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NEHA RS Study Guide
REHS/RS Exam Study Guide
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the MOST common cause of bacterial meningitis in children under 5 years of age? | Haemophilus influenzae type B |
| How is giardiasis usually transmitted to others? | Person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individuals |
| Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies is intended to ensure that the public's health and welfare are protected? Community-intensive planning Statutory administrative action Regulatory responsibilities Plan implementation | Regulatory responsibilities |
| What is the measurement of the amount of light scattered by particles suspended in a water test sample? | Nephelometric Turbity Units |
| What is an epidemic? | The occurance in a community or region of cases of an illness clearly in excess of expectancy |
| What portal of entry should a field sanitarian protect to avoid contracting Lyme disease? | Skin |
| Swimmer's itch is a common name for what disease? | Schistosomiasis |
| Which of the following would LEAST contribute to the emergence of a new infectious disease? Human behavior Heat disinfection Antibiotic use Disinfectant use | Heat disinfection |
| Listeriosis is COMMONLY associated with: Contaminated water Contaminated food Infected mice Infected birds | Contaminated Food |
| Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by infection with Dracunculus medinensis Staphylococcus aureus Escherichia coli 015 7:H7 Salmonella typhimurium | Escherichia coli 015 7:H7 |
| The basic principles of disease control include all the following EXCEPT Lag phase Control of disease source Mode of transmission Susceptibility | Lag phase |
| Which MOST accurately describes the term endemic? Sporadic occurrence of an illness Illnesses that exceed expected levels All illnesses present at any one time Constant presence of an illness | Constant presence of an illness |
| The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called what? | Incubation period |
| An establishment known to have imminent health hazards is not closed by the inspecting regulatory authority. What is this an example of? | Nonfeasance |
| Vehicle, vectorborne, or airborne are all example of: Indirect mode of transmission Direct mode of transmission Hosts Life cycle sequences | Indirect mode of transmission |
| What is biological transmission? | Indirect vector-borne transmission of an infectious agent in which the agent undergoes biological changes within the vector before being transmitted to a new host |
| What is descriptive epidemiology? | The aspect of epidemiology concerned with organizing and summarizing health-related data according to time, place, and person |
| What is an environmental factor? | An extrinsic factor (geology, climate, insects, sanitation, health services, etc) which affects the agent and the opportunity for exposure |
| What is an epidemiologic triad? | The traditional model of infectious disease causation. Includes 3 components: An external agent, a susceptible host, and an environment that brings host and agent together, so that disease occurs |
| What is passive immunity? | Immunity conferred by an antibody produced in another host and acquired naturally by an infant from its mother or artificially by administration of an antibody-containing preparation (antiserum or immune globulin) |
| What is latency period? | A period of subclinical or inapparent pathological changes following exposure, ending with the onset of symptoms of chronic disease |
| What is the nominal scale? | Classification into unordered qualitative categories (e.g. race, religion, and country of birth as measurements of individual attributes are purely nominal scales, as there is no inherent order to their categories) |
| What is pathogenicity? | Proportion of persons infected, after exposure to a causative agent, who then develops a clinical disease |
| What is period prevalence? | Amount of a particular disease present in a population over a period of time |
| What is a propagated outbreak? | An outbreak that doesn't have a common source, but instead spreads from person-to-person |
| What is a secondary attack rate? | A measure of the frequency of new cases of a disease among the contacts of known causes |
| What is a secular trend? | Changes over a long period of time, generally years or decades |
| What is a vector? | An animate intermediary in the direct transmission of an agent that carries the agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host |
| What is virulence? | Proportion of persons with clinical disease, who after become infected, become severely ill or die |
| What are zoonoses? | Infectious diseases that are transmissible under normal conditions from animals to humans |
| What is sanitation? | Use of an antimicrobial agent on objects, surfaces, or living tissues to reduce the number of disease-causing organisms to non-threatening levels |
| What is disinfection? | Use of antimicrobial agents on non-living objects or surfaces to destroy or inactivate microorganisms |
| What is sterilization? | Destroys all microorganisms on the surface of an article or in a fluid to prevent disease transmission |
| What is antisepsis? | Prevention of infection by inhibiting or arresting the growth and multiplication of germs (infectious agents) |
| What is due process? | Necessary procedural requirements that government agencies must follow to take action against parties in violation of applicable laws |
| What is respondeat superior? | Employer is held liable for the torts of its employees committed within the scope of their employment |
| What is Tort Law? | Civil wrongs- Injuries to an individual's person, property, or reputation |
| What is an embargo? | An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare |
| What is the regulatory process? | Rules, plan reviews, permits, inspections, and enforcement |
