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CPT-1 FINAL EXAM

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Question
Answer
What is ASPT   American society of Phlebotomy Technicians (national certifying organization)  
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What is AMT   American Medical Technologist (national certifying organization)  
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What is ASCP   American Society of Clinical Pathologist (national certifying organization)  
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What is NPA   National Phlebotomy Association (national certifying oranization)  
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What is NCCT   National Center for Competency Testing (National certifying organization)  
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What is NHA   National Healthcareer Association (national certifying organization)  
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How many CEU units do you need every two years to renew your state phlebotomy license?   6 Continuing education units  
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Define Certification   Issuance by an official body of a certificate to a person indicating that he/she has met certain requirements  
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define Licensure   legal permission grated by the state to engage in an occupation or activity  
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define Reciprocity   One state recognizes the licensure granted by another state  
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Define integrity   Dedicated to maintaining high standards  
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define empathy   ability to understand another's feelings  
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define discretion   use of good judgement and prudence  
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define diplomacy   use of tact and understanding  
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define confidentiality   ability to safeguard patient privacy  
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define ethics   moral duty to determine the difference between right and wrong  
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define honesty   always telling the truth regardless of the situation  
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communication skills   verbal, non verbal, and active listening  
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define compassion   a gentle caring attitude  
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define dependability   being punctual and completing tasks in a timely manner  
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define accountability   being responsible for your actions  
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what does the LABORATORY DIRECTOR do   interprets results to diagnose disease...can be a pathologist or bioanalyst  
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what does the LABORATORY ADMINISTRATOR or AKA MANAGER do   Day to day operations of lab... liaison between director and lab staff  
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What do TECHNICAL SUPERVISORS do   daily work schedules and staffing ...  
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Define CLS   Clinical laboratory scientist  
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What does CLS do   Directs work of other lab staff...MAINTAIN QA standards ...  
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How do you become a CLS   4year med tech program, 1yr. internship, board exam  
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What is MLT   Medical laboratory technicians  
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What are CLT   Clinical Laboratory tecnicians  
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What do MLT/CLT do   test BLOOD, URINE, LYMPH...report abnormal test values, train new employees..2YR trainins in medical lab program, certification for approved agency  
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What do Blood bank technologist do   Test for BLOOD GROUPS, ANTIGENS, and ANTIBODY IDENTIFICATION AND COMPATIBILITY  
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What are the major divisions within laboratory departments   Clinical analysis...Surgical/anatomical pathology  
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What is the purpose of the chemistry dept.   Makes test more efficient and quality assurance testing more accurate ...(ITS THE LARGEST DEPARTMENT)  
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What is the purpose of microbiology dept.   Analyzes for presence of microorganisms Ex. of tests C&S , GRAM STAIN TEST  
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What is the purpose of the immunology/serology dept.   Determines the antigen-antibody reaction of the body (identifies bacterial growth in blood culture bottles)  
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What is the purpose of the blood bank dept.   Blood typing and antibody tests..Blood from donors is tested here before being used for transfusions ..THE MAKE NO MISTAKES  
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what is the purpose of the Urinalysis dept   cam be performed in sevaral areas of the lab 3parts..PHYSICAL, CHEMICAL, MICROSCOPIC ex. of test....CLEAN CATCH SPECIMEN TEST  
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CLSI use to be called what   NCCLS National Committee For Clinical Laboratory Standards  
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What is CLSI   Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute  
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What does CLSI do   Establishes prcedural guidelines for all areas of the lab(GOLD STANDARD)  
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What is CAP   College of AMerican Pathologists  
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What does CAP do   Sets standards for phlebotomy ...Proficiency testing/lab testing by pathologist and CLSs.....Compares results to labs across country  
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Define JCAHO   Joint Commission on Accreditation Of Health care organization  
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What is the purpose of JCAHO   Accrediting agency for hospitals and nursing homes ..inspects every two years ..ENFORCE STANDARDS ESABLISHED BY CLSI ..WORKS WITH CAP to provide lab accreditation  
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Define CLIA   Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988  
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What is the purpose of CLIA   Enacted by congress to regulate all labs..Include guidelines ...QUALITY CONTROL..QUALITY ASSURANCE...RECORD KEEPING,,PERSONAL QUALIFICATIONS NO AN ORGANIZATION  
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What is the objective of CLIA program   ENSURE QUALITY LAB TESTING  
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What is an Infection   Invasion of the body with pathogenic(diease causing) bacteria, fungi,viruses, protozoa or parasites  
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What is the primary goal of infection control program   Reduce the risk of endemic and epidemic infections in patients personnel and visitors  
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Define Bloodborne Pathogen   Pathogenic Organisms in blood that cause disease  
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define parenteral   Piercing mucous membranes or skin barriers  
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What is the CHAIN OF INFECTION   Infectious Agent...Reservoir..Exit Pathway..Means of Transmission...Entry Pathway..Susceptible Host  
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Define Pathogen   disease causing organism  
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give ex. of an infectious agent   Becteria, fungus, protozoon, rickettsia, virus  
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give ex. of RESERVOIR   animal, human, equiment, food, soil, water  
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give ex. of EXIT PATHWAY   Blood,exudates, excretions, secretions  
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give ex. of MEANS OF TRANSMISSION   airborne, contact, droplet, vector, vehicle  
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give ex. of ENTRY PATHWAY   body orficies, mucous membranes, broken skin  
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give ex. of susceptible host   elderly, newborn, acute/chronically ill patients, immune suppressed unvaccinated  
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What is a NOSOCOMIAL INFECTION   infection acquired AFTER a person has enetered a hospital, clinic, nursing home, or rehab faciility  
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What is a common nosocomial infection   UTI ..Urinary tract infections  
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Standard/Universal precautions is enforced by   OSHA and established by CDC .center of disease control  
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you should change your gloves every   30min  
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to disinfect equipment and surfaces use   1:10 bleach solution  
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What are the body's natural barriers   Skin and mucous membranes  
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define STRICT ISOLATION   for HIGHLY contagious disease.EX. HIV.  
