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CBIC study notes
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Presence of microorganisms in or on a host with growth, but without tissue invastion or damage. | Colonization |
| Entry of an infectious agent in the tissues of the host which multiplies and creates symptoms. | Infection |
| Presence of mircroorganisms on inamimate objects, skin, or in substances | Contamination |
| Ability to cause disease | Pathogenicity |
| Ability to enter and grow in a host | Invasiveness |
| Number of organisms needed for infection to occur | Infectious dose |
| Measure of the ability to cause disease | Virulence |
| Habitat where an infectious agent lives, multiplies and or grows | Reservoir |
| Inanimate object on which organisms can survive for a period of time | Fomite |
| Used because bacteria are cololess and usually invisible to light microscopy. Allows clinicians to determine the shape of organisms | Gram stain |
| Stain= purple | Gram positive |
| Stain= red | Gram Negative |
| Used to differentiate between streptococci and Staphylococci | Catalase test |
| Catalase positive | Staphlococci |
| Catalase Negative | Streptococci |
| Used to differentiate Staph Areus and Staph Epi | Coagulase test |
| Coagulase positive | Staph areus |
| Coagulase negative | Not Staph areus |
| Bacteria classification is based on | Morphology (Cocci vs. bacilli or rods)Gram stain characteristicsOxygen utilization |
| Must have oxygen to survive | Aerobic |
| Does not need oxygen to survive | Anaerobic |
| Four groups of bacteria | gram+ cocciGram + bacilliGram - cocciGram - bacilli |
| Gram + Cocci | Staphylococcus areus and epidermisStreptococcusEnterococcus |
| Gram + Bacilli | BacillusListeriaClostridium |
| Gram - Cocci | Neisseria MeningitidisNeisseria GonorrheaeMoxaxella catarrhalis |
| Gram - Bacilli | KlebsiellaProteusMorganellaE coliSalmonellaCitrobacterEnterobacterShigellaPseudomonasAcinetobacter |
| First reacting antibody or immunoglobulin to be produced to fight off infection. Present in a current active infection. This is what is looked for on titers | IgM |
| Mature already formed late occuring immunoglobulin of an immune response longest lived | IgG |
| Form own antibody | Active immunity |
| Get antibody from an outside source | Passive immunity |
| Immediate immunity / B cell produces antibodies/ circulating always ready to go | Humoral immunity |
| T cells produce lymphokines/ dont have material already there | Delayed hypersensitivity. |
| First cells to arrive at an inflammatory focus | Neutrophils |
| Induce allergic inflammatory response | Basophils |
| Important in hypersensitivity | Eosonophils |
| Staphylococcus | Gram + cocci, appear in clusters under the microscope.Aureus- coagulase + 20-30% of population carry this bacteria. Common cause of skin infectionsEpidermidis- Coagulase -. Common contaminant of blood cultures of common pathogen in prosthetic devices. |
| Enterococcus | Gram + cocci appear often in pairsFeacalis seen in 90-95% of isolates found in GI tract.Faecium seen in 5-10% of isolates. Found in GI tract. |
| Streptococcus | Gram + Cocci appear in chainsPneumoniae also known as pneumococcusPyogenes AKA group A- Necrotizing fascitis and strep throat |
| Clostridium | Gram + rod/ spore forming/ anaerobic |
| Antimicrobial therapy initiated when no information about causitive pathogen is known, patient is sufficiently ill to warrant treatment before C&S tests are available or clinical site of infection may give an indication of likely pathogen | Empiric |
| Antimicrobial therapy initiated because infecting agent is known, susceptibility tests have been done, and appropriate antimicrobial dosage are known | Therapeutic |
| Used to determine the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) | Broth dilution |
| The least amount of antimicrobial agent that inhibits the microbe | MIC |
| Standard lawn of bacteria is placed on agar media/ reported as susceptible, intermidiate or resistant/ Paper disk impregnated with standard amount of antibiotic placed on agar surface/ zone of inhibition around disk measured at 16-24 hours dep on organism | Disk diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) |
| Computer assisted manual overnight broth dilution test system/ semiautomated overnight broth microdilution test system | Instrument based susceptibilty testing (Vitek or walkaway) |
| Anthrax | Acute bacterial disease usually affecting the skinDiagnostic tesing blood, lesions or discharges by direct polychrome methylene blue stained smears or culturesIncubation period- hours to 7 days most w/n 48 hoursIsolation contactTx- Cipro, PCN, |