| What is it called when an employer is held liable for the torts of its employees committed within the scope of their employment? | Respondeat superior |
| Performance of an authorized act in an unauthorized manner is called what? | Misfeasance |
| An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare is called an order of what? | Embargo |
| What is the federal agency that regulates food additives? | Food and Drug Administration |
| When a legal action is being prepared, one of the first steps an RS should take is what? | Keep accurate records |
| How is the term "contamination" defined when used in connection with a communicable disease? | Presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance |
| What is the MOST common contributing factor to foodborne illness? Insect and rodent infestations Dirty equipment Incorrect labeling of containers Improper holding temperatures | Improper holding temperatures |
| Why are some foods classified as time/temperature control for safety? | They support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms |
| Which food does not require refrigeration at 41 degrees or lower? Open container of garlic in oil Tofu Sliced/cut cantaloupe UHT creamers | UHT Creamers |
| What is the BEST means of inhibiting the growth of microorganisms in fresh meat? | Adequate refrigeration and cleanliness |
| What is the MAXIMUM accumulated time that time/temperature control for safety food can safely be exposed to temperature danger zone? | 6 hours |
| If time only is used as a public health control, the MAXIMUM period of time recommended by the FDA for time/temperature control for safety food to be held is what? | 6 hours if the warmest part of the food item does not exceed 70 degrees |
| What is the MINIMUM period of time that the FDA recommends employees wash their hands and arms up to the elbow? | 20 seconds |
| Unpasteurized eggs NOT intended for immediate service should be cooked to what temperature and for how long? | 155 degrees for 15 seconds |
| What is the usual mode of infection from Salmonella? | Ingestion of contaminated food |
| What is the source of scombroid poisoning? | Histamines in the muscle of fish |
| All the following are signs of spoiled fish EXCEPT: Strong odor Elastic flesh Gray gills Sunken eyes | Elastic Flesh |
| Which of the following shellfish are MOST likely to cause illness? Oysters Crabs Shrimp Scallops | Oysters |
| The laboratory reports a positive coliform test that exceeds permissible limits on a bottle of pasteurized milk. What does this indicate? | Improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment |
| What is the MOST effective practice for preventing trichinosis in people? Be certain that ground meat is freshly ground at the time of purchase Be sure that fresh pork is thoroughly cooked Avoid the consumption of ground meat products Cook steak well | Be sure that fresh pork is thoroughly cooked |
| A HACCP plan is NOT required when: Smoking foods as a method of preservation cooling and reheating TCS foods in bulk Performing reduced oxygen packaging Using food additives or adding other components to preserve food or render it non-TCS | Cooling and reheating TCS foods in bulk |
| What should NOT be done with food samples collected during a foodborne illness investigation? | Freeze |
| What is the PRIMARY requirement in designing a food service facility? Durability Cleanability Appearance Convenience | Cleanability |
| What is the MOST important rule of food storage? Follow the "first in, first out" rule Store products in order of "pull by" date Repackage dry foods into metal containers Store canned goods under refrigeration | Follow the "first in, first out" rule |
| Insecticides/pesticides may be stored in all ways EXCEPT: In a metal locked cabinet On the lowest shelf in the storage room Above the dishwashing sinks In the basement separate from food and other chemicals | Above the dishwashing sinks |
| What is HACCP? | Management system in which food safety is addressed through the analysis and control of biological, chemical, and physical hazards from raw material production, procurement and handling, to manufacture, distribution and consumption of the finished product |
| What is potable water? | Water free from organisms that are capable of causing disease, and from minerals and organic substances that can produce adverse psychological effects; water may be consumed in any desirable amount without concern for adverse effects on health |
| What is a public water system? | Provides water for human consumption, through pipes or other constructed conveyances to at least 15 service connections, or serves an average of at least 25 individuals for at least 60 days/ years |
| What is a community water system? | A public water system that supplies water to the same population year-round |
| What is a non-transient non-community water system (NTNCWS)? | Public water system that regularly supplies water to at least 25 of the same people at least 6 months/year, but not year-round (Schools, factories, office buildings, hospitals, etc) |
| What is transient non-community water systems (TNCWS)? | A public water system that provides water in a place such as a gas station or campground where people do not remain for long periods of time |
| What is coagulation and flocculation? | Municipal treatment process that combines small suspended particles into large aggregates. Traps and removes microorganisms and decreases turbidity while increasing the effectiveness of the disinfection |
| What is sedimentation and flotation?- Sedimentation | Municipal treatment process that uses solid-liquid gravity separation process. Promotes gravity settling of solid particles to the bottom of the water column were accumulated solids are removed. |
| What is sedimentation and flotation?-Flotation | Municipal treatment process that uses solid-liquid gravity separation process. Introduces gas bubbles into water that attach to solid particles and create bubble-solid agglomerates that float to top of water column where accumulated solids are removed. |