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Define Enteric Isolation   For patients with intestinal infections  
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define Contact Isolation   for patients with diseases that can be spread by direct contact ..ex MRSA,VRE, and C. Difficile  
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define Protective/reverse/neutropenic isolation   for non infectious patiets who may be susceptible to infection..ex..Geriatric patients.. newborns  
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define Airborne isolation   for patients with diseases spread by droplets that are smaller than 5micrometers example of diseases (TB) Varicela zoster (chicken pox) and measels (SPECIAL REQUIRMENT.NEGATIVE PRESSURE ROOM)  
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define droplet isolation   for patients with diseases spread droplets that are larger than 5 micrometers (example PERTUSSIS..meningitis, German measles  
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What is OSHA   occupational Safety and health administration  
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What is the purpose of OSHA   Assures every person safe and healthful working conditions (FEDERAL AGENCY)  
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If a glass is broken you should remove it with a   DUST PAN  
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Sharp containers should be replaced when they are   2/3 full  
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what is the function of the Adrenal Glands   Prodeuce hormones .EPINEPHRINE and NOR EPINEPHRINE...located on top of each kidney  
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what is the function of the ALVEOLAR SACS   Aloow for diffusion between air and blood  
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What is Amoiotic fluid   Fluid from the AMONIOTIC SAC  
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what is the AORTA   Largest artery in the body  
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what are ARTERIES   Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart  
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what are the ARTERIOLES   Smaller branches of the arteries  
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What is the ATRIA   Upper chambers of the heart  
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What are Blood vessels   The transport blood ..Include ARTERIES ARTERIOULES CAPILLARIES VENULES and VEINS  
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What are capollaries   Microscopic, Unicellular blood Vessels linking arteriols to venules  
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What does the INFERIOR VENA CAVA do?   Brings deoxygenated blood to the heart from lower parts of the body  
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What does the lymphatic system do   Maintains fluid balance, defends against disease, absorption of fats from blood stream  
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what is PERITONEAL FLUID   fluid from the abdominal cavity  
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What is PLEURAL FLUID   fluid from the lung cavity  
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What is the function of the superior vena cava   Brings deoxygenated blood from the head, neck, chest region of the heart  
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What is SYNOVIAL FLUID   fluid from joints  
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what do veins do   carry deoxygenated blood towards the heart  
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what are venules   smaller branches of veins  
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what are ventricles   they are the lower chambers of the heart  
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what is BLEEDING TIME   test to assess PLATELET PLUG formation in CAPILLARIES (pre surgical)  
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What is BUFFY COAT   after centrifuation of a specimen mixed with an anticoagulant, the layer between the plasma and erythrocytes..CONTAINS WBC and PLATELETS  
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what is a DIFFERENTIAL TEST   a test that categorizes blood cells and abnormalities present  
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what does EDTA do   prevents blood from clotting by binding calcium  
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Hematocrit is also known as   PCV ..Packed cell volume  
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what are LYMPHOCYTES   non-granulocytic WBCs( ASSIST IN IMMUNITY and PRODUCTION OF ANTIBODIES  
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what are MONOCYTES   Largest Leukocyte...Assist in IMMUNE SYSTEM  
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What is plasma   it is the liquid portion of whole blood  
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what is platelets   blood cells that aid in blood clot formation  
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what is serum   it is the liquid portion of CLOTTED blood  
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Define Hematoma   Localized leakage of blood into tissues (most common complication of phlebotomoy)  
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define OCCLUDED VEIN   Closed or constricted vein  
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Define Sclerosed Vein   Vein that becomes hardened (possible due to fatty deposits)  
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Define Bactermia   Presence of bacteria in the blood  
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What is the purpose of C&S test   a test to identify the microorganism and the antibiotic most effective for treamtent  
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define O&P   ova and parasites  
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define Septicemia   Presence of bacterial toxins  
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define ACIDOSIS   condition when blood pH is below 7.35  
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define ALKALOSIS   condition when blood is pH is above 7.45  
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What is a BUN TEST   test to determine amount of urea in blood  
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define LIPEMIC   Cloudy/milky appearance of serum due to excessive lipid content  
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what is POST PRANDIAL GLUCOST TEST   glucose test performed after ingestion of a meal  
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what is the PREANALYTICAL PHASE   when tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing  
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define TDM   therapeutic drug monitoring  
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what is the purpose of Citrate   keeps blood from clotting by binding calcium  
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define fibrin   substance that makes up a clot  
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what is the purpose of heparin the green tubes   prevents blood clotting by inactivating thrombin and prothrombin  
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what is BASAL STATE   patients condition early in the morning.. 12hour after last ingestion of food (fasting)  
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define DHS   department of Health Services  
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What is a Fistula   an artificial shunt or passage(vein and artery fused together)  
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define Hemolysis   rupture of erthrocytes  
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define metabolic acidosis   condition when the kidneys cannot eliminate acid substances (can cause renal failure)  
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define metabolic alkalosis   condition resulting from excessive vomiting or an abnormal secretion of certain homrmones that cause excess elimination of hydtogen ions (too much base and not enough acid)  
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what is the purpose of OSHA   Ensures a safe working environment  
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what is the purpose of QC quality control   daily control used in analytic testing to determine accurace in precision  
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define QNS   quantity not sufficient  
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If you leave a tourniquet for more than one minute it can cause   Hemoconcentration  
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define ANATOMY   study of the structure of an organism  
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define Physiology   Study of how the body functions  
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define Pathophysiology   Study of disease and how it affects the body  
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Why do we need to draw blood   provided information about vital bodily function  
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Blood is the primary means of transport for   Nutrients, waste, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and hormones  
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What should a blood draw ALWAYS start with   a REQUISITION  
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a requisition can be written in what ways   Hand written, preprinted or computer generated  
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what information may not be found on a requisition   patient diagnosis ...patients gender...patients billing information ..  