| Aspergillosis | Bronchial damage and intermittent bronchial pluggingDiagnostic testing- intradermal or scratch test/ culture of sputum/ fungus balls in lungs.Incubation- few days to weeksTx- corticosteriod/ surgical resection/ fungizone. |
| Hep A | Jaundice fatigue abdominal pain loss of appetitie nausea diarrheaTransmission- fecal-oral food/waterborne outbreaks |
| Diagnosic testing for Hep A | Anti HAV IgM is the antibody that appears during the acute illness and declines over 6-12 monthsAnti HAV IgG rises later than IgM but persists indefinately and is belived to provide lifelong immunity after natural infection |
| Diagnostic testing for Hep B | HVsAG is an outer surface component of HBV that serves as a marker for ongoing infection/ found in serum 1 to 2 months. Persistance beyond 6 months will indicate chronic infection/ HBc IgM is the first antibody detected |
| Diagnostic testing for Hep C | Anti- HCV can be detected between 4 and 24 hours after onset of illness but maybe persistant for up to a year. |
| Resistant to PCNs and Cephalosporins | ESBLs |
| Fever | Fever may be absent in 30% of the elderly even in the presence of infection |
| Sputum specimen | Should have few epithelia cells |
| The agent responsible for lyme disease | Spirochete- borreli burgdoferi |
| Hospital grade disinfectants are tested for effectiveness against which organisms? | Pseudomonas aeruginosa, salmonella, and MRSA |
| Recording and analyzing all medication administration errors from April 1 to April 30th on an internal medicine ward is an example of what kind of study? | Incidence |
| Starts with a healthy populations and follows them to measure develpment of disease and levels of exposure to possible risk factors | Cohort study |
| Neither the subject nor the Principle Investigator are aware of the treatment regimen being given to the subject | Double blind study |
| Failure to reject a false null hypothesis is called a | Beta or type 2 error |
| Which test is appropriate for use in compairing your BSI rates to published CDC/NHSN BSI rates? | Ztest |
| The fishers exact test should be used instead of the Chi-square test for analysis of case-control findings when | 2x2 tables in which any given cell value is expected to be less than 5 |
| When delegating a project to an associate, you should | Delegate the whole task, specify results desired, and have associate repeat the project expectations to you |
| A budget in which you detail by category every expenditure that you plan for the next year | Zero-based budget |
| In an operating room related outbreak, there is a serious morbidity and one death. You need to close the OR for a while. This managmement style would be | Consultative |
| Contemporary management theories include | Linear theoryContingency theorySystems theory |
| Takes into account all aspects of the situation | Contigency theory |
| The major focus on the annual infection control activities report should be | The impact of the program on patient outcomes |
| Surveillance is used for | monitoring outcomes and processes for quality management, identify problem areas for improvement, and to provide a baseline for comparison purposes. |
| What type of study measures incidence? | Cohort. |
| An outbreak of disease that extends into several countries or continents is called a | Pandemic |
| Which immunoglobulin indicates a recent or active infection? | IgM |
| Rapid diagnosis of RSV, adenovirus, and influenza can be acheived by using | PCR |
| Scabies without previous exposure has an icubation period of | 2-6 weeks |
| Scabies incubation period for people who have previously had scabies is | 1-4 days |
| The most important vaccine for a patient who has had their spleen removed is the | pneumococcal |
| Immunity to infectious disease of an adequate number or individuals in a population to be protective for those who are not immune to the disease is considered | Herd immunity |
| The type of surveillance that begins with results then looks at risk factors is | Outcome surveillance |
| The probability of not rejecting a false null hypothesis is considered a | Type II error |
| According to the Spaulding Classification system a laryngscope blade should be disinfected by what method? | Cleaning followed by HLD |
| The characteristic smell of diarrhea associated with C diff is the result of | Dead white blood cells |
| Before and after teaching a class if the ICP administers a pre-test and post-test which learning is being measured? | Cognitive |
| The test designed to challenge the vacuum pump in a pre-vaccuum steam sterilizer is the | Bowie Dick test |
| What can be used for both antisepsis and disinfection | Iodophors |