| What is filtration? | Municipal treatment process that removes suspended matter as it passes through beds of porus materials. Most commonly used and used with granular media filters. Does not make water bacteriologically safe |
| What is slow sand filtration? | Very low filtration rates without the use of coagulation in pre-treatment. Sand is 0.25 to 0.35mm and is effective to remove giardia from low-turbidity water |
| What is rapid filtration? | Passages of treated water pass through a granular media bed using a larger grain of sand. Sand is 0.5 to 0.7mm. |
| What is a pressure filter? | Rapid filtration where filter media is contained in a steel pressure vessel. Used for small water systems. |
| What is a diatomaceous earth filter? | A natural powder-like material composed of of the shells of microscopic organisms (diatoms) as media. Should always be supplemented by a chlorination system. |
| What are dug/bored wells? | Holes in the g round dug by a shovel or back-hoe. Lined with stones, brick, tile, or other to prevent collapse. |
| What are driven wells? | Driving pipe into the ground and are continuously cased, but easily contaminated because they draw water from aquifers near the surface. |
| What are drilled wells? | Constructed by precision or rotary-drilling machines and can be thousands of feet deep and require casing installation. Have a low risk of contamination due to depth. |
| What is reverse osmosis? | Processw of reduction of dissolved ions (such as salts) from water in which pressure is employed to force water through a semi-permeable membrane, which will transmit the water but reject most other dissolved materials. |
| What is distillation? | The process in which a liquid such as water is converted by heating, into a vapor state, and the vapor is cooled and condensed to a liquid state and collected. |
| What is arsenicosis? | Caused by long-term exposure to arsenic in drinking water. Can result in skin cancer, lung cancer, bladder cancer, or kidney cancer. |
| What is cholera? | Acute bacterial infection of the GI tract that can lead to diarrhea and death from dehydration. |
| What is fluorosis? | Bone disease caused by high concentrations of fluoride occurring naturally in groundwater. |
| What is Guinea worm disease? | Comes from contaminated water with Dracunculus larvae that mature into adult Guinea worms that leave a human body after about a year. Causes debilitating ulcers. |
| What is trachoma? | Eye infection spread through poor hygiene caused by lack of adequate water supplies and unsafe environmental sanitation conditions. Leads to blindness. Affects women 2-3 times more than men. |
| What are some emergency sources of water? | Water heater tank, melted ice cubes, toilet tank, liquid from canned fruits and vegetables, water from swimming pools and spas (for personal hygiene only), rainwater, moving bodies of water, ponds and lakes (for personal hygiene only), and natural springs |
| What type of well is considered LEAST likely to become contaminated? Drilled Bored Driven Dug | Drilled well because of the depth. |
| Diatomaceous earth filters: Should be supplemented by a chlorination system Should be integrated into a rapid sand filtration system Can be used for a public water treatment system Can be used in a public sewer treatment system | Should be supplemented by a chlorination system |
| Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through: Sandstone Smooth clay Fissured rock Limestone | Smooth clay |
| What type of filter is recommended for use in small communities and rural places? | Slow sand filtration |
| All of the following are used to disinfect water EXCEPT: Chlorine Bromine Fluorine Iodine | Fluorine |
| Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods EXCEPT: Hydrostatic loops Vacuum breakers Sir gap separation Backpressure units | Hydrostatic loops |
| What is the LEAST effective method to remove cadmium from drinking water? | Activated carbon |
| Before a drinking water sample is taken, the sampling tap should be clean, free of leaks, and flushed for how long? | 2-3 minutes |
| What contaminant has been associated with learning and cognitive disabilities in children who drink contaminated water? | Lead |
| The wastewater from the flushing of a water closet, latrine, privy is referred to as what? | Black water |
| If a septic tank is pumped during a wet period, what may happen? | Tank may float out of the ground |
| Nutrients associated with eutrophication include all the following EXCEPT: Organic carbon Potassium Nitrogen Phosphates | Potassium |
| Which of the following is LEAST important when reducing sewage to gases? Anaerobic bacteria Earthworms Protozoa Aerobic bacteria | Earthworms |
| A septic tank maintenance worker has checked an empty tank for the presence of hydrogen sulfide. The test was negative, and there are no odors indicating the presence of other hazardous gases. Is the tank safe to enter without a respirator & supplied air? | No, because oxygen content and methane were not tested. |
| All the following are true about ozone as a disinfectant EXCEPT: Nontoxic to aquatic organisms Source of dissolved oxygen Excellent viricide Long-lasting residual | Long-lasting residual |
| Aerobic bacteria require all of the following nutrients EXCEPT: Carbon Magnesium Phosphorus Nitrogen | Magnesium |
| What does a mottles brown and red soil indicate? | Inadequate aeration methods |
| Alternative small wastewater treatment systems are considered unless what? | Impervious formations are found at a depth of 10 feet |
| Lime coagulation, mixed media filtration, and activated carbon filtration will greatly reduce what? | EPA priority pollutants |
| It is known that some common pathogenic organisms found in wastewater will survive more than___ of harsh temperature extremes. | 2 years |
| What is a storm sewer used for? | Remove rain and other standing surface water |