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If any doubts at any time of a tube what should you do   DISCARD  
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what are the 3primary methods for venipuncture   Evacuated tube method (straight needle)....Butterfly Method...Syringe Method  
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Additives are usually either ..?   anticoagulant or preservative  
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Light Blue Tube   ANTICOAGULANT: sodium citrate Prevents coagulation by binding Ca+ ex. of test....PT, PTT  
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RED TUBE (Serum Tube)   No additive ..Commonly Requested tube .. (SEROLOGY, SERUM CHEMISTRY TESTS) ex. of test Cholesterol  
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Tiger Top (SST)   Clot Activator ...Gel Separator -SST=Serum separator tube ..(SEROLOGY, SERUM CHEMISTRY  
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Gold (SST)   Clot Activator..Gel Separator (SEROLOGY, SERUM CHEMISTRY TESTS)  
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Green Tube   Anticoagulant: Sodium Heparin, Lithium heparin, or Ammonia heparin ...Prevents coagulation by inhibiting the action of THROMBIN(a clotting factor) (PLASMA CHEMISTRY TEST)  
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Lavender Tube   Anticoagulant: Sodium or K+ EDTA ..Prevents clotting by binding Ca2+ ..Prevents platelet aggregation (clumping) ..Preserves the shape of the cells ..CANNOT be used for coagulation studies Tests: CBC (HEMATOLOGY STUDIES) "preserves glucose up to 5d  
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Gray Tube   Contains an anticoagulant and a preservative .. Anticoagulant=POTASSIUM OXALATE Binds Ca2+..Preservative: SODIUM FLOURIDE ..Ihibits the glycolytic activity in cells .. Tests collected EX. Glucose, ETOH (CHEMISTRY TEST)  
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Pink Tube   Additive: anticoagulant EDTA (USED FOR BLOOD BANK)  
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Black Tube   Additive: Anticoagulant Sodium Citrate.. Used for:WESTERGREN SEDIMENTATION RATE "4:1 Ratio"  
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Dark Blue Tube   Additive: either no additive, sodium heparin, or EDTA ... Used for trace metal assays "TOXICOLOGY STUDIES"  
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Brown Tube   Additive: anticoagulant Heparin Used for: Lead Testing  
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Yellow Tube   additive: anticoagulant SPS.. Used for Blood Cultures MUST BE STERILE  
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what is HEMATOLOGY   study of blood and blood forming tissues (includes are of hemostasis)  
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average person has how many liters of blood   5.5-6 liters  
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Blood has to part ..which is ?   liquid portion-plasma .....Cellular portion-RBC ,WBC, Platelets(thrombocytes)  
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what is a routine hematology test?   CBC complete blood count  
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What is Erthrocyte Sedimentation Rate ESR   they measure the rate that RBCs fall to the bottom of a tube (also monitor inflammation and tissue injury)  
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what are the 4 main tests to determine hemostasis?   Platelet count test...Bleeding time test...PT test (PROTHROMBIN TIME)...aPTT/PTT test  
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What are some specialized Chemistry Areas   Toxicology (TDM and OD)..ABG..Serology ..  
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Random specimen is collected when ?   any time of the day  
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First Voided specimen is collected when?   in the morning as soon as the patient wakes up  
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Timed specimen must be collected when?   usually 8-24hrs ..  
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Clean-catch midstream specimen   patients are required to cleanse the urethral area with castile soap and towelette..first portion of urine ..urinate in tiolet then after in cup ..  
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A 24hr urine specimen must be collected in ?   a 2000mL graduated cylinder  
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What are RARE complications of venipuncture   Cardiac arrest...Hemorrhage ...Reflex arteriospasm...infection  
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taking 10ml of blood from a PREMATURE infant leads to a decrease percentage of what blood volume   5-10%  
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What is the reason for a dermal puncture on an adult   Suitable vein cannot be found  
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When is skin puncture inappropriate   when patient is ..severly dehydrated ..has bad circulation  
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Most common size for adults on a skin puncture is   2.4mm  
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skin puncture size on premature infants are   0.85 to 3.0mm  
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Swollen areas are avoided for a venipuncture because   due to accumulation of tissue (interstitial) fluid  
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If a bone is punctured what may occur   Osteomyelitis (inflammation of bone or bone marrow, usually due to infection)  
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what are the two most commonly used finger sites on adults for a fingerstick   3rd and 4th fingers towards tip of finger  
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Why is the index finger not used for a finger stick   causes calluses and discomfort  
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What is the CAPILLARY ORDER OF DRAW   Blood gases, EDTA tubes, Other additive tubes, Serum tubes  
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What is the appropriate depth lancet for this size of infant: 1-2kg(2.2-4.4 lbs.)   0.75-1.0mm  
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What is the appropriate depth lancet for this size of infant: 2-3 kg (4.4-6.6 lbs.)   1.0-2.0mm  
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What is the appropriate depth lancet for this size of infant: 3 kg (6.6 lbs.) or greater   2.0-2.4mm "GREATER THAN 2.4mm MAY CAUSE OSTEOMYELITIS AND PERMANENT DAMAGE TO THE INFANTS FOOT"  
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What is the use of EMLA   Eutectuc Mixture of local Anesthetic, is used to relieve pain  
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Hematomas occur when   blood leaks from vein or capillaries and collects in tissues around puncture site  
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Removal of tourniquet AFTER removal of needle can cause   a Hematoma  
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What is PETECHIAE   Tiny red spots that appear under the skine and sign of platelet defects or week capillary walls (can be an indication of broken/bruised capillaries)  
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the cause of Petechiae can be sign of what kind of allergy   Possible latex allergy  
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Who should you contact if bleeding does not stop after 5min   Contact physician or nursing staff  
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Excessive bleeding can be due to what type of anticoagulants   Coumadin, Heparin (patient can have excessive bleeding as well due to clotting disorders)  
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Mastectomy patients are highly susceptible to ..?   INFECTIONS  
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In Mastectomy patients, due to edema some tests may be   Altered  
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If a patient has double mastectomy (each on one arm) ..what site would you perform a venipuncture   back of hands, legs, or a fingerstick (consult physician first)  
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Edema   Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the intracellular spaces of the body  