| Phenoics may be used for disinfection in all areas except | Nurseries |
| When processing implantable devices, and ETO sterilzer should be monitored with commercial preparations of | Bacillus atrophaeus in every load |
| Gives you the most evidence that your instruments are sterile | Biological |
| Heat and moisture senstive items are best sterilized by | Ethylene oxide |
| What percentage of microorgansisms is harmful to humans because they grow at room temperature | 1% |
| When persons in a disease outbreak are described, what characteristics are included | Dates of symptomsPerson, place and time,surveillance |
| Gram stains classify an organism as Gram positive or Gram negative. This allows for early identification of suspected organisms for the treatment of | Bacteria |
| the study of the relationship of the various factors determining the frequency and distribution of disease in a human community | epidemiology |
| This system has mechanisms which allow the body to recognize and to neutralize or eliminate microorganisms | immune system |
| Natural acquired active immunity develops from | Resolved infections |
| An organism that lives upon, or within another organism and at whose expense, obtains some advantage | viruses |
| The TB skin test depends on which functioning immune system | cellular |
| An obligate intracellular parasite that requires a living host cells to grow and reproduce | virus |
| Common causes of infections particularly in patients with altered immune systems | fungi |
| Which immune marker represents present exposure to disease | IgM |
| Air flow in health care should always go from | clean to dirty |
| bacteria may appear in three shapes | Spherical cocci, rod like bacillia, and spiral |
| Higher morbidity rates in chronic HBV carriers are associated with a coinfection of | Hepatitis D |
| The determinant factors for gram stains are cell wall components of | peptidoglycans |
| An example of an obligate intracellular parasitic bacterium would be an organism responsible for | Q fever and epidemic typhys |
| When talking about AFB specimens, _____________identify the AFB, and ____________ identify the species | smears and cultures |
| can grow in the small bowel and cause diarrhea in children and travelers diarrhea through the production of enterotoxins | E coli |
| Depletion of ____________ provide the best indication of susceptibility to most bacterial infections | neutrophils |
| The most common bacterial infection of vascular access site is | staphlococcus aureus |
| A gram stain of a sputum specimen that contains polymorhonuclocytes (PMNs) indicates that | it should be cultured |
| Positive antibodies to HIV shows up in | 1-3 months |
| The causitive organism of lyme disease is a | spirochete |
| greater than 80% lymphocytes in a CSF specimen with no organisms seen in usually indicative of meningitis caused by | mycobacteria |
| Seen in throat cultures | streptococcus pyrogenes |
| _______________is the biological indicator used for steam high temp sterilization, PPO, Liquid paracetic acid | G. stearotheromophilus |
| used for steam sterilization low temp | b. stubtilis |
| used for gas, plasma hydrogen peroxide | b subtilisbaringer |
| used for ETO and dry heat | b atrophaleus |
| Usual or expected occurance of the disease or the baseline | endemic |
| increased occurance of the disease above the usual or expected frequency. An outbreak | epidemic |
| epidemic that involves large geographical areas or several continents | Pandemic |
| Reistance of a group to invasion and spread of an infectious agent | Herd immunity |
| number of cases of a disease exsisting in a population at a point in time | Prevalence |
| number of new cases of a disease in a population over a period of time | incidence |
| measure of the frequency of death in a defined population during a specified time | mortality rate |
| whether what is intended to be measured is, in fact, measured | validity |
| population at risk. Example patient days | Incidence rate |
| Example is device days | Exposure time |
| Same as the classical rate but always uses 100 as the constant | Attack rate |
| Systematic data collection, collation, and analysis for the purpose of finding risk groups and risk factors and identifying control strategies | surveillance |
| ability of a test (criterion) to detect a condition, if the condition is truly present. When we apply the test we only get positives | Sensitivity |
| Ability of a test (criterion) to not detect a condition if the condition is truly not present | Specificity |
| A group of individuals who are healthy/measure risk factors exposures over time/ look for differences in disease frequencies according to exposure levels | Cohort studies |
