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RMA Practice Exam
Review for RMA
Question | Answer |
---|---|
The largest bone in the body is the | femur |
An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the | hip |
Muscles are attached to bones by | tendons |
When a muscle contracts, it becomes | shorter and thicker |
Growth hormone is produced in the | pituitary |
The function of insulin is to | assist glucose into the cells |
The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is | renal pelvis |
The kidneys are located behind the | peritoneum |
The site of fertilization is usually the | fallopian tubes |
Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at | puberty |
The three sections of the small intestine are | duodenum, jejunum, ileum |
The internal folds of the stomach are known as | rugae |
The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need, is | K |
A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by | a neurotransmitter |
The gray matter on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres is called | cerebral cortex |
During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the | epiglottis |
The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the | nasopharnyx |
The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery | aorta |
The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the | fibrous pericardium |
The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is | keratin |
The outer layer of the skin is the | epidermis |
The receptors of hearing and equilibrium are located in the | inner ear |
The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the | conjunctiva |
The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is | scoliosis |
A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is | a comminuted fracture |
An abnormal scar formation is | keloid |
Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation | protection from light |
A genetic disorder characterized by the inability of the blood to clot properly is | hemophilia |
Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of | vitamin A |
A deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to which type of anemia | Pernicious |
Most common eye condition associated with aging? | Presbyopia |
The combining form that means red is | erythro |
The combining form hist/o means | tissue |
The suffix meaning "inflammation" is | itis |
Encephalomegaly is defined as | swelling of the brain |
The medical term for inflammation of the liver is | hepatitis |
The term "myotomy" means incision into | a muscle |
A water-soluble vitamin | C |
The abbreviation "QID" means | four times per day |
The abbreviation for "prescription" is | Rx |
Correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils | Tonsillitis |
A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures? | Blood test |
HIPPA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims | through electronic data exchange |
The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities? | suspected child abuse |
The purpose of HIPPA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of | electronic exchange of patient information |
The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from | civil and criminal liability |
If a physician accepts payment from another physician for the referral of a patient, both are guilty of | fee splitting |
Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to | define what is included in the practice of medicine |
The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called | restating |
Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of | acknowledge |
The term "total permanent impairment" means the patient | is unable to perform previous occupational duties |
An insurance claim processing error? | Using "rule out" diagnosis |
A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called | coordination of benefits |
Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule | Capitated |
The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called | a pre-existing conditions waiver |
Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician | are responsible for a portion of the fee |
Medicare part B covers | prescription medical equipment |
Worker's Compensation insurance provides benefits for | occupational injuries |
Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated | 80% of the approved amount |
An example of Medicare HCPCS code number is | J0540 |
A range of usual fees in the same community is the | customary fee |
The routine waiving of co-payments | is against federal guidelines |
Claims with a signed assignment of benefits are paid to the | Physician |
The notice sent to the patient showing the amount owed to the physician is called the | itemized statement |
The cost to a physician for the services of a collection agency is usually | a percentage of each amount collected |
Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should | refer all inquiries to the collection agency |
The final statement for services renders to a deceased patient should be addressed to | estate of the deceased |
When a patient fails to keep an appointment, the medical assistant should | document the failed appointment in the patient's chart |
The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physicians office is to | leave unassigned slots in the appointment book |
Which one of the following represents a successful "trial balance" | all transactions balance with the end of the day journal |
The petty cash fund may be used | for small incidental items |
When reconciling a bank account the "outstanding checks" are those | that have not cleared the bank |
An acceptable patient check? | Certified |
Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column? | insurance write-offs |
Summaries identifying which patient accounts are 30, 60, and 120 days overdue include | age analysis |
Banking fees will appear on a monthly statement in the form of a | service charge |
If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the month are $15,500, the profit and loss statements would show a | net profit of $2,000 |
To properly void a check write "VOID" across the front and | retain it with cancelled checks, in numeric order |
"For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement? | restrictive |
When a bankruptcy notice is received in the office it is beneficial to | submit a form to the court trustee |
The name that follows the word "Pay to the order of" on a check is the | payee |
What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines? | OSHA |
When performing medical aseptic hand washing, the hands should be positioned | below the elbows |
Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following EXCEPT | asepsis |
According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with | blood |
Sterilization is the | destruction of all microbial life |
The most effective method of sterilization is | autoclaving |
The autoclaving door is slightly open at the end of the autoclave cycle to | allow the items to dry |
Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of | chemicals |
A hemostat is used to | control bleeding |
Forceps are used to | hold tissue |
When obtaining a patient's blood pressure, the patients arm should be | at level of the heart |
The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the | ear |
The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of | 60-80 beats per minute |
The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is | radial |
To obtain the most accurate rate, respirations should be counted for | 60 seconds |
The knee-chest position is used for examination of the | rectum |
The method used to perform a breast examination is | palpation |
The "Snellen Chart" is used to test | sight |
The angle for a subcutaneous injection is | 45 degrees |
The correct site for an adult IM injection is the | gluteus medius |
The physician orders 1 Gram of a medication for injection. On hand is 0.5 Grams per mL on hand. How many mL will be administered? | 2.0 mL |
A drug used to relieve pain is an | analgesic |
Instruments required by the physician for a basic suture set-up include | needle holder and scissors |
For minor surgical procedures, acceptable skin cleansing agents include all of the following EXCEPT | acetone |
NOT a physical therapy modality? | immobilization |
Test that identifies the organism associated with urinary tract infection (UTI)? | Culture and sensitivity |
Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which disease | Acne/boils |
A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of | HCG |
The "universal donor" has blood type | O- |
A highly specific host defense mechanism? | Immune response |
A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is | timed |
The major components of a routine urinalysis are | physical, chemical, and microscopic |
When performing a sedimentation rate, the Wintrobe or Westergren tube is filled to the level marked | 10 mm |
Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause | dilution of the sample with tissue fluid |
Most appropriate patient position for a venipuncture? | sitting in a chair |
In electrocardiography, the electrode used as a ground is | RL |
Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary, | once a year |
A marked drop in blood pressure is found with | shock |
The first step in controlling bleeding is | direct pressure |
The appropriate first response to a syncope episode is to | place the patient supine with legs elevated |