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CAS 14 FC Topic 2

QuestionAnswer
Which structures are supplied by the anterior choroidal artery? Lateral geniculate body, globus pallidus, and posterior limb of the internal capsule
What cortical structure(s) provide input to the lower face division of the motor nucleus of CN VII? Contralateral precentral gyrus
What can occur when there is a lesion in the superior parietal lobule? Contralateral sensory neglect
Where is the primary sensory cortex located? Postcentral gyrus
What is the name of the portion of the occipital cortex that is inferior to the calcarine sulcus? Lingual gyrus
What is the function of the lingual gyrus? Integrates visual information from the contralateral upper field.
Where is the temporal lobe of the brain located relative to the Sylvian fissure? Inferior
What are the sensory functions of the vagus nerve? Afferent sensory fibers from the ear canal (outer ear), the meninges, as well as the larynx and pharynx.
What seven muscles are innervated by the vagus nerve? Cricothyroid, palatoglossus, levator veli palatini, laryngeal muscles, palatopharyngeus, salpingopharyngeus, and pharyngeal constrictor muscles
What are the anatomical boundaries of the parietal lobe? Posterior to the central sulcus and anterior to the parietooccipital sulcus
What are the penetrating branches of the anterior cerebral artery called? Medial striate arteries
What structures do the medial striate arteries supply? Head of the caudate, anterior portion of the lentiform nucleus, anterior limb of the internal capsule
What are 3 etiologies of cavernous sinus syndrome? Sellar mass (e.g. pituitary adenoma), carotid cavernous fistula, and infection of the skin, sinuses, and orbit
What is the pathway of the second order neurons that carry pain and temperature sensation from the face and oral cavity? Second order neurons begin in the spinal trigeminal nucleus. Their axons immediately decussate, then ascend in the contralateral ventral trigeminothalamic tract. They synapse in the ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus of the thalamus.
What deficit would you expect from a unilateral lesion to the cuneus? Contralateral lower quadrantanopia with macular sparing
What arterial structures are joined by the basilar artery? The vertebral arteries and the circle of Willis
What structures does the basilar artery supply blood to? Posterior aspect of the circle of willis and to the pontine arteries
What are the clinical manifestations of cavernous sinus syndrome? Headache (most common), ophthalmoplegia, periorbital edema, and hypo- or hyperesthesia in the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) dermatomes
What are the 2 layers of the dura mater? Periosteal and deep meningeal
What are the branches of the basilar artery as it runs along the pons? Anterior inferior cerebellar arteries (AICA), multiple pontine arteries, and superior cerebellar artery
What cell types are particularly prominent within the cerebellar molecular layer? Large Purkinje cell dendrites, stellate cells and basket cells
What is the pathway of the jaw-jerk reflex? V3 → mesencephalic nucleus of V → motor nucleus of V → masseter
Which benign cystic tumor of the parotid gland is characterized by neoplastic epithelial cells adjacent to a reactive lymphoid stroma, often with germinal centers? Warthin tumor (papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum)
What would be expected in a lower motor neuron lesion of CN VII? Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of upper and lower facial muscles of expression (Bell palsy) and a loss of efferent limb of corneal blink reflex (afferent limb = V1).
Which cerebral structures are supplied by the posterior cerebral artery? Midbrain, lateral & medial geniculate bodies, inferior portion of the temporal lobe, and occipital lobe (including the visual cortex)
Where does CN VII exit the brainstem? Cerebellopontine angle
Where does CN VII exit the skull? Stylomastoid foramen
What brain lobe is anterior to the central sulcus and superior to the Sylvian fissure? Frontal lobe
Which part of the frontal lobe is responsible for planning of voluntary movement? Premotor cortex
Which cerebral fissure divides the cerebral cortex into two hemispheres? Longitudinal fissure
What is in the precentral gyrus? The primary motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus. It is responsible for the initiation of voluntary motor movement.