| Neither the researcher nor the subject know to which treatment group the subject is assigned | Double blind studies |
| The sum of the numbers by the total of the nubmer | mean |
| The middle value of an ordered group of values | Median |
| The most commonly occuring value in a data set | Mode |
| The largest value minus the smallest value in a data set | Range |
| The square root fo the sum of all individual values in the data set minus the average value in the data set squared divided by n minus 1 | standard deviation |
| Normal distribution | 68%, 95%, and 99% |
| Techniques used to numerically describe the characteristics of a population or sample | descriptive statistics |
| techniques used to draw conclusions about a population based on a sample taken from the population | Inferential statistics |
| probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis | Apha type 1 error |
| Probability of not rejecting a false null hypothesis | Beta type 2 error |
| When we know something about the population from which the sample is drawn | Parametric tests |
| What we use to compare our data | Z tests |
| When we make no assumptions about the characteristics of the population from which the sample was drawn. Calculates the P value directly | Fishers exact test |
| What happens when you calculate the p value between two rates? | It will tell you if they difference is statistically significant or not |
| What can you conclude if the p value is small? | The difference is not likely to occur by chance and therefore is statistically significant. |
| What can you conclude if the p value is too large? | The difference is likely to occur by chance and therefore it is not statistically significant |
| What do tables do? | Summarize data and help to construct graphs and charts |
| What does line graphs do? | Displays and monitors trends in rates or numbers over time |
| Bar charts | Compare size or frequency of different groups |
| Pie chart | Shows pieces of a whole |
| What is the first thing you need to do in investigating an outbreak? | Confirm the diagnosis |
| Allows comparision of a set of data (observed values) to a set of theoretically generated values (expected values) in a formal way | Chi-square analysis |
| Gives direction for additional microbiological testing methods, directs the initial selelction of antimicrobial agents, helps determine the quality of the speicimen | Gram stain |
| In order to formulate a hypothesis on the possible cause of an outbreak, the cases should be characterized by _________________ | Common time periods, medical procedures and caregivers |
| Can be used to evaluate the effect of a variable on outcomes to calculate an odds ratio or relative risk if each cell of the table is greater than 5 | Chi squared test |
| The antimicrobial effects of PCN and Cephalosporins are accomplished by | inhibition of the organisms cell wall synthesis |
| When investigating an outbreak you should characterize the cases according to | Person, place, and time |
| A bacterial bowel pathogen that can cause diarrhea, no elevation of WBCs and severe abdominal pain | Campylobacter |
| Describes an epidemic, is expressed as a percent, used for particular populations, and observed for a limited period of time | Attack rate |
| The study of the distribution and determinants of disease, the study of the frequency, types and factors that influence, types of illness and/or injury in groups/ both a body of knowledge and a method of study | Epidemiology |
| Used by the ICP and is a process which includes analysis, data collection, and correction | Surveillance |
| Attack rate formula | # of new cases/population at risk x 100 |
| A statistical test whose resluts indicate the probability of having committed a Type I error | p Value |
| What happens normally in standard deviation? | On a normally distributed data set 99% of the value lies within 3 standard deviations from the mean |
| The most frequently used ratio of controls to cases to provide the best power in a case-control design study is | 3:1 |
| The Fishers exact statistical test is used when | The data is small in numbers |
| The concluding step in an epidemiological investigation that is frequently missed is | writing the report |
| The frequency measures most commonly used in healthcare epidemiology are | Incidence rate, prevalance rate, and incidence density |
| Overall attack rate formula | # new cases/population at riskx 100 |
| Incidence density rate formula | # new cases/exposure time (device days) x constant |
| Classic incidence rate | # of new cases/population at risk x constant |