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The heart is the size of a ..... ??   Mans fist  
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What is the normal heart rate of an adult   60-80 times/min  
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What is the SEPTUM   Wall the separates the heart into right and left sides  
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what is the Pericardium   outer double walled sac to prevent friction  
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Right atrium fills with blood from ...?   the Superior and Inferior Vena Cava  
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the LEFT ATRIUM filles with blood from the   Pulmonary vein  
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Contraction of he heart pushes blood into the...?   Ventricles  
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the left and right atria are separated by   Interatrial septum  
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Ventricles receive blood from   ATRIA  
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Contracitons of the heart pushes what out   Blood  
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The right ventricle pushes blood through the   Pulmonary artery  
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The left and right ventricles are separated by   the interventricular septum  
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Sinoatrial (SA)node "pacemaker" causes ?   wave of impulses through muscle of atria (where heart begins)  
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What is the function of the ATRIOVENTRICULAR (AV)Node   sends impulses goes down the bundle of his-> R & L bundle branches ->Purkinje fibers-> Ventricles  
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Define Diastole   Relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle (VENTRICLES ARE FILLING WITH BLOOD FROM THE ATRIA)  
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define Systole   Contraction phase of cardiac cycle (VENTRICLES CONTRACT AND PUSH BLOOD THROUGH PULMONARY VALVE AND AORTIC VALVE TO DISTRIBUTE BLOOD TO LUNGS AND BODY)  
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The heart is controlled by   The autonomic nervous system  
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Bradycardia is considered at what heart rate   BELOW 60  
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Tachycardia is considered at what heart rate   Above 100  
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Tunica Adventitia is   Thick outer layer, mostly connective tissue (prevents rupture or bursting due to increased pressure)  
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Tunica Media is   Middle layer, smooth muscle and elastic fibers (helps maintain normal blood pressure;able to contrict)  
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Tunica Intima is   Inner layer, single later of endothelial cells, connetive tissue, and elastic fibers (smoothness prevents abnormal blood clotting)  
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Adult men have about how much blood   5-6 liters of blood  
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how much blood does an adult women have   4-5 liters of blood  
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whole blood is composed of approximately....?   2.8(55%) of plasma and 1.9 liters (45%) of cells  
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Plasma is composed of   90% water and 10% solid materials  
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Serum is composed of   same components as plasma EXCEPT FIBRINOGEN  
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What color is ICTERIC (liquid component)   Dark green/yellow  
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What color is HEMOLYZED (liquid component)   Pink/Red  
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What color is LIPEMIC )liquid component)   Milky/creamy/cloudy  
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Erthrocytes have a life spam of   120days (circulating RBC have no nucleus)  
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Neutrophils are   PHAGOCYTES..they are the first responders to infection and have 3-5 lobed nucleus (fine light blue cytoplasmic granules) "45-70% in the body"  
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Eosinophils are   Bright RED/ORANGE cytoplasmic granules with a BILOBED NUCLEUS.. they INCREASE IN ALLERGIC REACTIONS AND PARASITIC INFECTIONS "0-5% percentage in the body"  
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Basophils are   DARK PURPLE-BLUE cytoplasmic granules..they have irregular S-shaped nucleus and dduring inflammation it releases histamine to dialte blood vessls(granules contain heparin and histamine) "0-1% in the body"  
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Lymphocytes are   Non-granular blue cytoplasm...LIGHT BRIGHT PURPLE NUCLEUS..2types T-destroy foreign material..B-produce antibodies to fight infection "20-40% in the body"  
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Monocytes are   Non-granular cytoplasm...KIDNEY BEANED SHAPED..PURPLE NUCLEUS ....phagocyte and becomes macrophage ...it is the LARGEST WBC ..."4-10% in the body"  
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What is the function of a THROMBOCYTE   it retracts after blood clot has formed ..transports needed chemical for clotting ...it has a life span of 9-12days  
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what is an antibody   A substance that is produced by the body in response to an antigen  
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RBCs with A antigen =   Type A ...plasma has antibodies to B antigen 40%common  
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RBCs with B antigen =   Type B... plasma has antibodies to A antigen 10% common  
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RBCs with A and B antigen =   Type AB ... plasma has NO antibodies to A or B antigens .. 4% common  
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RBCs without A or B antigen =   Type O... Plasma CONTAINS antibodies to A and B antigens ..46% common  
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PRESENCE of D antigens designatedd as   Rh+  
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ABSENCE of D antigeens designate as   Rh-  
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Define break of duty   neglect or failure to perform an obligation  
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Define patients bill of rights   Rights that every patients has while undergoing treatment  
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define Stature of limitation   the period after the incident that a patient has to file a lawsuit (may begin after the problem is discovered)  
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define TORT   wrongful act(other than breach of contract) .."committed against another person or property"  
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define standard of care   The ordinary skill and care that medical practitioners such as physicians, nurses and phlebotomists must use that is commonly used by other medical practitioners when caring for patients  
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define Negligence   Failure to perform professional duties in accepted standard of care  
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deinfe Proximate cause   Natural continuous sequences of events, without an intervening cause, that produces an injury • Also referred to as direct cause  
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define Res ipsa loquitur   Latin phrase that means “the thing speaks for itself” • This is a doctrine of negligence law  
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define Respondeat superior   Latin phrase that means “let the master answer” • This means that the physician or employer is responsible for the acts of the employee  
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what are the three branches of government   Legislative, executive, and judicial  
