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CDC 7
Medical
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The movement of stabilized pts from forward med locations to another prearr. dest. is? | Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) |
| What kind of change to casualty survival rates occur when (AE) is available | Significantly increase with AE |
| What is the ratio of C-17s used ofr Expeditionary Med Support (EMEDS) vs. 25 bed air trans hosp (ATH) | 1.7:3 |
| The (EMEDS) components are broken down into which 3 increments | EMEDS Basic, +10, +25 |
| Which (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds | EMEDS Basic |
| Which (EMEDS) increment is capable of performing 10 major surgeries in 24 hrs | EMEDS Basic |
| Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing | Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Spec with additional training |
| Unit type code (UTC) FFEP1, the Expanded Critical Care team, will be operational w/in how many hrs upon arrival to the deployed location | 12 hours |
| (EMEDS)Basic requires both routine (AE) support and urgent AE support w/in how many hours | 24 hrs for routine AE support, and 12 hrs for urgent AE support |
| What capabilities is the unit type code FFMFS, Medical Mobile Field Surgical team,responsible for providing | Provides primary disaster medical capability for EMEDS |
| How many personnel are assigned to the (EMEDS)+10 increment | 56 personnel |
| How many tents make up the EMEDS +10 increment | 6 |
| How many critical care pts can be cared for by the EMEDS +10 increments | 3 |
| What combinations of teams make up the EMEDS +25 increment | EMEDS Basic, EMEDS +10, UTC FFEP4/5, and FFEE3 |
| What is the total number of personnel assigned to the EMEDS +25 | 86 |
| EMEDS +25 provides primary care support for how many deployed personnel | 3000-5000 |
| How many major surgeries are the EMEDS+25 teams able to perform in 72 hrs | 20 |
| Which EMEDS increment provides advanced surgical and trauma support | EMEDS+ 25 |
| What function does the unit type code FFEPS, EMEDS Surgical Augmentation team provide | 24 hr surgical capability |
| The Medical Mental Health Augmentation team, (UTC) FFGKU, deploys in conjuction with UTC | FFGKV-Medical Mental Health Rapid Response team |
| Air Reserve Command has a total of how many personnel assigned | 67,000 |
| Air Reserve Command has how many unit assigned aircraft | 400 |
| How many individual mobilization augmentees (IMA) are assigned to the Air Reserve | 7,000 |
| How many Air Force Reserve units are located in the US | 600 |
| Aerospace Medical Service Superintendent, 4N091, is eligible to fill what position | Group Superintendent and functional manager |
| The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has what skill level | 4N000 |
| What percentage of Senior Master Sergeants makes up the enlisted ranks | 2 percent |
| What conference can you attend where you will have to input to the career field education and training plan (CFETP) | Utilization and Training workshop |
| The AF career field manager (AFCFM) utilizies what survey to determine jobs currently being performed by the career field | Occupational Survey Report and Job Inventory Survey |
| Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) | Career field manager |
| When taking over as the custodian for a new supply acct, what is the first task to be accomplished | Ensure you and the current (losing) custodian perform a thorough inventory |
| When do you submit an AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, for a piece of equip that needs replacing | When the need for new equipment is id' |
| When transferring equipment, who is required to initiate the AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, transfer request | The losing custodian |
| When requesting repairs on equipment, a work order is submitted listing the malfunction to the | Biomed Equip Repair Office |
| Which equip management list indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility | The custody receipt/locator list |
| How many days does it normally take for an equip turn-in or transfer to be processed | 5 days |
| One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for | 60 min |
| The description of the workload, associated conditions, a grad and skill level table, approved variances, and a processes analysis summary in the def. of a manpower | standard |
| Info found in this document provides a clear picture of the manning positions within a med treatment facility | Unit mnapower document |
| What is the numeric code that id's a particular task that may include an alpha prefix or suffix | Air Force specialty code (AFSC) |
| What annotates special experience and training, not otherwise reflected in the classification system | Special Experience Identifier (SIE) |
| Each position in the unit manning document (UMD) is displayed over fiscal quarters. When does the fiscal year start and end | Oct thru 30 Sept. |
| Who authorizes a change to manpower requests | Resource management office |
| When considering the time management process, what is the first element you should take into acct | Planning |
| What is the most efficient time management tool utiilized | Categorizing priorities |
| When reviewing and approving staff schedules, with whom does the responsibility of reviewing and approving staff schedule lie | NCOIC/ nursing manager |
| When developing a schedule, which publication would you reference to ensure you are following policy | AFI 36-3003 |
| Which would not be referenced in a local unit operating instructions (OI) | Off duty education |
| When considering adequate staffing coverage, what must you know | patient census |
| When scheduling duties, how many hours between shifts should you allow | 12 |
| The conventional schedule is the easiest to develop because it allows everyone to work | 8 hr days |
| Why are position descriptions and performance standards in place | To protect staff from being asked to so things they are not qualified to do |