| Have been attributed to improper collection of laboratory specimens, contamination of cultures by laboratory personnel, contamination of medical devices, municipal water supplies and diinfectants, improper categorization of community acquired infections | Pseudo- outbreaks |
| Myabe defined as the ability of a test to detect true positives (persons with the disease) when applied to a population with the disease | Sensitivity |
| When a test has a higher specificity than sensitivity it means that | a negative result will be more accurate that a positive |
| usually occur on the basis of transmission by a vehicle | Point source epidemics |
| the number of new cases of a disease divided by the number at risk during a given time and multiplied by a constant | Incidence rate |
| A study that first identifies persons with and without disease and then measures degrees of exposure to the risk factor | A case control study |
| Defined as the number of true negatives divided by the total number of persons without the disease x 100 | Specificty |
| Measure of dispersion that reflects the variability in values around the mean | Standard deviation |
| If a factor and a disease appear to be related only because of a common underlying conditio but the association disappears when the condition is controlled the assocaition is | Indirect |
| If an association is demonstrated consistently in a variety of studies it si | Both consistant and reproducible |
| Statistical data cannot be used to | prove an association, only suggest that it exists |
| Useful for showing two sets of data on a single graph/uses lines and points/uses a histogram | A frequency polygon |
| The removal of all visible dust, soil, and any other foreign material | Cleaning |
| reduction in microbial population on an inanimate object to a safe or relatively safe level | Sanitizing |
| Process of removing disease producing microorganisms and rendering it safe for handling | Decontamination |
| process that kills or destroys nearly all diseas producing microorganisms with the exception of bacterial spores; antiseptices are used on skin and disinfectants are used on inanimate objects | Disinfection |
| Kills vegetative bacteria, tubercle bacillus, fungi, lipid and non lipid viruses but not necessarily bacterial spores | High level disinfectants |
| Kills most vegetative bacteria, most fungi, tubercle bacilli, and most viruses | Intermediate level disinfection |
| Kills most vegetative bacteria some fungi, some viruses but cannot be relied on to kill resistant microorganisms such as mycobacteria or bacterial spores | Low-level disinfection |
| Chemical that destroys microorganisms used to kill disease causing microorganisms but not bacterial spores/used on both living tissues and inanimate objects | Germacide |
| inhibits the growth of bacteria but does not necessarily kill them | bacteriostatic |
| kills bacteria | bactericidal |
| the process by which all forms of microbial life, including bacteria, viruses, spores, and fungi are destroyed | Sterilization |
| a chemical that either inhibits the growth of microorganisms or destroys them | antiseptic |
| A cleaning agent composed of a "surface wetting agent" which reduces the surface tension, a "builder" which is the principle cleaning agent, and a "sequestering or chelating agent" to suspend the soil | Detergent |
| The main three organisms a cleaner needs to kill to be approved as a hospital disinfectant | Psuedomonas |
| Critical means that it has contact with normally | sterile areas such as the bloodstream |
| Semi critical means that it has contact with | mucous membranes (except dental) non intact skin, does not penetrate surfaces |
| Non critical means that it has contact with | intact skin |
| All _________items needs to be sterile | critical |
| Stpes in the cleaning process for patient care supplies | sort, soak, wask, rinse, dry or drain |
| Steps in the endoscope disinfection/high level after leak test | clean, disinfect, rinse, dry, store |
| cleaning is accomplished by a vigourously agitated detergent bath in which items to be clean are immersed | washer sterilization |
| sonic waves generate minute bubbles for gas nuclei, bubbles expand until they become unstable then collapse, the emplosion produces very localized vaccum areas that are responsible for dislodging soil from surfaces | Ultrasonic cleaner |
| hot water wash, rinse, dry <100 for 30 30 min used for respiratory and anesthesia equipment | pasteurization |
| used in surgical suites, burn and TB units/ kills droplet nuclei killed by UV | Ultraviolet irridation |
| used on thermometers, stethoscopes, skin/effect against bacteria, fungi, mycobacteria and viruses | alcohols |