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what are the three levels of law   – Federal – State – Local  
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what is negligence   • Violation of duty to not exercise reasonable skill and care when performing a task • Failure to perform professional duties in an accepted standard of care  
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what is MALPRACTICE   BAD PRACTICE ...Professional negligence, improper or unskillful care of a patient  
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What are the 4D's if Negligence   – Duty – Derelict – Direct Cause – Damage  
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If a phlebotomist becomes infected with HIV during employment, he/she will be covered by   Worker’s Compensation Benefits  
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What is HIPPA   • Health Insurance Portability and Accountability • Protects the privacy and security of a person’s health information when that information  
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In order for a provider to use or disclose PHI, the hospital/lab must give each patient a   “Notice of Privacy Practices” ..Describes how the hospital/lab may use and disclose the patient’s PHI  
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what are the 3 catergories that CLIA divides lab into:   Waived (level I)....Moderate (level II)...High (level III)  
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What is WAIVED (level I)   • Simple testing that requires minimum judgment or interpretation • Incorrect test results pose little risk for the patient • Examples – Dipstick urinalysis – Pregnancy testing  
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What is MODERATE (level II)   • Moderate complexity of testing • 75% of all lab tests • Certified by approved accrediting agency • Requires MLT or higher discipline • Must meet quality assurance standards  
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What is HIGH (level III)   • High complexity of testing • Highly sophisticated tests • High risk to patient if there is an incorrect test result • Certified by approved accrediting agency • Requires CLS or higher discipline • Must meet quality assurance standards  
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Most frequent reason for rejection in hematology is   Improperly mixed tubes causing clots in EDTA microtubes  
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a specimen for sedimentation rate is only stable for...?   4hrs at room temperature and 12hrs refrigerated  
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What is MINOR MISLABELING   Truncated (cut off/shortened/abbreviated) name or medical record number, misspelled name, missing information as date and signature  
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what is MAJOR MISLABELING   Unlabeled specimens; mismatched information on specimens and requisitions; ABO/Rh results on current specimen not matching historical record on file • This category is known as Wrong Blood in Tube (WBIT)  
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56% of lab errors occur during what phase   During the Pre-Analytical Phase of testing  
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What is the most potentially fatal pre-analytical error   Improper patient identification  
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An impatient should be asked to state his/her name, address, DOB and or unique ID number according to whos standards   CLSI (Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute)  
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Fasting specimens should be collected around how many hours?   10-12 hours of complete fasting  
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How long do you pre-warm a site for capillary collection   3-5minutes (can cause increased blood flow to the area SEVENFOLD  
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The ORDER OF DRAW is suggested by   CLSI  
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What happens if you under-fill a EDTA TUBE?   you result with RBC SHRINKAGE  
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What happens if you under-fill blue top tubes   You result with ELEVATED PT  
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What two analytes must be protected from the light?   -BILIRUBIN -CAROTENE  
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aPTT should be tested within...?   4 HOURS  
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PT can remain stable for up to...?   48 HOURS (at room temperature)  
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Blood cultures are essential in the diagnosis of ..   ENDOCARDITIS  
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Why are blood cultures done?   To detect the presence of bacteria or yeast  
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What happens if a patient comes back with a positive blood culture?   Physician might put the patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics, OFTEN I.V.  
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Septicemia may cause...?   Fever, chills, shock, tachycardia, hypertension  
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50% of all positive blood cultures may be positive due to the process of   CONTAMINANTS  
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Intravascular   Organisms come from infected organs, cavities, fluids (CSF, synovial fluid, pericardial fluid), untreated superficial wounds, abscesses, U.T.I., or Respiratory infections  
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Extravascular   Vascualr access devides(atrial lines, central venous catheters, etc.) urinary catheters, needles, etc  
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Define TRANSIENT BACTEREMIA   Bacteria that exist momentarily in the bloodstream and then are engulfed by the cellular immune response  
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High risk contamination rates are an example of   Vascular access devices, arterial lines, central venous catheters, and heparin locks  
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Define edema   Swelling ...an accumuation of fluid in the intercellular spaces of the body (FLUID IS INTRACELLULAR)  
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Hematoma   (Bruise) ..Caused by the leakage of blood from veins and capillaries that collects the tissues (Blood accumulation)  
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Masectomies are usually accompanied by ...   REMOVAL OF LYMPH NODES (high susceptibility to infections)  
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Sclerosed Veins   Hardened Veins...due to inflammation, Disease, Repeated punctures (may be difficult to push the needle though)  
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If both arms have an IV, obtain the blood specimen ....?   BELOW the insertion point ofthe IV LINE  
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PKU tests are done to..?   rule out a hereditary metabolic disorder  
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If BILIRUBIN levels are too high babies are placed on...?   UV LIGHT  
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EACH newborn is kept in an   ISOLETTE  
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Newborns are extremely susceptible to ...?   INFECTIONS  
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Always remove supplies from the isolette, ESPECIALLY ..?   LANCETS  
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For children under two, ______puncture is the method of choice   DERMAL  
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Heel Punctures are considered for   Children under 1year/20pounds  
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Finger punctures are considered for   Children from 1-2years  
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Children over 2 may have what type of puncture   VENIPUNCTURE  
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Most elderly develop what type of anemia due to continuous phlebotomy   LATROGENIC ANEMIA  
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EPA (environmental protective agency) recommends noise level in hospitals not to exceed ...?   40dB  