| When is stream pollution sometimes apparent? | A zone of degradation is present |
| A young lake is considered to be Eutrophic Mesotrophic Oligotrophic Ohytotrophic | Oligotrophic |
| What should happen if a septic tank will also have a garbage disposal unit feeding into it? | Size of the tank should be increased by 50% |
| Sludge accumulation in a tank serving a normal hame has been estimated at: 40-50 L/person/year 69-80 gal/person/year 18-21 gal/person/year 2.2 gal/person/year | 18-21 gallons per person per year |
| How often should a septic tank for a private home be serviced? | Every 3-5 years |
| How is human disease and aerosols from wastewater related? | They are related primarily to wastewater treatment by the activated sludge, trickling filter, and spray irrigation process. |
| Plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater; using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a health hazard to humans if the water contains: Nitrates Iron Cadmium Chlorides | Cadmium |
| After the servicing (pumping) of a septic tank, it is essential that the tank and lid be what? | Replaced and secured for safety purposes. |
| What are enteric diseases? | Diseases involving the GI system |
| What is the Zone of Degradation? | When water becomes dark and turbid with formation of sludge deposits at the bottom just ahead of the point where sewage is discharged into the river. |
| What is a mesotrophic lake? | Lake with intermediate level of productivity. Commonly clear water lakes and ponds with beds of submerged aquatic plants and medium levels of nutrients. |
| What is a eutrophic lake? | A lake with high biological productivity. |
| What is a hypereutrophic lake? | A very nutrient rich lake characterized by frequent and severe algal blooms and low transparency. |
| What does the physical wastewater treatment process entail? | Passing wastewater through screens to remove debris and solids. Solids settle to the bottom where particles float to the top to be removed. |
| What does the biological wastewater treatment process entail? | Bacteria and small organisms consume organic matter, turning it into new bacterial cells, carbon dioxide, or other by products. |
| What does the chemical wastewater treatment process entail? | Alum, lime, or iron salts are added to the wastewater to cause certain pollutants to bunch together to be removed by physical processes. |
| What is deep-well injection? | Pumps liquid wastes through lined wells into porus rock formations deep underground. |
| What are F wastes? | Certain hazardous wastes from non-specific sources. Wastes from common manufacturing and industrial processes such as solvents that have been used in cleaning or degreasing operations |
| What are K wastes? | Hazardous wastes from specific sources, such as petroleum refining or pesticide manufacturing. Certain sludges and wastewaters treatment and production processes. |
| What are P and U wastes? | Discarded commercial chemical products, off-specific (off-spec) chemicals and container and spill residues of commercial chemical products. P wastes are acutely hazardous wastes due to toxicity or reactivity. |
| What are the four components of risk-assessment? | Hazard identification, dose-response assessment, exposure assessment, and risk characterization |
| What is a shelby tube? | A thin-walled, hollow steel tubes which are driven into the ground to extract a relatively undisturbed soil sample for use in laboratory tests |
| What is a veihmeyer rod? | Thin wall tube corer with a handle. |
| What is a sanitary landfill? | Sites where waste is isolated from the environment until it is safe. |
| What is full or partial hydrogeological isolation? | A type of sanitary landfill. If a site cannot be located on land with natural leachate security, additional lining materials should be brought to the site to reduce leakage from the base and help reduce contamination of groundwater and surrounding soil. |
| What are formal-engineering preparations? | Part of sanitary landfill. Designs should be developed from local geological and hydrological investigations. A waste disposal plan and final restoration plan should be developed. |
| What is planned waste emplacement and covering? | Part of sanitary landfill. Waste should be spread in layers and compacted. Small working area which is covered daily helps make waste less accessible to pests and vermin. |
| According to the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), how must hazardous household waste be disposed? | Household hazardous waste is exempt from RCRA requirements. |
| The grinding of garbage is an acceptable method of: Garbage disposal Volume reduction Wet oxidation Energy recovery | Garbage disposal |
| A solid waste manage is trying to reduce lead in the solid waste stream. What should be targeted in the municipal waste stream as a MAJOR contributor of lead to the environment? | Lead acid batteries |
| What is not an advantage of using "shredded solid waste" landfill method? Does not cause odors Requires daily earth cover Readily absorb precipitation Reduces insect breeding | It will readily absorb precipitation |
| The BEST sanitary landfill method for a location with rolling terrain is the: Low-area method Valley or ravine area method Trench method Area or ramp method | Area or ramp method |
| Why is it important for a business that generates hazardous waste to deal only with licensed disposal companies that have a good compliance history? | The business is held accountable for where and how the hazardous waste generated is disposed of. |
| Which of the following is NOT a type of hazardous waste incinerator? Pressurized Fluidized Fixed hearth Rotary kiln | Pressurized |
| Which federal law regulates underground storage tanks for hazardous waste? | Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) |
| A measure of the probability and severity of adverse effects under specific conditions BEST describes: Risk Hazard Exposure Toxicity | Risk |