| used in hydrotherapy tanks, renal dialysis equipment, CPR manikins, lavatories, pools. Effective against bacteria, fungi, mycobacteria and viruses/inactivated by organic matter/you have to get an item clean before it will work | Halogens/chlorines |
| effectve against bacteria, fungi, mycobacteria and viruses | Halogens/iodophors |
| Used to clean floors, walls, furnishings and equipment/effective against bacteria, fungi and viruses/has a TB claim and cannot be used in nurseries | Phenolics |
| USed to clean walls, floors and furnishings/ broad spectrum/no TB claim | Quats |
| High level disinfectant for medical equipment, endoscopes, RT, anesthesia equipment sterilization in 6-10 hours | Aldehydes/glutraldehyde |
| used in the lab and has limited use | formaldehyde |
| used for soft contact lenses, wound cleanser occasionally endoscopes broad spectrum | Peroxygens/hydrogen peroxide |
| used for HLD sterilization of instruments | Paracetic acid |
| Two methods of sterilization | Thermal and chemical |
| heat and moisture sensitive items are best sterilized by | Ethylene oxide |
| following surgery on a dirty wound, the greatest risk of infection complications is assoicated with | immediate primary closure of the wound |
| Chemical indicators | Chemically impregnated paper or strips/ pellet in glass tube/ Bowie dick test checks removal of air from the sterilizer and efficency of vacuum pump |
| Biological indicators | spore strips bacillus stearothermophilus or Bacillus subtilis/ AAMI recommends a biological indicator be used in the first load each day but at least once a week |
| Testing of water used for dialysis includes | chromium copper and chlorine |
| Takes an event or piece of information and works backwards to determin causes | Fishbone diagram |
| A program or system for monitoring and providing safe environment for the employee and quality care for patients to reduce liability | risk management |
| can illustrate a conncetion and association of data in a manner which assists the learner in visulaization of major issues | A pie or circle map |
| In the ______domain the individual embraces new attitudes, values, and beliefs in the learning process | Affective |
| the method of learning in which the educator provides the learner with a template or prescription for learning | Outcome based education |
| The first step in preparation of any education program is | assessing the educational needs of the learning population |
| used to determine the interests and readiness of the group to learn | needs assessment |
| Actions that determine the specific actions the learner will perform | Instruction objective |
| This domain has recall, application and analytical levels of knowledge; involves the development of intellectual abilities | Cognitive domain |
| The domain is where learning embraces new attitudes, values, beliefs and ways of feeling; self esteem and desired to learn grows in caring respectful relationships | Affective domain |
| This domain is where you are learning new skills or new wyas of acting or doing | Psychomotor |
| Studies that characterize a population by occurance of an outcome by time, place, or person; includes case reports and case studies | Descriptive studies |
| Studies that compare individuals with and without an outcome with the presence of one or more risk factors | Analytic studies |
| Studies where outcome and risk factors reviewed in a population group at one poin in time; outcomes measured | Cross-sectional study |
| population of individuals with and without an outcome of interest studied for exposure to one or more risk factos; studies are quicker, less expensive and easier | Case-control study |
| A study that starts with a sample of individuals with and without exposure to a potential risk factor and are followed for incidence of the outcome in each group; can be done retrospectively; less patient selection bias; stronger evidence of causual assoc | Cohort study |
| In adult learning the role of the educator should be | Facilitator of learning |
| A process of transforming new knowledge, insights, skills and values into behavior, usually involves conflict and resitance, linking new knowledge to what is already known; involving a decision to change before learning can occur | Learning |
| recall or recognition of knowledge involving the acqusition of new abilities | Cognitive learning |
| The art and science of helping adults to learn | Androgogy |
| teaching a strategy that provides situational learning experiences close to real situations | Simulation |
| the originator of client-centered thearpy and the humanistic school learning theory | Carl Rogers |