Where do the upper motor neurons involved in facial expression originate? Primary motor cortex of the precentral gyrus
What are three possible sequelae of anterior cerebral artery occlusion? Paralysis/sensory loss of contralateral foot and leg, gait apraxia (loss of ability to have normal functioning of the lower limbs like walking), and urinary incontinence
What is the function of the prefrontal cortex? Executive decision making and functions
What is the function of the frontal eye field? Voluntary eye movement
Patients with lesions to the neocerebellar cortex, superior cerebellar peduncle, or globose, emboliform, and dentate nuclei within the cerebellum classically present with which 3 signs? Intention tremor, dysmetria (past-pointing/inability to stop movement at the desired point), and dysdiadochokinesia (impaired rapid, alternating movements)
In the pupillary light reflex, which nucleus do the primary neurons project to? Pretectal nucleus of the midbrain
What are three possible sequelae of middle cerebral artery occlusion? Paralysis and sensory loss of contralateral face and arm, Broca and/or Wernicke aphasia, and contralateral neglect
What is the circle of Willis? An anastomotic network of arteries connecting the anterior and posterior pathways of cerebral blood
What is the name of the portion of the occipital cortex superior to the calcarine sulcus? Cuneus
What is the function of the cuneus? Integrates visual information from the contralateral lower field
What muscle is innervated by CN IX? Motor innervation for the stylopharyngeus muscle
Will lesions to the trochlear (CN IV) nucleus affect the superior oblique muscle on the ipsilateral or the contralateral side? Contralateral
What are the three major regions of the larynx? Vestibule, ventricles, and infraglottic cavity
What is the structure of the lateral ventricles? A central body, as well as an anterior horn, posterior horn, and inferior horn.
How do the lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle? Via the interventricular foramen of Monro
Salivary gland tumors that involve which types of glands are associated with an increased risk of malignancy? Sublingual, minor salivary, and submandibular glands
Which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic output to the parotid gland via the otic ganglion? CN IX
What is the name of the thickened fascia deep to the parotid gland? Parotid fascia
Where does the accessory nerve exit the skull? Jugular foramen
What are the four boundaries of the muscular triangle of the neck? Hyoid bone, superior belly of the omohyoid, anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid, and midline
During examination of a newborn, what could asymmetry of the eyes indicate? Trisomy 21 (prominent epicanthal folds)
What diseases could macroglossia point to in a newborn exam? Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (hemi-hypertrophy, visceromegaly, macroglossia), hypothyroidism, or a mucopolysaccharidosis.
Where do the anterior inferior cerebellar arteries originate? From the basilar artery between the level of the pons and medulla
What areas of the brain do the anterior inferior cerebellar arteries supply? Pons and parts of the cerebellum
Which fibers of CN III are preferentially affected by masses such as aneurysms or herniation? Parasympathetic fibers innervating the sphincter pupillae muscle
A berry aneurysm of what artery is most likely to cause a bitemporal hemianopsia? Anterior communicating artery
Where does CN VIII exit the brainstem? Cerebellopontine angle
In the pupillary light reflex, where do nerve fibers synapse after leaving the pretectal nucleus? Edinger-Westphal nucleus of CN III
What are the attachments and innervation of the omohyoid muscle? The superior belly attaches to the hyoid bone and the inferior belly originates from the superior border of the scapula. The intermediate tendon connects these two bellies.
What is the innervation of the omohyoid muscle? Ansa cervicalis
How will patients with idiopathic intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri) present? Headaches, diplopia (CN VI palsy), papilledema, pulsatile tinnitus (perception of a pulsing sound that is synchronous with the heartbeat), no alterations in mental status
Which branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides motor innervation to the cricothyroid muscle? External laryngeal nerve
What artery does the external laryngeal nerve travel with? Superior thyroid artery
What medical management strategies can be taken to reduce the risk of rebleeding in a patient with subarachnoid hemorrhage? Blood pressure control (SBP target <160 mmHg), prophylactic antiseizure therapy, and stool softeners or laxatives to prevent straining
What is the most common malignant tumor of the parotid gland? Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
What cranial nerve do mucoepidermoid carcinoma tumors often involve? Facial nerve (CN VII)
The superior laryngeal artery is a branch of what artery? Superior thyroid artery
What nerve does the superior thyroid artery travel with? Internal laryngeal nerve
In addition to nontraumatic rupture of a saccular aneurysm, what are some additional etiologies of subarachnoid hemorrhage? Trauma, AV malformations, amyloid angiopathy​, bleeding diatheses, and sympathomimetic drugs (eg, cocaine, amphetamines)
Where do second-order neurons carrying discriminatory and light touch information from facial structures innervated by CN V project to (where do they synapse)? Contralateral VPM via the ventral trigeminothalamic tract
What is the location of the spinal nucleus of CN V? Junction of the pons and medulla
What is the pathway of the first order neurons that carry pain and temperature sensation from the face and oral cavity? Spinal trigeminal tract
From where does the posterior cerebral arteries arise? Bifurcation of the basilar artery