| Which of the following sampling devices is BEST for collection undisturbed soil samples? Auger Shelby tube Split spoon Veihmeyer rod | Split spoon |
| What is the term for a statistical estimate of an oral dose of a chemical that produces a lethal effect on half of an animal population? | LD50 |
| The dose-response relationship of a toxic substance depends on all of the following EXCEPT: Amount and concentration of the substance pH of the substance Duration of exposure to the substance Toxicity of the substance | pH of the substance |
| Which respiratory device provides the BEST protection? Postive pressure respirator with a full face piece Negative pressure respirator with a full face piece Full-face canister respirator Half-face respirator | Positive pressure respirator with a full face piece |
| The Emergency Planning and Communicty Right-to-Know Act (SARA Title III) does NOT require the disclosure what? | All chemicals routinely discharged into the atmosphere |
| For first responders at an incident, what is the order of importance for responder safety, environmental safety, public safety, and property protection? | Responder safety, public safety, environmental safety, personal property |
| What are the five biological hazard categories? | Viral Rickettsial/Chlamydial Bacterial Fungal Parasitic |
| What is the role of a mechanistic toxicologist? | Identify the mechanism by which the toxic substance produces its effects within the organism. Study biochemical interactions of the foreign substance with the bodies tissues and fluids |
| What is the role of a descriptive toxicologist? | Conduct tests to determine dose-response information for specific organisms and routes of exposure. Find out what effect will occur at given exposure levels. |
| What is the role of a diagnostic or clinical toxicologist? | Determine probable toxic agents responsible for manifested symptoms and may recommend antidotes or treatment. |
| What is the role of a predictive toxicologist? | Utilize data generated by descriptive toxicologists to predict the effect of a given exposure on one or more organisms. |
| What is the role of a regulatory toxicologist? | Predictive toxicologists who set regulatory standards for environmental or occupational exposures based on descriptive toxicological data and the understanding of human and environmental systems. |
| What is the role of environmental toxicologists? | Specialize in the impact of toxic substances on ecosystems and the exposure of humans to toxic substances by way of air, water, and the food chain. |
| What is a teratogen? | A substance or condition resulting in congential malformations, otherwise known as birth defects. |
| Define hazardous material and who regulates it | Any item or agent (biological, chemical, radiological, and /or physical) which has potential to cause harm to humans, animals, or the environment either by itself or through interaction with other factors. |
| What are zoonoses? | Infections or infectious disease of vertebrate animals that can be transmitted to human beings. |
| What are vectors? | An organism (insects or arthropods) that transmits a pathogen. An agent (plasmid or virus) that contains or carries modified genetic material (such as recombinant DNA) and can be used to introduce exogenous genes into the genome of an organism. |
| That is tularemia? | Zoonosis that occur in rabbits or other mammals, but contracted by humans, especially those raw, infected meat. Transferred directly or through vectors such as deer flies or wood ticks. Can be from drinking water or inhaling infected dust. |
| What is mechanical transmission? | The passive carrying of disease organisms either on the surface of the arthropod or by its ingestion of microorganisms (biomagnification). |
| What is biological transmission? | The microorganism multiplies or undergoes a cyclic development period with in the host. |
| What is integrated pest management (IPM)? | The use of alternative methods in addition to pesticides, so that the amount of pesticide necessary can be reduced. Eliminating conditions conducive to pest entry, harborage, and survival. |
| What is Rocky Mountain spotted fever transmitted by? | Dog ticks |
| What are the peak seasons for rats to breed in temperate zones? | Spring and fall |
| Which of the following pesticides can be legally used in the United States by the public? Diazinon Silvex 2,4,5-T None of the above | Diazinon |
| Where is poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac that contain oleoresin not found in the plant? | The wood. It is found in the leaves, flowers, and bark. |
| What is psittacosis most commonly spread by? | Pigeons |
| What is hay fever commonly referred to as? | Pollenosis |
| What is MOST effective for controlling ragweed? | 2,4-D |
| What does endemic mean? | The constant presence of an illness. |
| What is the interval between exposure to the infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom called? | Incubation period. |
| A disease transmitted by birds and bird droppings is: Dengue fever Psittacosis Tularemia Hurine typhus | Psittacosis |
| What is it called when an infected organism does not exhibit symptoms during the spread of an illness? | Carrier. |
| The killing of an infectious agent outside the body by chemical or physical means is termed: Detoxification Deodorization Destabilization Disinfection | Disinfection. |
| What is Rocky Mountain spotted fever spread by? | Ticks (particularly dog ticks) |
| What does the term "cooties" refer to? | Lice infestation |
| What does rad mean? | Radiation absorbed dose |
| What type of ray has little penetrating power and normally hazardous to health only in the form of internal radiation received through ingestion, inhalation, or open wound? | Alpha particles |
| Beta radiation is MOST commonly blocked by what type of material? | Glass or plastic |
| What are microwaves reflected by? | Metals |
| What is the energy of ionizing radiation measured in? | Electron volts (eV) |