| Assists the learner to develop the skills of classifying and organizing infromation | A tree map |
| a methond in which the educator provides the learner with a rubic or presentation for learning | Outcome based |
| What three categories do adult learners generally fall into? | Goal orientedActivity orientedlearning oriented |
| conducted during the educational session to provide immediate feedback and allow for changes to be made | Formative evaluation |
| Occurs after the program is complete to judge effectiveness | Summative evaluation |
| Can be used to study peoples perceptions and experiences | The qualitative research process |
| A major difference between a prospective and a retrospective study is that the prospective study may | require a long follow-up period |
| An advantage of a case-control study over a cohort study is | a case control study is less time consuming and less expensive |
| Analysis of quantitative research may be used to | suggest an association |
| A critically important aspect of a clinical trial is to ensure that | participants and investigators do not affect the outcome by biases |
| A study that characterizes populations by time, person, and place | A descriptive study |
| Work restrictions for Conjuctivitis | Restrict from patient contact unitl discharge ceases |
| Work restrictions for cytomegalovirus | No restrictions |
| Work restrictions for diarrhea | Restrict from patient contact or food handling until symptoms resolve |
| Work restrictions for salmonella | Restrict from care of high risk patients until symptoms resolve |
| Work restrictions for Diptheria | Exclude from duty until antimicrobial therapy is completed and two negaive cultures 24 hours apart |
| Work restrictions for enteroviral infections | restrict from care of infants, neonates, and immunocompromised patients until symptoms resolve |
| Work restrictions for Hepatitis A | Restrict from patient contact or food handling until 7 days after onset of jaundice |
| Work restrictions for Hepatitis B | Restrict from personnell who perform exposure prone procedures from duty until expert review council has been consulted, review state regulations, no restrictions for employeess who do not have exposure prone duties |
| Work restrictions for Hepatitis C | No recommendations refer to facility and state regs |
| Work restrictions for Herpes simplex (genital) | No restrictions |
| Work restrictions for Herpes simplex hands (herpatic whitlow) | Restrict until lesions healed |
| Work restrictions for herpes simplex orofacial | Restrict from high risk until lesions heal |
| Work restrictions for HIV | Restrict personnel who perform exposure prone invasive procedures from duty until expert review council has been consulted, refer to state guidelines, no restrictions for employees who do not perform exposure prone procedures |
| Work restrictions for Measles | Active-exclude from duty until 7 days after rash appearsPost exposure- exclude from duty from day 5 through day 21 after last exposure and 7 days after rash appears |
| Work restrictions for meningococcal infection | exclude from duty until 24 hours after start of effective therapy |
| Work restrictions for mumps | Active- exclude from duty until 9 days after onset of parotitisPost exposure- exclude from duty from 12th day after exposure through 26th day after exposure or until 9 days after the onset of parotitis |
| Work restrictions for lice | Restrict from patient contact until treated and observed to be free of adult and immature lice |
| Work restrictions for pertussis | Exclude from dutly from beginning of catarrhal state through thrid week after onset of paroxyms or until 5 days after start of effective antimicrobialPost exposure- asymptomatic no restrictions but prophylaxis therapy is recommended |
| Work restrictions for rubella | Active exvlude from duty unitl 5 days after rash appears.Post exposure- exclude from duty from day 7 until after first exposure through day 21 after last exposure |
| Work restrictions for scabies | Restrict from patient contact untill cleared by medical evaluation after treatment |
| Work restrictions for Staph Aureus | Active draining lesions restrict from contact with patients or food handling Carrier state- no restrictions unless personnel are epidemiologically linked to a transmission of the organism |
| Work restrictions for group A streptococcal infection | Restrict from patient contact or food handling until 24 hours after adequate treatment started |
| Immunizations for hepatitis B | Two doses IM in the deltoid muscle 4 weeks apart then 3rd dose 5 mo after 2nd dose. Booster dose not necessary |
| Immunization for Measles live | One dose SC; 2nd dose at least one month after |