What areas of the brain does the posterior cerebral artery supply? Inferior surface of the brain and occipital lobe
What is the location of the trigeminal ganglion? Within the medial portion of the middle cranial fossa
From what artery do the anterior cerebral arteries arise from? Internal carotid artery
What areas of the brain do the anterior cerebral arteries supply? Medial and superior surfaces of the frontal lobe along with superior surfaces of the parietal lobe
What three branches come off of the vertebral arteries before they fuse to form the basilar artery? Anterior spinal artery (ASA), posterior spinal arteries (PSA), and posterior inferior cerebellar arteries (PICA)
What does CN IX traverse through to exit the skill? Jugular foramen
What are the sensory functions of CN IX? General sensation of the posterior one third of the tongue and mucosa of the oropharynx, taste from the posterior one third of the tongue, and receives visceral input from the carotid body and carotid sinus
What cortical structure(s) provide input to the upper face division of the motor nucleus of CN VII? Bilateral input from both precentral gyri
Which vessel within the Circle of Willis supplies the anteromedial surface of the cerebral hemisphere, the olfactory bulb and tract, and motor-sensory cortices for the contralateral leg and foot? Anterior cerebral artery
What are the 5 sensory subdivisions of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve? Meningeal nerve, auriculotemporal nerve, inferior alveolar nerve, lingual nerve, and buccal nerve (not to be confused with the buccal branch of the facial nerve)
What are the 3 branches of the first part of the subclavian artery? Vertebral artery, internal thoracic artery (AKA internal mammary artery), and thyrocervical trunk
What are the 3 branches of the thyrocervical trunk? Inferior thyroid, suprascapular, and transverse cervical arteries
What are the divisions in the motor nucleus of CN VII? Upper and lower face divisions
Lesions of CN IX most commonly result in which deficits? Loss of the afferent limb of the gag reflex and loss of taste and general sensation from posterior third of the tongue
What are the borders of the carotid triangle? Posterior belly of the digastric, superior belly of the omohyoid, and upper part of the sternocleidomastoid
What are the contents of the carotid triangle? External carotid artery, as well as its first 5 branches (superior thyroid, ascending pharyngeal, lingual, occipital, facial arteries)
What vessel is a branch of the third part of the subclavian artery? Dorsal scapular artery
What would be expected in an upper motor neuron lesion of CN VII? Contralateral paralysis of lower facial muscles of expression only (upper face is spared, e.g., can wrinkle forehead)
Which nerve innervates the sternohyoid muscle? Ansa cervicalis, a branch of the C1-C3 cervical plexus
What is the function of the infrahyoid muscles? Depress the hyoid and larynx during swallowing
Where is the internal vertebral venous plexus found? Epidural space
What is the clinical significance of the internal vertebral venous plexus ? Serves as a potential route for hematogenous metastasis of cancer to the brain
Which nerve innervates the thyrohyoid muscle? C1 via hypoglossal nerve
What are the branches of the external carotid artery? Superior thyroid artery, ascending pharyngeal artery, lingual artery, facial artery, occipital artery, posterior auricular artery, maxillary artery, and superficial temporal artery
What two interventions can be done to manage epidural hematoma prior to surgical intervention? Osmotic diuretics (e.g., mannitol) and hyperventilation to decrease intracranial pressure
What CT findings are seen in epidural hematomas? Convex ("lenticular") shaped mass
Which cerebellar peduncle transmits cerebellar output to the contralateral cerebral cortex? Superior cerebellar peduncle
What is the most common cause of a midline cerebellar lesion in a child? Medulloblastoma
What are the four deep nuclei of the cerebellum? Dentate, emboliform, globose, and fastigial
Cerebellar input from the cerebral cortex will travel in what cerebellar peduncle? Middle cerebellar peduncle
Which 3 structures are commonly lesioned within the medial cerebellum? Vermis, fastigial nuclei, and flocculonodular lobe
Name 3 signs indicative of a midline cerebellar lesion. Truncal ataxia (wide-based gait, inability to stand upright without support), nystagmus, and head tilting
Midline lesions to the cerebellum result in what type of deficits? Bilateral
What is the most common benign tumor of the parotid gland? Pleomorphic adenoma (AKA "mixed tumor")
What are pleomorphic adenomas composed of? Stromal and epithelial tissue
What are the borders of the subclavian triangle? Lower part of the SCM, the inferior belly of the omohyoid, and the clavicle
What are the contents of the subclavian triangle? Subclavian artery and the brachial plexus
Which type of linear skull fracture requires surgical management? A comminuted and/or depressed fracture
What vessel is a branch of the second part of the subclavian artery? Costocervical trunk
What two arteries does the costocervical trunk give off? Deep cervical artery and superior intercostal artery
What are the 2 branches of the superior laryngeal nerve? Internal and external laryngeal nerves
What effects would be expected in a lesion involving the parasympathetic fibers of CN III? Mydriasis (pupillary dilation) and lack of accommodation (blurry vision)
What makes the optic nerve unique from other peripheral nerves? It is an extension of brain matter from the diencephalon enveloped around a central retinal artery
What are the four principal sutures in the skull? Sagittal, coronal, lambdoid, and metopic
What are the functions of the right hemisphere of the brain? Spatial and visual perception as well as abstract ideation
What is cortical deafness? The patient can physically receive auditory stimuli, but cannot recognize or acknowledge it.