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Dialysis is performed on patients with   END STAGE RENAL DISEASE  
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What happens during dialysis   Waste products are removed from the blood  
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Venipunctures are prohibited from dialysis patients therefore you must perform..?   a FINGER STICK  
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How many identifiers is recommended for an outpatient?   2 Identifiers  
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Its against "______regulations" to palpate a vein without gloves   OSHA  
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Tourniquet must be applied how many inches apart from the antecubital fossa   3-4inches (restricts bloods flow, causes veins to distend)  
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Why should you allow chlorhexidine to dry completely before beginning a venipuncture   To prevent Hemolysis  
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You should insert a needle at what angle   15-30 Degree angle (BEVEL UP)  
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All tubes with additives must be properly mixed as quickly as possible to prevent...?   PLATELET CLUMPING AND COAGULATION  
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Examples of special handeling regarding "KEPT COLD SPECIMEN" include:   Blood gases..ammonia  
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Examples of special handeling regarding "KEPT WARM SPECIMEN" include:   Cold Agglutinins  
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Examples of special handeling regarding "KEPT IN THE DARK SPECIMEN" include   Bilirubin...Carotene  
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What are some examples of Adverse Reaction   Syncope...Nausea...Vomiting  
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If bleeding continues for more than 5minutes call   PHYSICIAN  
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What are some communication strategies   Verbal communication Nonverbal communication Active Listening  
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What are the "Four Components Of Communication"   -THE SENDER(Person sending the message) -MESSAGE SENT(What the sender wants to convey) -SYMBOLS(How the sender communicates the message) -MESSAGE RECEIVED(How the message is perceived)  
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What is the measurement considered for "PERSONAL SPACE"   18in.-4ft. (Interactions with friends and some patients)  
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What is the measurement considered for "SOCIAL SPACE"   4ft.-12ft. (Most interactions of daily life)  
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What is the measurement considered for "PUBLIC SPACE"   >12ft. (lectures, speeches)  
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What is the "Zone of Comfort"   Area around patient that is private territory(CHILDREN may feel uncomfortable if you get to close)  
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What is the "GOLDEN RULE"   Treat patient as you would want yourself or a family member treated in a health care setting  
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What is "Culture Sensitivity"   System of values, beliefs and practices that stem from a person's concept to reality  
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Physical Impact of Stress can cause?   -Hypertension -Hyperglycemia -Stroke -Myocardial Infarction -Diabetes -Ulcers -Neck and back pain  
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What are the early signs of stress   Headaches/fatigue (due to burnout and overload)  
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Immediate physical signs of stress are?   -Cold -Nervousness -Tense -Sweaty Hands  
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What are some coping strategies for stress   -keep caffeine to a minimum -try not to use alcohol/nicotine(may increase level of stress) -exercise regularly -set aside time to relax each day  
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define ethics   Morales duty to determine right and wrong  
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define accountability   You are responsible for your actions  
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Define Hemophilia   Tendency to bleed  
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define Thrombophilia   tendency to clot  
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Define Hemostasis   Process of blood clotting and then the subsequent dissolution of the clot following repair of injured tissue  
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What are the 5 Steps of the hemostatic process   Platelet Phase .. Coagulation Phase.. Clot Reaction.. Fibrinolysis  
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What is Primary Hemostasis   -Process of forming a platelet plug at the sit of vessel injury -Consists of a vasoconstriction of platelet adhesion  
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Define Vasoconstriction(Vascular Phase)   "tightening" of blood vessels to divert blood flow around the damaged vessel -enhances contact activation of platelets and coagulation factors  
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Define Platelet Adhesion( Platelet Phase)   Platelets become activated and aggregate at the site of injury, forming a temporary loose, platelet plug  
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What happens in Secondary Hemostasis   Stabilizes the initially loose platelet plug, a sequence of enzymatic reaction is initiated which culminates in fibrin strands forming at the platelet plug  
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What happens in the "Coagulation Phase"   -Coagulation factors interact with each other to form a fibrin clot (reinforces the platelet plug...ADP, thromboxon, PFB) "FIBRIN FORMING SYSTEM  
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What are "Coagulation Factors"   Proteins normally presented in the blood (most are produced by the liver) ...normally "turned off" (inactive)..."A" signals the factor in its "active" form of coagulation cascade  
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What happens in the "Extrinsic Pathway"   Activated when endothelial cells are injured and tissue factor is released -activated factor VII and tissue factor bind to form a complex.(this complex, plus calcium, activates factor XTissue Factor)  
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What happens in the "Intrinsic Pathway"   Initiation occurs when factor XII is exposed to a negatively charged surface(termed the contact phase) "REQUIRES CLOTTING FACTORS VIII-XII  
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What is the "COMMON PATHWAY"   When factor Xa bigs to the platelet surface, a complex is formed composed of platelet phospholipid, calcium and factor Va...-Complex converts prothrombin to thrombin which in turn converts fibrinogen to fibrin  
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Explain Fibrinolysis   Bodys ways of keeping coagulation from becoming excessive and occluding the blood vessels  
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Thromboplastin activates what factor?   FACTOR 7  
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define the REGULATION STAGE   Balance between coagulation and fibrinolyctic process must be maintained otherwise excess clotting or fibrinolysis will occur  
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Thrombophilia causes what   D.V.T. (Deep Venouse Thrombosis) or P.E. (Pulmonary Embolism)  
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define THROMBOPHILIA   Hypercoagulable state due to inherited(heriditary/genetic) defects or acquired defects in one or several factors of the coagulation cascade  
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FACTOR 1(fibrinogen) ...define .AFIBRINOGENEMIA   Total absense of measurable fibrinogen (RARE CONGENITAL DISORDER)  
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FACTOR 1(fibrinogen)...define HYPOFIRINOGENEMIA   Below normal levels of fibrinogen -treated by cryoprecipitate or FFP  