| Immuniation for Mumps live | One dose SC; no booster |
| Immunization for Rubella | One dose SC; No booster |
| Immunization for Varicella Zoster | Two 0.5 doses SC 4-8 week apart if >13 years |
| Immunization for tetanus and Diptheria | Two doses IM 4 week apart/ 3rd dose 6-12 months after 2nd dose and booster every 10 years |
| Prophylaxis for Diptheria | Benzathine PCN or Erythromycin 1gm/day for 7 days |
| Prophylaxis for Hepatitis A | One IM dose IG 0.02 ml/kg given within 2 weeks of exposure in large muscle mass |
| Prophylaxis for Hepatitis B | HBIG 0.06 ml/kg IM as soon as possible and within 7 days after exposure with first dose given at a different body site; if hepatitis B series has not been started 2nd dose of HBIG should be given 1 mo after 1st |
| Prophylaxis for memigococcal disease | Rifampin 600mg PO every 12 hours for 2 days or Rocephin 250mg IM x 1 dose or Cipro 500 mg PO x 1 dose |
| Prophylaxis for pertussis | Erythromycin 500mg QID PO x 14 daysBactrim PO BID x 14 daysZithromax 200mg day 1 then 250mg days 2-5 |
| Interpretation of TB test | >5mm-HIV +, recent exposure, chest x-ray old TB>10mm- High risk groups and HCWs>15mm- Persons who do not meet criteria above |
| During an outbreak investigation you need to | define the problem, create a hypothesis, and determine common factors to help determine the cause |
| ___________is highly sensitive and the _____________ is more specific when giving HIV results | Elisa test and Western blot |
| Helpful in formulating a hypothesis on the sources and mode of transmission of an outbreak | Epidemic curve |
| Serum that is positive for HBeAG idicates | an increase likelyhood of infectivity |
| Biological indicators should be performed at least | Weekly |
| _____________is the biological indicator used for monitoring steam sterilization | Geobacillus Stearothermophilus |
| Influenza vaccination rates in helathcare personnel is an example of a _____________indicator | process |
| The usual time period between exposure to hepatitis B and the onset of symptoms is | 8 to 10 days |
| Employees with TST/PPD conversions should be categorized according to | date of conversion, assigned work site, and job category |
| _______________allow the learner to increase knowledge independently or in small group situations | Self instructional modules |
| In diagnostic testing for Hepatitis A ________is the antibody that appears during the acute illness and declines over 6-12 months. _________________rises later that IgM but persits indefinetly and is believed to be reponsible for lifelong immunity | anti-HAV Igm; Anti-HAV IgG |
| In diagonsitic testing for HEP B ___________is an outer surface antigen that serves as a marker for ongoing infection | HBsAG |
| HBsAG is found in the serum ____________after exposure | 1-2 months |
| If HBsAG is found in serum 6 months after exposure it indicates | chronic infection |
| ___________________the first antibody detected when testing for Hepatitis B and usually appears at the same time as symptoms begins | HBc IgM |
| In testing for Hepatitis B __________persists for life and serves as a marker for previous natural HBV infection | anti-HBc IgG |
| For adult learners, learning is often motivated by | job needs, such as the need for new skills or the desire for promotion and increased salaray |
| The leader provides specific direction regarding what is to be done, when, and by whom. The educator determins the process and the content of the decision making | Autocratic style |
| The leader participates in the group as a contributor and as a facilitator of the decision-making process. Essentially a persuasive equal, the educator provides direction but acknowledges and encourages the willingness of the members to work with the educ | democratic style |
| the leader promotes cohesion, open sharing, and collaboration among the group memebers but does not interfere or influence the decision making or direction of the process. The educator may withdraw his or her own opinions and ideas and serves to clarify | encouraging and socializing style |
| the educator allows the members to determine the direction of the learning. The educator tells the members of the group the nature of the task and then removes themself from involvement. | A hands off style |
| The presence of which antibodies to hepatitis A confirms the diagnosis of acute hepatitis A | IgM |
| In investigating an epidemic, cases should be categorized according to | time, place, and person |
| A student demonstrates appropriate tacheostomy suctioning technique to an instructor. This is an example of | Psychomotor learning |
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