Which nerve innervates the sternothyroid muscle? Ansa cervicalis via a branch of the C2-C3 cervical plexus
What are the borders of the occipital triangle? Upper part of the SCM, the inferior belly of the omohyoid, and the anterior border of the trapezius
What are the contents of the occipital triangle? Occipital artery and transverse cervical artery, as well as CN XI (accessory nerve)
In the pupillary light reflex, which nerves arise from the ciliary ganglion and provide parasympathetic innervation to the pupillary sphincter muscle, thereby inducing pupillary constriction? Short ciliary nerves
Why do lesions to CN III sometimes result in ptosis? CN III also innervates the levator palpebrae superioris, which serves to elevate the upper eyelid.
What is the innervation of the anterior belly of the digastric muscle? Nerve to mylohyoid, branch of CN V3
What is the innervation of the posterior belly of the digastric muscle? Digastric branch of CN VII
What muscles are innervated by the parasympathetic fibers of CN III? Sphincter pupillae (circular muscles) and the ciliary muscles of the eye
What are the three layers of the cerebellar cortex? Molecular layer, Purkinje cell layer, and granule cell (granular) layer
Why does the jaw deviate toward the lesioned side when there is a lesion to the mandibular nerve (V3)? Due to the unopposed action of the intact contralateral lateral pterygoid muscle
What are the most common clinical manifestations of intraparenchymal hemorrhages? Altered consciousness, nausea, vomiting, and headache
Which portions of the cerebellum are most prominently involved in alcoholic cerebellar degeneration? Anterior and superior vermis
What cell types are found in the granule cell layer of the cerebellum? Excitatory granule cells and inhibitory Golgi cells
From deepest to most superficial, what are the 3 layers of the spinal meninges? Pia mater, arachnoid membrane, dura mater
What is the function of the frontalis muscle? Elevate the eyebrows and wrinkle skin of the forehead
What is the innervation of the frontalis muscle? Temporal branch of CN VII
What are the functions of the levator labii superioris alaeque nasi and nasalis? Raise the upper lip & open the nostrils
What is the innervation of the levator labii superioris alaeque nasi and nasalis? Zygomatic & superior buccal branches of CN VII
When is surgical management indicated in an acute subdural hematoma? If midline brain structures are displaced by the hematoma
What sinus does the superior sagittal sinus drain to? Confluence of sinuses
What results from head trauma damaging the veins draining into the superior sagittal sinus? Subdural hematoma
Which ganglions does CN VII provide autonomic innervation to? The lacrimal gland via the pterygopalatine ganglion and the submandibular and sublingual glands via the submandibular ganglion.
What can be seen in a bilateral lesion to CN XI? Decreased ability to look straight down by tilting chin toward chest and a decreased ability to shrug both shoulders
What type of herniation is most commonly seen in the setting of epidural hematoma? Transtentorial herniation
Which vessel within the circle of Willis connects the internal carotid artery and the posterior cerebral artery? Posterior communicating artery
What is the function of the inferior alveolar nerve? Relays sensation from the mandibular teeth and gums
What is the course of the vertebral artery in the neck? Transverse foramina C1-C6
In what ways is increased ICP medically managed? ICP monitoring, elevate head of bed, hyperventilate, and avoid fluid overload with gentle diuresis with mannitol or furosemide
What are the borders of the submandibular triangle? Anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle and the inferior border of the mandible
What are the contents of the submandibular triangle? Submandibular gland, as well as the facial artery and vein. The hypoglossal nerve passes deep to the submandibular gland.
