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Gastrointestinal

First Aid: Gastrointestinal

QuestionAnswer
What are the 3 major branches off of the celiac trunk? Common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric
What two major vessels form from the splitting of the common hepatic artery? Gastroduodenal and hepatic artery proper
What portal anastomoses is responsible for external hemorrhoids? superior/middle rectal vein --> inferior rectal vein
What portal anastomoses is responsibel for caput medusae? Paraumbilical vein --> inferior epigastric vein
What portal anastomoses is responsible for esophageal varices? Left gastric vein --> azygous vein
What major structures run through the hepatoduodenal ligament? Portal triad: hepatic artery, portal vein, common bile duct; compression with thumb and insertion of index finger into epiploic foramen is used to control bleeding.
What major structures run though the gastrohepatic ligament? gastric arteries
What major structures run through the splenorenal ligament? splenic artery and vein
In what layer of the gut wall would you find the nerve plexus that regulates local secretion, blood flow, and absorption? Submucosal plexus (Meissner's); found in submucosa
In what layer of the gut wall would you find the nerve plexus that regulates motility? Myenteric plexus (Auerbach's); found in muscularis externa between circular and longitudinal layers
These glands which secrete mucus are found in the duodenal submucosa and become hypertrophied in peptic ulcer disease. Brunner's glands
This unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in the small intestine is composed of specialized M cells that take up antigen and stimulate B cells to differentiate into IgA secreting plasma cells in mesenteric lymph nodes. Peyer's patches
This hernia enters the deep inguinal ring and external inguinal ring and may enter the scrotum. Indirect inguinal hernia; lateral to inferior epigastric artery
This hernia enters the external inguinal ring by bulging through abdominal wall into inguinal (Hesselbach's) triangle. Direct inguinal; medial to inferior epigastric artery
What mediates increased gastric acid secretion from parietal cells? Gastrin (G cells in antrum), histamine (ECL cells mucosa), and ACh (vagus nerve)
What inhibits gastric acid secretion from parietal cells? Somatostatin (Pancreatic delta cells), GIP (SI K cells), prostaglandins, secretin (duodenal S cells)
This pancreatic tumor results in copious diarrhea and is treated with somatostatin. VIPoma, VIP increases intestinal water and electrolyte secretion
Somatostatin has what effect on GI secretions? Generally suppression; Decreases gastric acid, pancreatic and small intestine secretion, gallbladder contraction and insulin and glucagon release
This substance released from I cells in the duodenum increases pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contraction but decreases gastric emptying. Cholecystokinin (CCK); in cholelithiasis, pain worsens after meal as a result of CCK release
This substance is the major mediator of HCO3- release from both the pancreas and the stomach. Secretin
What are the major pancreatic enzymes secreted? alpha-amylase, lipase, phospholipase A, colipase, and proteases
What are the steps of carbohydrate digestion? amylase hydrolyzes starch to oligosacharrides --> brush border hydrolases convert oligosaccharides and disaccharides to monosaccharides
What zone of the hepatocyte is most susceptible to toxic injury? Zone 1; nearest the portal vein
What zone of the hepatocyte is most susceptible to ischemic injury? Zone 3; nearest the central vein
What form of bilirubin is water soluble? Conjugated bilirubin
How is cholesterol excreted? as bile salt
What causes failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter? Loss of myenteric plexus; Achalasia (may arise secondary to Chaga's disease)
What is Barrett's esophagus? Glandular metaplasia of the esophagus due to reflux; increased risk for adenocarcinoma
Neonate presents with palpable "olive" mass in epigastric region and nobilious projectile vomiting. Diagnosis? Congenital pyloric stenosis
Autoantibodies to gluten yielding an abnormal xylose test. Diagnosis? Celiac sprue
Arthralgias, cardiac, and neurologic symptoms with PAS-positive macrophages in intestinal lamina. Diagnosis? Whipple's disease
What are the two major causes of pancreatic insufficiency? CF and chronic pancreatitis; cause fat malabsorption as well as fat soluble vitamins
Duodenal ulcers with clean, punched out, margins. Diagnosis? Duodenal ulcer, raised/irregular margins are indicative of carcinoma; other findings may include pain relieved by eating (leading to weight gain not common in cancer) and hypertrophy of Brunner's glands
Enlarged supraclavicular node with "signet-ring" cells on biopsy. Gastric adenocarcinoma w/ Virchow's node involvement; May metastasize bilaterally to ovaries in Krukenberg's tumor "signet-ring" cells found as well.