| The term "frequency" is described as what? | Particles, vibrations, or oscillations. Never by waves. |
| The shorter the wave length, the: Higher the frequency and lower the energy Lower the frequency and energy Lower the frequency and higher the energy Higher the frequency and energy | High the frequency and energy |
| The roentgen is a measure of the ionization in air produced by exposure to what? | X-rays and gamma rays |
| The absorption of how many ergs (energy-per-gram) of air represents one roentgen? | About 86 ergs |
| What is "rem" short for? | Roentgen equivalent man- The unit equivalent or occupational exposure |
| What term is used to show exposure of large populations to low-level radiation? | Person-rem |
| The rate of which atoms are radioactive sources (radionuclides) disintegrate are measured in what? | Curies. Measure the radioactivity of a substance. The rate at which atoms of radioactive sources (radionuclides) disintegrate |
| Isotopes of the same element have: The same mass # but different atomic # The same atomic but different mass Different atomic and mass # The same atomic and mass # | The same atomic number but different mass number. |
| What is radon? | A radioactive gas produced by the natural decay of uranium that is present in trace quantities in the earth. Emits alpha particles and therefore contributes doses only to the lungs. |
| What is the inverse square law? | Describes the relationship between radiation intensity and distance from the source. |
| What is ionization? | The process of displacing an orbital electron form an atom in a substance, producing a negative ion and a positive ion. |
| What is a roentgen? | A measure of the ionization in air produced by exposure to x-rays or gamma-rays |
| What is a quantum rem? | Used to show the exposure of large populations to low-level radiation |
| What is ionizing radiation? | The release of energy that allows an unstable nucleus to attain a more stable form. |
| What is alpha-decay? | Radioactivity produces an alpha particle |
| What is B-decay? | Emits electrons |
| What is gamma decay? | Releases gamma-waves=high frequency electromagnetic energy |
| What is spontaneous fission? | When an atom breaks into 2 smaller atoms without any outside help. |
| What is the danger and/or hazard posed by an etiological agent? | Human disease |
| No person should be permitted to work in a trench or pit in sandy clay soil that has unsupported sides or banks higher than: 2 feet 3 feet 4 feet 5 feet | 5 feet |
| An employer moves employees who have reached their upper permissible level of exposure to a hazardous environment, to prevent further exposure. What type of hazard control is this? | Administrative control. |
| A negative pressure fit test for a protective mask is done how? | Is done by placing both palms against the intake filters. |
| Qualitative risk assessments USUALLY measure human exposure through all of the following EXCEPT: Computer models Blood and urine analyses Personal surveys Toxicological analysis | Computer models. |
| What does OSHA's Respiratory Protection Program entail? | Medical evaluation, written program, annual training, annual fit test, and assessment of inhalation hazards present in the work place |
| What are engineering controls? | When operational procedure can be modified to reduce exposure to a toxic agent and markedly reduce the hazard. |
| What are administrative controls? | Things such as adjusting work schedules or transferring people so that exposure is limited or reduced. |
| What is etiology? | The cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease or condition. |
| What are the 6 criteria air pollutants? | Particulate matter, Ozone, Lead, Sulfur dioxide, Carbon monoxide, and Nitrogen dioxide |
| What is smog? | Ground-level ozone from emissions reacting with sunlight. |
| What is soot? | Particulate matter made up of chemicals, soil, smoke, dust, and allergens in the form of gas or solids. |
| What is infrasound? | Any sound with a frequency below 20 Hz |
| What is ultrasound? | Any sound with a frequency above 20 Hz |
| What are exhaust ventillation systems? | Work by depressurizing the building by reducing inside air pressure via extracting indoor air from a house while make-up air filtrates through leaks. |
| What are supply ventillation systems? | Pressurize the building by using a fan to force outside air inside while inside air leaks outside. |
| What are balanced ventillation systems? | Introduce and exhaust approximately equal quantities of fresh air and polluted air. Use 2 fans and have a 2-duct system. |
| What is the most likely cause of photochemical smog? | Heavy motor vehicle traffic |
| The industries LEAST likely to be a source of sulfur dioxide pollution are what? Metal smelters Coal and oil burning power plants Refineries Hazardous waste incinerators | Hazardous waste incinerators |
| What particles do wet scrubbers collect? | Fog, mist, or dust |
| Particle size selective inlets are used to separate particulates above and below 2-3 microns in size on: High-volume samplers Outfall vacuums Baghouse air filters Atmospheric respirator sieves | High-volume samplers |
| What is the MOST common type of noise measurement device used for initial inspections? | Sound level meter |
| What is synergism? | When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. |
| How much air do humans breathe in per day, on average? | 35 pounds of air. |
| Which component of clean, dry air has the smallest volume? | Sulfur dioxide |
| Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following except: Rubber Textiles Dyes Nylon | Nylon |
| Major effects on humans are caused by Los Angeles- and London-type smog, along with what two pollutants? | Sulfur dioxide and hydrogen fluoride |
| Photochemical smog has been reported in congested areas with: Large industries Chemical processing plants Industries processing hazardous wastes High motor vehicle traffic | High motor vehicle traffic |
