from the insertion of UC)  
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what diseases are included in poor neuromuscular control?   spinal muscular atrophy, congenital myasthenia gravis, myotonic dystrophy, and others  
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what are the 2 large categories of congenital heart diseases?   cyanotic and acyanotic  
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what are cyanotic heart diseases?   blood shunts from R to L, bypassing the lungs, thus deoxygenated  
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what are acyanotic heart diseases?   blood shunts from L to R, thus causes CHF  
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what are the 2 most common cyanotic heart diseases?   1. tetralogy of Fallot 2. transposition of the great arteries  
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what does tetralogy of Fallot include?   1. pulmonary stenosis 2. ventricular septal defect 3. dextroposition of aorta 4. RV hypertrophy  
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what does a mild case manifest as?   heart murmur, intermittent severe cyanotic spells, infant squatting/entering knee chest position  
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what does a severe case manifest as?   heart murmur and severe continuous cyanosis  
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what is transposition of the great arteries?   the heart disease that most frequently causes severe cyanosis  
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what does it manifest as?   mod-severe cyanosis immediately after birth  
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what treatment is frequently needed?   emergency atrial septostomy (cutting a hole in the wall b/t two atria)  
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what is the goal?   allow PVR to decrease and then perform arterial switch operation in the 2nd or 3rd wk of life  
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what is the most common congenital heart disease?   ventricular septal defect  
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what is among the most severe of congenital heart diseases?   hypoplastic left heart syndrome  
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what does VSD result in and when does it appear?   left-to-right shunt and CHF; 6-8 wks as PVR falls  
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what is the most common type of atrial septal defect?   small, slit-like opening that persists after closure of the foramen ovale  
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what is patent ductus arteriosus treated with?   indomethacin (pharmacologic) or ligation (surgical)  
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what are the 3 accepted treatments of hypoplastic left heart syndrome?   comfort care (allows infant to die), palliative surgical procedure, transplantation  
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what is the leading cause of death among infants younger than 1 year in the US?   SIDS  
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what infant normally dies to SIDS?   preterm african-american boy born to a poor mother <20 w/ inadequate prenatal care  
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what age is most suseptible and when does it normally occur?   1-3 months; night during winter months  
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the _______ sleeping position has been strongly associated with increased risk of SIDS.   prone  
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_________ is the treatment of SIDS and what does this include?   prevention; identification of risk, trained in apnea monitoring/CPR, supine/side-lying position, reduce soft objects during sleep  
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what is gastroesophageal reflux disease?   regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus  
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what are the respiratory problems associated with GERD?   reactive airway disease, aspiration pneumonia, laryngospasm, stridor, chronic cough, choke, apnea  
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___________ is an acute infection of the lower respiratory tract, usually caused by the RSV.   bronchiolitis  
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what is the clinical manifestations of bronchiolitis?   inflammation/obstruction of small bronchi/bronchioles  
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when does it occur?   after a viral upper respiratory infection (fever, cough, dyspnea, tachypnea, wheezes)  
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what does the chest radiograph show?   hyperinflation with areas of consolidation  
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what is the treatment of bronchiolitis?   relief of airway obstruction and hypoxemia; systemic hydration, croup tent, O2 hood, NC  
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_________ is given to decrease the length of MV in severe cases.   ribavirin  
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______ is a viral disorder of the upper airway that normally results in subglottic swelling and obstruction.   croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)  
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what is viral infection resulting in subglottic swelling?   the most common cause of obstruction in 6 month-6 year olds  
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when do the symptoms become evident?   after 2-3 days of nasal congestion, fever, coughing; stridor, barking cough, dyspnea, cyanosis, exhaustion  
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what does the chest radiograph show?   subglottic narrowing of trachea, "steeple sign"  
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what is the treatment of croup?   cool mist; supplemental O2; aerosolized racemic epinephrine and dexamethasone; budesonide; MV  
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__________ is an acute and often life-threatening infection of the upper airway that causes severe obstruction secondary to supraglottic swelling. what is the most common cause?   epiglottitis; H. influenzae type B infection  
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what are the clinical manifestations of epiglottitis?   high fever, sore throat, stridor, labored breathing, muffled voice  
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what does the LATERAL NECK radiograph show?   epiglottis thickened and flattened ("thumb sign"), aryepiglottic folds swollen, vallecula may not be visualized  
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what is the treatment of epiglottitis?   elective intubation under general anesthesia, place on CPAP w/ low PSV (3 cmH2O)  
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what is the most common lethal genetic disease among caucasian americans? what does it involve?   CF; gene mutation affecting chloride movement, particularly in exocrine glands  
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what are the most severely affected organs?   sweat glands, pancreas, lungs; skin is salty  
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what does pancreatic insufficiency lead to?   malnutrition, diarrhea, steatorrhea  
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what is the leading cause of death among patients with CF?   complications of lung disease  
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what do the patients produce?   copious amounts of thick sputum; retained secretions lead to recurrent infections, atelectasis, pneumonia or lung abscesses  
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what is the treatment of CF?   pancreatic enzyme supplements; CPT, exercise; DNase, 7% saline; antibiotics (tobramycin); ibuprofen, bronchodilators  
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what is the most commonly used form of lung transplantation in the treatment of CF?   double-lung transplantation  
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what is the median survival age of patients with CF?   38 years  
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