Where does the common carotid arise on the right side? Brachiocephalic trunk
Where does the common carotid arise on the left side? Aortic arch on the left
Which arteries arise from the subclavian arteries to supply blood to the posterior cerebral circulation? Vertebral arteries
What is the location of the motor nucleus of CN V? Pons, medial to the main sensory nucleus
What is the innervation of the mylohyoid? Nerve to mylohyoid, which is a branch off of the inferior alveolar nerve of V3
What are the 2 most common etiologies of cranial swelling in neonates due to trauma in the birth canal? Caput succedaneum and cephalohematomas
What are 4 complications associated with subarachnoid hemorrhages? Vasospasm (days 4-10 post-hemorrhage), ischemic infarct (due to vasospasm), risk of rebleed, and communicating or obstructing hydrocephalus
What foramen carries CN XI as it exits the skull? Jugular foramen
What are the typical CT findings of diffuse axonal injury? No mass lesion, but multiple small lesions involving the gray-white matter interface
In addition to the headache, what are some other common clinical manifestations of subarachnoid hemorrhage? Loss of consciousness, nausea/vomiting, meningismus
What is the name of the small perforating arteries that branch from the ACA and MCA to supply the internal capsule and striatum of the basal ganglia? Lenticulostriate arteries
Where does the vagus nerve exit the skull? Jugular foramen
What structures does the vagus nerve descend the neck with? Carotid artery and the internal jugular vein
What deficit would you expect from a unilateral lesion in the lingual gyrus? Contralateral upper quadrantanopia with macular sparing
What brain hemisphere is responsible for propositional language, logic, and calculation? Left hemisphere
Which limb of the pupillary light reflex is provided by CN II? Afferent limb
What nerve must surgeons be particularly mindful of when resecting parotid gland tumors? CN VII
What nerves provide motor innervation to all of the muscles of the larynx other than the cricothyroid muscles? Recurrent laryngeal nerves
Why does the eye look "down and out" in a CN III palsy? Because of the unopposed actions of the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles
What are three risk factors for development of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri)? Female of reproductive age, vitamin A excess, and danazol (old synthetic steroid used to suppress gonadotrophins, replaced by GnRH agonists)
What is the action of the zygomaticus major? Smile
Which 2 branches of which nerve innervate the zygomaticus major? Buccal & zygomatic branches of CN VII
What are the major clinical manifestations of a communicating hydrocephalus? Increased intracranial pressure, papilledema, and cerebral herniation
What is the motor function of the hypoglossal nerve? Innervates the intrinsic and extrinsic tongue muscles (except for palatoglossus, which is innervated by CN X)
What drug is used to prevent vasospasm after subarachnoid hemorrhage? Nimodipine, a calcium channel blocker
What are three common causes of subarachnoid hemorrhage? Trauma, rupture of a berry (saccular) aneurysm, or rupture of an arteriovenous malformation
What is the gold standard test for determining the location of bleeding in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage? Digital subtraction angiography
How should a subdural hematoma be treated? Emergency surgical decompression
What is a common cause of intraparenchymal hemorrhage in older patients that do not have hypertension? Cerebral amyloid angiopathy
What does cerebral amyloid angiopathy commonly present with? Recurrent lobar hemorrhages
What is the common underlying disease that causes intraparenchymal cerebral hemorrhage? Hypertension
What is the function of the buccinator muscle? Flattens the cheeks against the teeth and keeps food between teeth out of the oral vestibule
What is the innervation of the buccinator muscle? Buccal branch of CN VII
What is the function of the depressor labii inferioris muscle? Depression of lower lips
What is the innervation of the depressor labii inferioris muscle? Marginal mandibular branch of CN VII
What is the function of the levator labii superioris muscle? Raises the upper lip
What is the innervation of the levator labii superioris muscle? Buccal branch of CN VII
What is the function of the occipitalis muscle? Retracts the scalp
What is the innervation of the occipitalis muscle? Posterior auricular nerve, branch of CN VII
What is the innervation of the depressor anguli oris muscle? Marginal mandibular branch of CN VII
What is the function of the depressor anguli oris muscle? Frowns the mouth
What are the five terminal motor branches of the facial nerve? Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, cervical
In the pupillary light reflex, where do parasympathetic fibers synapse after leaving the Edinger-Westphal nucleus? Ciliary ganglion
What nerve carries taste information from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? CN VII via the chorda tympani nerve
What causes a non-communicating hydrocephalus? An obstruction in the ventricular system that blocks CSF circulation
Which lifestyle change can treat idiopathic intracranial hypertension? Weight loss
What is the triad of symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus? Dementia, gait disturbances, and bladder incontinence
The inferior laryngeal artery is a branch of what artery? Inferior thyroid artery
What nerve does the inferior thyroid artery travel with? Recurrent laryngeal nerve
What portion of the larynx communicates distally with the lumen of the trachea? Infraglottic cavity
What are four causes of hydrocephalus ex vacuo? Alzheimer disease, advanced HIV, Huntington disease, and Pick disease
What 4 muscles attach to the thyroid cartilage? Inferior pharyngeal constrictor, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid, and cricothyroid
What are 3 procedures/surgeries that are used to treat idiopathic intracranial hypertension that is refractory to medical treatment? Serial lumbar punctures, shunt placement, and/or optic nerve sheath fenestration surgery
What muscles of the larynx are the principal relaxers of the vocal ligaments to lower the pitch of the voice? Thyroarytenoid muscles
Which nerve innervates the thyroarytenoid muscles? Recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X)
What is the most common type of communicating hydrocephalus? Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)
What muscles are the only muscles that open the true vocal cords? Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles
What can result from paralysis of the posterior cricoarytenoid muscles? Asphyxiation
What are some etiologies of non-communicating hydrocephalus? Mass effect caused by edema, tumors, or congenital abnormalities (Dandy-Walker and Chiari malformations)
What is the mechanism by which communicating hydrocephalus occurs? Decreased resorption of CSF by the arachnoid granulations. There is no blockage of CSF flow.