| What type of pollution causes bleaching of leaves in plants? | Sulfur dioxide |
| Which of the following are not major sources of sulfur dioxide? Metal smelters Coal and oil burning power plants Refineries Electrical substations | Electrical substations |
| Which of the following is not a malodorous gas? Sulfur dioxide Hydrogen sulfide Carbon Monoxide Phenol | Carbon monoxide |
| What is a malodorous gas? | A gas with a very unpleasant smell |
| What size particle can reach the lowest parts of the lung? 15microns 50 microns 3 microns Any size particle | 3 microns |
| Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers and: Gate valves Indirect waste piping Air vents Bypass valves | Indirect waste piping |
| Vent gasses from a coal-burning furnace combined with high moisture inside a chimney will form: A glass-like glaze Hydrochloric acid Sodium chloride Sulfuric acid | Sulfuric acid |
| What is the PRIMARY cause of death resulting from automobile exhaust accumulation in garages? | Carbon monoxide |
| The end of a waste pipe should terminate below the rim of a sink directly connected to the drainage system by at least how many inches? | 2 inches |
| What is the most common type of injury in a home? | A fall |
| An "S" trap is not considered legal in most state plumbing codes due to which factor? | They are not vented. |
| Which of the following is not a traditional formaldehyde air pollution source? Cosmetics Burning vegetation Particle board Computer emissions | Burning vegetation |
| Long term effects of lead poisoning includes what? | Learning disabilities |
| What is the stud intended as? | Vertical support |
| What is a joist used for? | Horizontal support |
| Why is a footing drain required? | Keep a foundation from slipping |
| How high should the chimney of the house be above the highest structure of the home? | Three feet |
| What is the horizontal part of the stairs you step on called? | Tread |
| What is the vertical part of the stairs you step on called? | Riser |
| Why do footers often fail? | Cracked and/or displaced foundations |
| Why should a plastic ground cover sealed to the foundation be placed on the ground in the crawl space of the home? | Control moisture in the crawlspace |
| Why is the footing drain important? | Keep drain water away from the base of the home to prevent damage to the footer and foundation |
| Where should a termite shield be placed? | Between the foundation and the sill. |
| What is the maximum size of a stair riser? | 8" 1/4 |
| What is the ASHRAE-recommended minimal thermal standard for dwellings at 40% humidity and an air circulation rate of 45 fpm | 76 degrees F |
| The distance between the end of the water supply pipe and the sink should be how many times the diameter of the supply pipe? | 2 times |
| At what percent humidity does condensation, corrosion, and mildew occur? | 60 percent |
| Where are nosocomial infection a recurring problem? | Health care facilities |
| What is the minimum wash temperature in hospital laundry? | 160-167 degrees F |
| What is a biohazard? | A material of biological composition, especially if infective, that constitutes a threat to people or their environment |
| Who regulates bloodborne pathogens? | OSHA |
| The Muerto Canyon virus (MCV) is a hantavirus carried by what and destroys what primary organ? | Carried by mice and affects the lungs |
| The incidence of tuberculosis in English laboratory workers working with M. tuberculosis was reported to be how many times higher than for the general population? | 5 times |
| What does the term "universal precautions" refer to? | An infection control program regulating the handling of blood and certain body fluids. |
| What is the biosafety containment level suitable for work involving agents of moderate potential hazard to personnel and the environment? | Biosafety level 2 |
| Biological safety equipment includes: Biosafety cabinets Needles and syringes Disinfecting chemicals Technical manuals | Technical manuals |
| What do the 3 biosafety containment levels consist of? | Laboratory practices, safety equipment, and facilities |
| The protection of personnel and the immediate laboratory environment from exposure to infectious agents by good microbiological techniques and safety equipment is called what? | Primary containment |
| Who regulates the release of genetically engineered materials into the environment? | USDA and EPA |
| What is disinfection? | The process of cleaning something, especially with a chemical in order to destroy bacteria |
| What is sterilization? | A process that destroys or eliminates all forms or microbial life and is carries our in health-care facilities by physical or chemical methods. |
| What are bioloads? | The nitrogen-processing demand placed upon the filters of an aquarium by uneaten food, decomposing inhabitants, and other waste |
| What is an extractor? | Denoting a device used to ventilate and remove bad smells from an area. |
| What is biosafety level 1? | Agents are identified and characterized as agents not known to cause disease in healthy adult humans and are of minimal potential hazard to lab personnel and the environment. |
| What is biosafety level 2? | Agents are of moderate potential hazard to personnel and environment, and include many of the foodborne and waterborne disease agents, such as salmonella, shigella, and campylobacter |
| What is biosafety level 3? | Agents are those indigenous of exotic agents that may cause serious or potentially lethal disease as a result of exposure by inhalation. Examples include tuberculosis and hantavirus. |
| What is biosafety level 4? | Agents are dangerous and exotic agents that pose a high individual risk of infection and life-threatening disease as a result of aerosol exposure. |
| What does ASHRAE stand for? | American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air Conditioning Engineers. |