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FACTOR 1(fibrinogen)...define DYSFIBRINOGENEMIA   altered structure of the fibrinogen molecule -usually asymptomatic but has been associated with both bleeding and thrombotic events  
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explain ...FACTOR V (proaccelerin)GENE DEFECT   (MOST COMMON CAUSE OF THROMBOPHILIA) coafactor in coagulation cascade..defieceny causes bleeding but factor V mutation causes thrombotic events due to impaired degradation of factor V resulting in continued thrombin generation  
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what does MTHFR do ?   Breaks down homo cysteine  
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deficiency of MTHFR causes ?   increase of homocysteine leading to thrombosis  
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Acquired Homo cysteine is due to   deficiency of vitamin B6 and B12  
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What happens if Prothrombin does not break down   keeps on activating thrombin to convert fibrinogen into a fibrin clot  
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deficiency in vWF causes (FACTOR VIII)   vonWillebrand's Disease  
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Defect or absense of coagulant portion causes   Classic Hemophilia A  
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Acute Phase Reactant   Increase in inflammation, stress, pregnancy and infectin which can lead to clot formation  
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What is the purpose of Quality Assurance   Gathering/evaluating information and data about services/tests provided  
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Quality Assurance is also known for   QUALITY IMPROVEMENT QUALITY ASSESSMENT PROFICIENCY IMPROVEMENT PERFORMANCE IMPROVEMENT  
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define T.A.T.   TURN AROUND TIME  
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What is the purpose of P.I.   Implement an interdisciplinary approach to collection, analysis and reporting of performance measures  
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What is the overall goal of P.I.   Effect quality improvement including accuracy and precision  
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Where does P.I. begin in a hospital setting   Begins in the lab before specimen is collected  
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What are Logbooks   Logs examined in quality assurance meeting to determine problem areas (also document problem areas with incident reports)  
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Define INCIDENT REPORTS   a formal written description of an incident/unusual occurrence  
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What is the purpose of incident reports   To objectively document exactly what happened (GOAL is to prevent another episode)  
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Define DELTA TEST   comparison between current results of the lab test and previous test results for same patient (CLS)  
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What are FLOOR BOOKS   Containcs information that lists the name of each test/procedure (useful to aid in consistency of testing for quality control purposes "AKA PROCEDURE, REFERENCE or TEST MANUAL)  
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what does JCAHO stand for   Joint commission on accrediation of healthcare organization (PRIVATE NON-GOVERNMENT AGENCY)  
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What does JCAHO do   Establishes guidelines for healthcare agencies regarding quality of care  
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What is CQI   Continuous Quality Improvement  
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What does CQI do ?   Framework and management commitment to improve healthcare structure, processes, outcomes, and customer satisfaction  
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What is the ultimate goal for CQI   IMPROVE PATIENT OUTCOMES  
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what are the "Poor patient outcomes (5 D's)"   -DEATH -DISEASE -DISABILITY -DISCOMFORT -DISSATISFACTION  
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Define P.D.C.A.   Plan-Do-Check-Act  
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What is the purpose of PDCA   Cycle for assessing, making changes, then reassessing and putting in action  
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What is the primary goal during a specimen collection   obtain accurate samples for analysis  
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Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) was established when ?   1970 by US Congress  
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What is the goal of OSHA   Assures every working person in the nation a safe and healthful working condition  
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Center of Disease Control establishes ?   Universal Precautions (OSHA enforces them)  
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What are Bloodborne Pathogens   Microorganisms that cause disease in humans and are transmitted only through contact with infectious body fluids (NOT urine or feces..unless blood is visible) examples:HIV/AID, malaria, syphilis, ebola virus  
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What is the main symptom for Hepatitis B   Jaundice (other symptoms may be ..fatigue abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea and vomiting)  
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How many vaccines are required for Hep. B?   3 shots over 6month period  
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What disease is the leading cause for liver transplants   Hepatitis C  
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What are the symptoms for Hepatitis C   Fatigue and Abdominal Pain  
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What are some symptoms for Human Immunodeficiency Virus   Swollen lymph nodes, weight loss, night sweats, opportunist infections, skin lesions (can eventually lead to AIDS)  
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Define Prophylaxis   The prevention of disease  
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Highest number of phlebotomy injuries occur with ?   Butterflies  
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What does the bacteriology dept. do   deals with identification, study, and cultivation of bacteria and their application in medicine, agriculture, industry, and biotechnology  
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What is Mycology   The study of FUNGI (fungi break down dead organic material and continue the cycle of nutrients through ecosystems)  
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What is Virology   The study of biological viruses  
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What is Serology   The study antigens and antibodies in serum (red top tubes, may base use as well for the detection of an antigen-antibody reaction)  
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What is Immunology   The study of immune process and immunity (immunology lab IDs antibodies that are produced due to a disease state)  
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What is the purpose of the infection control system   Meant to break chain of infection  
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define asepsis   destruction of organisms after they leave the body (hand washing, disposable equipment, gloves)  
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What does fire need in order to start   Needs Oxygen, heat, and fuel  
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What are the four categories of fires   Class A,B,C,D  
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What is Class A based on the "category of fires"   Paper, wood, cloth and plastics  
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What is Class B based on the "category of fires"   Flammable solvents such as gases, oils, paints, and grease and an interaction with air and vapors  