What is the classic radiographic finding of hydrocephalus? Enlarged ventricles
What muscles are responsible for the preservation of vocal cord function following unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury? Transverse and oblique arytenoideus muscles
What is the action of the transverse and oblique arytenoideus muscles? Close the opening of the glottis
What is hydrocephalus ex vacuo? Brain atrophy that results in a compensatory increase in ventricular volume
What is the relative intracranial pressure in hydrocephalus ex vacuo patients? Normal
What are the signs of skull base fracture? Periorbital ecchymoses (i.e. raccoon eyes), rhinorrhea (CSF dripping from nose), otorrhea (CSF leaking from ears), and ecchymosis behind the ear (i.e. Battle’s sign)
What is the major risk factor for developing venous sinus thrombosis? Prothrombotic states (e.g. factor V Leiden, oral contraceptive use, pregnancy)
Describe the course of the parotid duct. Originates at the parotid gland and courses anteriorly along the masseter muscle
What is another name for the parotid duct? Stensen's duct
What nerves innervate the larynx? Superior and recurrent laryngeal nerves
Which nerve do the superior and recurrent laryngeal nerves branch from? Vagus nerve
What is the treatment for normal pressure hydrocephalus? Placement of a VP shunt
What cerebral cistern contains the great vein of Galen? Quadrigeminal cistern
Trace the flow of CSF from the lateral ventricles to the subarachnoid space. Lateral ventricles → interventricular foramina of Monro → third ventricle → cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius → fourth ventricle → foramen of Magendie (medial) or foramina of Luschka (lateral) → subarachnoid space
What is the location of the third ventricle? Between the two halves of the diencephelon (thalamus and hypothalamus
How does the third ventricle communicate with the fourth ventricle? Cerebral aqueduct
What are the two major functions of CN VIII? Maintains equilibrium, balance, and hearing.
What is the only sensory pathway of the trigeminal system in which the first order neurons are not in the trigeminal ganglion? Proprioceptive pathway
Which calcium channel blocker improves neurologic outcomes following subarachnoid hemorrhage? Nimodipine
What muscles does the mandibular nerve (V3) innervate? Muscles of mastication: masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid; tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, mylohyoid, and anterior belly of the digastric
What should you look for in the ears of a newborn? For branchial cleft cysts in the preauricular area as well as the sinuses and for skin tags
Why is it important to examine eye spacing in newborns? Hypertelorism (widely spaced eyes) is associated with a large number of syndromes (Trisomy 13)
Where is the posterior fontanelle located? At the juncture of the sagittal and lambdoid sutures
What can abnormal palpebral fissures indicate? Can be part of a syndrome such as DiGeorge or Down’s.
What is the location of the main sensory nucleus of CN V? Within the lateral pons, immediately caudal to the mesencephalic nucleus
What are the components of the Circle of Willis? Anterior cerebral artery, anterior communicating artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral artery
What is the posterior inferior cerebellar artery? Largest branch of the vertebral artery
What areas of the brain does the posterior inferior cerebellar artery supply? Medulla and parts of the cerebellum
What are the middle cerebral arteries? Terminal branches of the internal carotid artery
What areas of the brain does the middle cerebral artery supply? Lateral surfaces of the brain and temporal lobes
What muscles of the face, head, and upper neck are innervated by cranial nerve VII? Muscles of facial expression, the stapedius, the stylohyoid muscles, and the posterior belly of the digastric muscle
What is the innervation of the infrahyoid muscles? Ansa cervicalis
What is the most common site of aneurysm associated with acute CN III palsy? Posterior communicating artery
What do patients with an acute CN III palsy present with? All ipsilateral: fixed, dilated pupil, ptosis, “Down and out" eye with paralysis of adduction, elevation, & depression
Which muscles does CN VII innervate? Muscles of facial expression, stapedius, posterior belly of the digastric, and stylohyoid
What are two additional causes of cerebral intraparenchymal hemorrhage besides hypertension and amyloid angiopathy? Vasculitis and neoplasms
What is the function of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum? Maintenance of posture and balance
What are the three functional lobes of the cerebellum? Spinocerebellum, cerebrocerebellum, and vestibulocerebellum
What cells transmit output from the cerebellar cortex? Purkinje cell fibers
What are the borders of the submental triangle? Anterior bellies of the digastric bilaterally and the hyoid bone
What are the contents of the submental triangle? Submental lymph nodes
What is the pathway of the third order neurons that carry light touch and pressure sensation from the face and oral cavity? Posterior limb of the internal capsule to the face area of the somatosensory cortex
Which division of the trigeminal nerve carries sensation from the external auditory meatus and external surface of the tympanic membrane, mucosa of the cheeks and floor of the mouth, the tongue, and the cranial dura? CN V3
What is the pathway for the corneal reflex? V1 → spinal tract and spinal nucleus of V → bilateral projections to both facial nuclei (CN VII) → orbicularis oculi