| What is poliomyelitis? | An infectious and viral disease that affects the central nervous system and can cause temporary and permanent paralysis. Found in recreational water and swimming pools |
| What are the minimum, ideal, maximum and pH levels for free chlorine in pods and water parks? | Minimum: 1.0ppm Ideal: 2.0-4.0ppm Max: 5.0ppm pH: 7.2-7.6 |
| What are the minimum, ideal, maximum and pH levels for free chlorine in spas? | Minimum: 2.0ppm Ideal: 3.0-5.0ppm Max: 10.0ppm pH: 7.2-7.6 |
| What is the definition for combined chlorine? | After chlorine in hypochlorous acid has oxidized organic matter and some inorganic substances, it reacts with ammonia to form chloramines. Chloramines are bactericides, but the rate of disinfection is 60-100 times slower than free chlorine. |
| What is the turnover rate for spas and hot tubs? | 30 minutes |
| The treatment system of a pool is typically recommended to be installed in what arrangement? | Skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, hair strainer, filter aid pump, filters, disinfectant feeder, pH feeder, adjustable inlets. |
| Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of NTU of Nephelometer Turbity Units. What is the maximum level of NTU's? | 0.5 NTU |
| What is the minimum a swimming pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water? | 6 hours |
| What is the rate of filtration for a vacuum diatomite filter? | 1-2 gpm/ft^2 |
| What chemicals have been used for pool disinfection? | Chlorine, chloro-iso-cyanurates, bromine, and iodine |
| Due to the large quantity of floating organisms and materials, the gutters or skimmers should receive what MINIMUM percent of the total pool water | 60% |
| What is the recommended and MOST effective method of maintaining pool water quality? | Continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration |
| What is an advantage of using cyanuric acid as an additive in pools? | Stabilizes residual chlorine |
| What does the acidity-alkalinity balance affect? | Eye irritation, water coagulation, and the effectiveness of chlorine |
| What does the addition of sodium bicarbonate to a pool do? | Raise the pH |
| What should be added to a pool to raise the pH? | Soda ash |
| How should acid and water be mixed? | Add the acid to the water |
| What happens when chlorine is added to water? | One acid is formed |
| What is the preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft? | Onboard holding tanks |
| How much chlorine does gas chlorine provide? | 100% available chlorine |
| What microbe is primarily responsible for skin infections in whirlpools? | Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| What is the minimum standard for children's wading pools to be recirculated? | 60 minutes |
| What is the generally prohibited swimming facility from a public health standard? | Fill and draw pools |
| What is the formula to determine the number of hours it takes for the entire contents of the pool to pass through the filters? | Volume of pool=(Turnover rate)(Pump flow rate)(60 mins) |
| The main drain should have a grate that is how much larger than the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects?( absolute minimum) | Four times |
| The speed and effectiveness with which emergency action can be taken is dependent PRIMARILY on what? | Prior planning |
| Education and survival of individuals in an emergency or natural disaster is most often dependent on the extend of what? | Individuals can help themselves |
| Which government organization usually deals with major disasters? | Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) |
| What is the FIRST action an individual should take upon hearing an order for the evacuation of homes and businesses? | Turn off all public utility services to the building |
| What is the FIRST consideration in shelter selection when temporary shelter is necessary in an emergency? | Protection of the survivors from health and safety risks |
| What is the minimum amount of water per day that should be provided for natural disaster victims? | 3-5 gallons per person |
| What vaccination is needed after flooding and other natural disasters? | Vaccinations are not required. |
| What quantity of liquid household bleach is necessary to treat 1,000 gallons of bacterially contaminated water for drinking? | 1 pint |
| A satisfactory method for disinfecting water that is not chemically or grossly polluted with bacteria is: Chlorination Fluorination Oxygenation CO2 treatment | Chlorination |
| In emergency situations, when the water is turbid or colored but not chemically contaminated, the chlorine dosage should be: Tripled Discontinued Decreased Doubled | Doubled |
| Approved emergency response plans at nuclear electric power plant sites must be tested AT LEAST every: 2 years 3 years 4 years 5years | 2 years |
| What are the key components of the HAZWOPER program? | Safety and health programs, personal protection, and training. |
| What does HAZWOPER requirements apply to? | Voluntary cleanup at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites |
| What is the difference between a disaster and terrorism? | Intent |
| What does HAZWOPER stand for? | Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response Standard. Standards applied to employers and employees who are exposed to hazardous substances & who are engaged in several operations including cleanup, treatment, & storage & disposal of hazardous waste |
| What is the Incident Command System? | A management system designed to enable effective and efficient domestic incident management by integrating a combination of facilities, equipment, personnel procedures, and communications operating within a common organizational structure |
| What is the National Incident Management System (NIMS)? | Provides a consistent nationwide template to enable partners across the nation to work together to prevent, protect against, respond to, recover from, and mitigate the effects of incidents, regardless of cause, size, location, or complexity. |
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