| When you want to document the quality or quantity of a task, where would you write it | Performance standard |
| When developing performance standards, what must you do first | State job duties clearly |
| Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria | Qualitative and Quantitative |
| When performance can be evaluated by how much, how fast, or how often, what performance criterion do you use | Quantitative |
| What document contains complete information regarding education and training requirements for an AFSC | CFETP Career field education and training plan |
| When upgrading to a 7 skill level, what is the min time needed in training | 12 months |
| When referring to tasks applicable to the members duty section, which document would you need | MTL Master task list |
| When new personnel arriving to your duty section, which document would you initiate to maintain all training requirement | Six-part folder |
| When there are approved changes to the CFETP, who is the approval authority | USAF Surgeon General |
| When looking for specific tasks that are performed in a duty section, where would you look | Master Training List |
| The entire CFETP is constructed during the | Utilization and training workshop |
| Re-engineering primary care services known primary car optimization (PCO) and the need to recapture patient care from the private sector are being accomplished through | Population Health Management |
| When enrolling in TRICARE Prime, what important decision is made | Who your primary care manager (PCM) will be to care for your family |
| What tool is used to assist primary care manager (PCM) in managing care for their enrolled population | Health Evaluation Assessment Review |
| To assess, monitor and encourage the demand for needed prevention services in the community are the goals for what kind of population health management | demand management |
| The demand management concept is based on what foundation | Teaching pts about prevention |
| When properly executed, condition management can provide | Continuity in provider practices |
| What classifies health care financing for the poor | Medicaid |
| Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) gained federal support for corporate practice in | 1973 |
| What is one of the goals upon which the TRICARE program was founded | Improve beneficiary access to care |
| With which HMO does Reg 2, the Mid-Atlantic area of the US, have a contract to manage the TRICARE | Humana |
| Which of the TRICARE options is a fee-for service | TRICARE Standard |
| TRICARE for Life was made available | 1 OCT 01 |
| A 4 year old pt presents to the ER with Pain to her extremities. She c/o pain worse at night? Which type of neuropathy does she have | Peripheral |
| A pt just experienced a hypoglycemic episode. Which neuropathy affects the body system that restores blood glucose levels to normal | Autonomic |
| Why do you suction a tracheostomy tube | Remove secretions from the lower resp air passage |
| When you convert the units 0.001 grams, it would equal to one | milligram |
| When reviewing a med order, the dosage ordered by the provider is different than the dosage of the meds supplied, what is the first thing you need to do | Perform conversion |
| When you gather supplies to approximate a wound, what can be used in place of sutures or staples | Skin closure strips |
| When you have a pt who is apprehensive about needles and injections, which local anesthetic would you choose to ease the pain | Topical anesthetic |
| When calling housekeeping to clean a room, which task must the Aerospace Med Service craftsman still perform | Empty Sharps containers |
| A Pt checks into your clinic for same day surgery, what can you do to improve your customer service skills and make the pt feel at ease | Build rapport and make a good first impression |
| You notice a pt looking lost at the main entrance. You approack and ask if he needs assistance. the pt proceeds to complain what is the immediate resolution | Lowest level |
| Why do you let the provide know if a QRS complex is wider than 3 blocks | Because of a possible heart attack |
| Why do you need to know if your pt is dehydrated or on drugs prior to performing an ECG | It could influence the QT interval |
| When you attempt to revive a pt, prior to administering any electricity to the heart, what must you do | Take the pt pulse |
| When there is no electrical activity in the heart the individual is in what arrythmia | Asystole |
| When you id a member with a disability or medical condition, what is the first step of the evaluation process | Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) |
| Why do you think medical standards and disqualifying medical conditions are more stringent for flyers | Because they are a significant operational necessity of their mission |
| When a MEB has determined the individual is "fit" for duty, who is resp to review the case to determine the need of an assigned limitation code | HQ AFOC/DPAMM |
| Which condition would a member be most likely to have an assignment limitation code C | Obstructive sleep apnea |
| When you are conduction medical reviews, which circumstance would require follow up | Incomplete PHA |
| When would you instruct aircrew to wear soft contact lens (SCL) | Only during waking hours |
| When you have pts that are new to soft contact lens (SCL) wearers, how often are the follow ups | one week, one month, six months, and yearly |
| Who is the one-scene commander for an accident on base | Fire chief |
| Once triage in complete, communicate pt transportation through the | Medical Control Center |
| Where would you send specimens being processed from aircrew fatalities | Air Force Institute of Pathology (AFIP) |
| Why would you choose the freezing method for preserving tissue | It does not interfere with lab anaylsis |
Created by:
mornelas
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