At what point do fibers from the motor nucleus of V join the mandibular nerve (V3)? After passing under the trigeminal ganglion
What are the four primary nuclei of the trigeminal system? Chief/principal sensory, spinal, mesencephalic, and motor
What are the cell bodies of first order neurons that transmit pain/temperature information from the face? Trigeminal ganglion
What is the location of the mesencephalic nucleus of V? Within the lateral portions of the midbrain and superior pons
Which cerebellar peduncle transmits ipsilateral proprioceptive information to the cerebellum from the spinal cord? Inferior cerebellar peduncle
Where does the parotid duct enter the oral cavity? At the level of the 2nd upper molar
At what vertebral level does the dura mater end? S2
Infarction of a lenticulostriate artery is characteristic of which type of stroke? Lacunar
Which cerebral cistern lies between the medulla and cerebellum? Cisterna magna, which receives CSF from the fourth ventricle via the median foramen of Magendie
What is the major risk factor for the development of Warthin tumor of the parotid galdn? Cigarette smoking
Paralysis of what muscle innervated by CN VII results in hyperacusis? Stapedius muscle
Occlusion of what artery may result in contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing? Posterior cerebral artery
What three nerves branch off the facial nerve immediately after it exits the skull? Posterior auricular nerve, the nerve to the posterior belly of the digastric, and the nerve to the stylohyoid muscle
What is the largest component of the brain? Cerebral cortex
What is the function of the carotid body? Sense oxygen
What is the innervation of the carotid body? Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
Occlusion of what artery causes locked-in syndrome? Basilar artery
What cranial nerve originates from the dorsal aspect of the brainstem? CN IV
If an epidural hematoma goes untreated, what complication could develop, and what clinical signs would you see? Ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil and contralateral hemiparesis with decerebrate posturing (i.e. shoulder adducted, elbow extended, forearm pronated and fingers flexed).
What brain lobe contains the visual cortex? Occipital lobe
Where are the parathyroid glands located? Posterior surface of the thyroid gland
What are the typical CT findings of an acute subdural hematoma? Semilunar crescent-shaped hematoma
What nerve supplies the parotid gland? Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
What artery divides the A1 and A2 segments of the anterior cerebral artery from each other? Anterior communicating artery
Which artery supplies the majority of the supratentorial cranial dura? Middle meningeal artery
Through what foramen does CN XII exit the skull? Hypoglossal canal
What happens to the uvula as a result of a unilateral lesion of CN X? Deviates to the opposite side of the injured nerve
Which electrolyte abnormality is a commonly associated sequela of subarachnoid hemorrhage? Hyponatremia
Which major structures are supplied by the middle cerebral artery? Broca's area, Wernicke’s area, and motor & sensory cortices of the contralateral trunk, arm, face
What is the venous drainage of the thyroid gland? Superior, middle, and inferior thyroid veins
What is the function of the carotid sinus? Senses blood pressure
What is the innervation of the carotid sinus? CN IX (also known as Hering's nerve)
The thyroid gland consists of what three functional components? Follicles, colloid, and parafollicular cells
The cell bodies for proprioception within the trigeminal area are located in which nucleus? Mesencephalic nucleus
In patients with chronic subdural hematoma, what treatment may result in dramatic improvement? Craniotomy
What is the most common cause of a unilateral congenital facial palsy? Birth trauma
What are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck? Midline (of the body), inferior border of the mandible , and sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle
What are the 3 structures pierced by a lumbar puncture needle that produce the two appreciable "pops"? Ligamentum flavum, dura mater and arachnoid
Which nerve innervates the geniohyoid muscle? C1 via hypoglossal nerve
What is the presenting symptom in posterior vermis syndrome? Truncal ataxia
What are the major functions of the cerebellum? Maintenance of posture and balance, maintenance of skeletal muscle tone, and coordination of voluntary and fine movement
What are the autonomic functions of the oculomotor nerve? Serves as the efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex and in accommodation
How does a lesion of the optic nerve affect the pupillary light reflex? Ipsilateral blindness and a loss of the afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex in the affected eye
What are the 3 most common risk factors for aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage? Cigarette smoking (most important modifiable risk factor), hypertension, family history
Where does the hypoglossal nerve exit the skull? Hypoglossal canal
What deep structures of the face are innervated by branches of the maxillary nerve? Maxillary teeth, gums, and palate
What cranial nerves traverse the cavernous sinus? Cranial nerves III, IV, V1, V2, VI, as well as the internal carotid artery
What is the function of the trochlear nerve? Innervates the superior oblique muscle, which depresses, intorts, and abducts the eye while adducted
What is the presentation of an acute subdural hematoma? A patient may be immediately knocked unconscious and never fully regain consciousness due to the severity of the initial injury.