Skip lesions, cobblestone mucosa with transmural inflammation. Diagnosis? Crohn's disease
Continuous inflammation of the colon and rectum. Diagnosis? Ulcerative colitis; increased risk of colorectal carcinoma
Blind pouch leading off the alimentary tract with all 3 gut wall layers. Diagnosis? True diverticulum; False diverticulum (pseudodiverticulum) will only have mucosa and submucosa
What is the difference between diverticulosis and diverticulitis? Diverticulosis is simply many diverticula; Diverticulitis is inflammation of diverticula (may perforate leading to abscess, peritonitis, or bowel stenosis)
What is Meckel's diverticulum? Persistance of the vitelline duct or yolk stalk (Can cause intussusception or volvulus)
What is the embryologic event that is responsible for Hirschsprung's disease? Failure of nueral crest migration resulting in lack of enteric nervous plexus
Patient is found to have non-villous polyps on colonoscopy and is worried it's cancer. What should you tell them? 90% of polyps are benign, also the more villous the more likely malignant so this patient's prognosis is good.
Patient is found to have colorectal cancer, what other tumors should be investigated? osseous and soft tissue tumors (Gardner's syndrome); glioblastoma (Turcot's syndrome)
What is the significance of micronodular versus macronodular hepatitis? Micronodular is usually due to alcohol, hemochromatosis, or Wilson's disease; Macronodular is usually postinfectious or drug induced and has an increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma
Hepatitis with AST/ALT ratio of 2. Evidence for viral or alcoholic hepatitis? Alcoholic hepatitis; in viral hepatitis ALT is often greater than AST
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome? Occlusion of IVC or hepatic veins leading to congestive liver disease
Patient presents with parkinson-like symptoms, corneal deposits, and reduced serum ceruloplasmin. Diagnosis? Wilson's disease (inadequate copper excreetion); corneal deposits are Keyser-Fleischer rings)
Micronodular cirrhosis with hyperpigmentation. Diagnosis? hemochromatosis "bronze diabetes"
What is the difference between Gilbert's syndrome and Crigler-Najjar syndrome? Gilbert's is unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia w/out clinical effect due to decreased UDP-glucuronyltransferase; Crigler-Najjar (type I) is fatal absence of UDP-glucuronyltransferase resulting in jaundice and kernicterus (type II is less severe)
What is the treatment for Crigler-Najjar type II? Phenobarbitol
What is Dubin-Johnson syndrome? Benign conjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to defective liver excretion, grossly black liver; Rotor's syndrome is similar but even milder w/out black liver
Patient presents with jaundice, fever, and RUQ pain. Diagnosis? Charcot's triad for cholangitis
Patient with jaundice and xanthomas is found to have elevated alkaline phosphatase, elevated serum mitochondrial antibodies. Diagnosis Biliary cirrhosis; intrahepatic autoimmune disorder (associated with CREST syndrome)
Patient has migratory thrombophlebitis (venous inflammation) and obstructiveive jaundice with palpable gallbladder. Trousseau's syndrome and Courvoisier's sign; both indicative of pancreatic adenocarcinoma
What are the side effects of Cimetidine? potent inhibitor of P-450, antiandrogenic effect leading to gynecomastia and impotence in men, and along with ranitidine decrease renal excretion of creatinine
What is the MOA of omeprazole? inhibits H/K ATPase in stomach parietal cells
This drug binds ulcer base and is part of the H. pylori triple therapy. Bismuth, sucralfate; used with metronidazole and amoxicillin (or tetracycline) for H. pylori
This prostaglandin analog used to prevent NSAID induced peptic ulcers is contraindicated in pregnant women (abortifacient) Misoprostol; also used to maintain patent ductus arteriosus and induce labor
These muscarinic antagonists inhibit hydrogen secretion by both an indirect and direct mechanism. Pirenzipine, propantheline; indirectly block M1 receptors on ECL cells (decrease histamine) and directly block M3 receptors on parietal cells
This drug used to treat Crohn's disease is a monoclonal antibody directed against a particular proinflammatory cytokine. Infliximab; directed against TNF-alpha
Combination of an antibacterial and anti-inflammatory agent used to treat UC and Crohn's Sulfasalazine
5HT3 antagonist which acts as a powerful central-acting antiemetic used in cancer patients. Ondansetron
This D2 receptor antagonist is used to treat diabetic and post-surgery gastroparesis. Metoclopramide; Parkinsonian-like effect
What is the treatment for Wilson's disease? Penicillamine
Created by: rahjohnson
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