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What is Class C based on the "category of fires"   In or near electrical equipment  
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What is Class D based on the "category of fires"   Combustible metals such as lithium and magnesium  
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What is the use of Class A FIRE EXTINGUISHERS   For ordinary combustible fires (contains soda and H2o)  
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What is the use of Class B FIRE EXTINGUISHERS   For fires from solvents and air-vapor mixtures (contains foam, dry chemical, or CO2)  
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What is the use of Class C FIRE EXTINGUISHERS   Used for electrical fires (contains dry chemicals)  
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What is the use of "Halon" FIRE EXTINGUISHERS   For computer fires  
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What does R.A.C.E. stand for   Remove the patient, activate the alarm and alert other staff, contain or confine the fire by closing all doors, extinguish the fire if its safe to do so  
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What does P.A.S.S. stand for   PULL the pin, AIM the nozzle just above the base of the fire, SQUEEZE the trigger of the extinguisher, SWEEP the nozzle over the fire  
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Any chemical that comes into contact with the skin or eyes must be treated   STAT  
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What is the use for Material Safety Dada Sheets (MSDS)   Detailed information about identity of chemical, physical characteristics, physical hazards and how to handle them, reactivity and dangerous reactions, health hazards, handling precautions and control measure (MUST BE KEPT IN A PROMINENT PLACE)  
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What does CHP stand for   Chemical Hygiene Plan  
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What are the four types of biological hazards and waste   Solid, Chemical, Radioactive, Infectious  
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Alcohol can become what type of hazard   flammable, poisonous  
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Cytotoxic drugs can be what type of hazard   Carcinogenic  
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Nitrous Oxide can be what type of hazard   Oxidizer and irritant  
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Formalin can be what type of hazard   Carcinogenic irritant  
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Bleach can be what type of hazard   Skin irritant, can compromise the respiratory tract  
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Betadine is what type of hazard   Thyroid/renal disturbance  
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Mercury can be what type of hazard   poisonous, corrosive  
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Glutaraldehyde can be what type of hazard   Skin irritant, can be harmful to asthma patients (can cause deterioration of latex gloves)  
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White out can be become what type of hazard   Flammable, and can lead to tumors  
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What blood levels are HIGH in the morning ?   Hormones: testosterone, cortisol, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH, iron and insulin  
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What blood levels are LOW in the morning   Eosinophil count, creatine, glucose, triglycerides  
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What are some specimens that have to be kept cold during transport   Blood gases, gastrin, amoonia, lactic acid, renin  
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What color will plasma or serum be if there is a leakage of hemoglobin   Pink or red  
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Rupture of RBC membrane causes a leakage of hemoglobin which imparts a pink or red color to the serum/plasma and may affect values of certain tests like?   CBC..LD..AST..K+..Fe..T4  
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Additive-containing tubes must be inverted gently how many times ?   8-10times  
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What is the Analytic phase   Takes place during testing the specimen  
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What is post analytic phase   reporting results and follow up  
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What are the most common fasting specimens   Triglycerides, cholesterol, and glucose  
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what is the purpost of Two-Hour Postprandial Glucose Test   Screens for Diabetes  
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What is the purpose of a Glucose Tolerance Test   Diagnoses diabetes mellitus and hypoglycemia (similar to epinephrine tolerance test but glucagon is INJECTED INSTEAD)  
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What is the purpose of a Lactose Tolerance Test   Diagnoses lactose intolerance  
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what is the purpose of epinephrine tolerance test   determines the amount of GLYCOGEN stored in the liver (epinephrine helps break down glycogen stores and are used for energy when needed)  
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What is the purpose of Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM)   Measures amount of specific medication in a patient's system  
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Why are blood cultures performed   Aids in the diagnosis of SEPTICEMIA  
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When is it best to draw a blood culture   When FEVER SPIKES  
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What is the purpose of a Bleeding time Test   Assesses status of patient's hemostasis (detects platelet function disorders "PART OF STANDARD PRE-SURGICAL WORK UP"  
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Blood smears can be performed using what type of blood?   Capillary blood or blood from lavendar tube within 1hr or being drawn into tube (part of CBC)  
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What is Neonatal Screening? ...   a state that requires infants to be tested for phenylketonuria (PKU) and congenital hypothyroidism (should be tested 24-72 hours after birth)  
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What is the purpose of ABG   Monitors patients respiration status (obtaines for measuring Po2, PCO2, and pH of blood..which tells the degree of oxygenation and acid base balance of blood.  
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What are the most common specimens collected in legal cases   ETOH, Drug screening, DNA analysis  
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POINT OF CARE TESTING is performed where   at patients bed side (falls under CLIA)  
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What is the most common test done for POINT OF CARE TESTING   Glucose level, PT, aPTT/PTT,cardiac enzymes (reduces TAT)  
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What are the common tests for common pathologies   Troponin, Amylase, lipase, ABG, BUN, Creatinine , Hct, Hgb, RBC Count  
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What is the duty of College of American Pathologist (CAP)   Sets standards for phlebotomy ...profeciency testing lab testing by pathologist and CLSs REGULATION OF CLINICAL LABORATORIES  
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What is the duty of CLSI   Establishes procedural guidelines for all areas of the lab  
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What is the duty of JCAHO   Accredits agency for hospitals and nursing homes ..inspects every 2 years ..enforces standards established by CLSI ..works with CAP to provide lab accreditation  
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What is the purpose of CLIA   Ensure quality lab testing  
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What is the duty of Survey and certification group(SCG)   has responsibiliyu of implementing CLIA program  
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