What are the two major terminal branches of the internal carotid artery? Anterior cerebral artery and middle cerebral artery
Which brain hemisphere contains the speech areas? Dominant hemisphere
What cranial nerve makes up the efferent limb of the gag reflex? CN X
What physical exam sign is commonly seen in infants who develop hydrocephalus? Setting sun sign
What is the function of the lingual nerve? Provides general sensation to the anterior two thirds of the tongue
What is the basic function of the trigeminal nerve? Carries sensory information from the face to the brain and provides innervation to the muscles of mastication
What are the borders of the posterior triangle of the neck? Sternocleidomastoid muscle, clavicle , and anterior border of the trapezius muscle
Under what conditions can a patient who has sustained head trauma be sent home without hospitalization? No intracranial bleeding on CT scan, the patient is neurologically intact, and the patient has someone who will check on him/her frequently for 24 hours
What is the innervation of the stylohyoid muscle? Stylohyoid branch of CN VII
What is the arterial blood supply of the thyroid gland? Superior (via external carotid) and inferior thyroid (via thyrocervical trunk) arteries
What are the extraocular muscles innervated by the oculomotor nerve? Medial rectus, the inferior rectus, the superior rectus, and the inferior oblique
What nerve innervates the muscles of mastication? Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
What are the two major extracranial arteries that supply blood to the brain? Internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries
What is deposited in cerebral amyloid angiopathy that weakens cortical blood vessels? β-amyloid protein
What is the relative speed of symptom onset in patients with a subdural hematoma? Gradual signs of cerebral compression
What typically presents with a sudden-onset of, severe headache that is classically described as the “worst headache of my life”? Subarachnoid hemorrhage
How will the cerebrospinal fluid appear in a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage? Xanthochromia (blonde color) or blood in the CSF
What is the CT appearance of an acute subdural hematoma? Hyperdense crescent-shaped hemorrhage
What is the CT appearance of a chronic subdural hematoma? Hypodense crescent-shaped hemorrhage
What is the etiology of an acute subdural hematoma? Severe head trauma (e.g. car accident)
What is the etiology of a chronic subdural hematoma? Mild trauma in the setting of cerebral atrophy
Which type of cerebral hematoma is characterized by a lucid interval (brief period of improvement) followed by rapid signs of cerebral compression? Epidural hematoma
What 2 populations are at increased risk for subdural hematomas? Victims of abuse (e.g., shaken baby syndrome, elderly abuse) and in patients with atrophic brains prone to falls (e.g., alcoholics, elderly)
Injury to which vessel is associated with epidural hematoma? Middle meningeal artery
What major artery is the middle meningeal artery a branch of? Maxillary artery
What are the surgical options for treatment of subarachnoid hemorrhage caused by a berry aneurysm? Clipping or coiling of the berry aneurysm
Skull fractures are associated with what type of hematoma? Epidural hematomas
What CT findings are seen in subdural hematoma? Crescent shaped (concave) hematoma which is less dense than an epidural hematoma due to dilution of the blood by CSF.
Which type of hematoma is more likely to cross suture lines? Subdural hematoma
Injury to which vessel is associated with subdural hematomas? Bridging veins
Which test is performed to diagnose subarachnoid hemorrhage if there is a strong suspicion despite a negative CT scan? Lumbar puncture
Which test findings are classically associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage? Opening pressure >200 mm H2O, ↑ RBC count that does not diminish from CSF tube 1 to tube 4, and xanthochromia (pink or yellow tint)
What is the action of the orbicularis oris? Close the mouth & protrude the lips (like kissing)
What is the innervation of the orbicularis oris? Buccal branch of CN VII
What is the action of the orbicularis oculi? Close the eyes
What is the innervation of the orbicularis oculi? Temporal & zygomatic branches of CN VII
Occlusion of which artery classically presents with painless monocular vision loss? Central retinal artery
What brain structures are supplied by branches of the internal carotid artery? Eye, frontal cortex, temporal lobe, and parietal lobe
What is the characteristic finding on lumbar puncture in idiopathic intracranial hypertension? Elevated opening pressure that relieves the headache
What the name given to increased intracranial pressure with no apparent cause on imaging? Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Why are intracranial pressures normal in normal pressure hydrocephalus? The increase in CSF takes place over time, thus allowing the gradual increases in intracranial pressure to be offset by compression of the cerebral hemispheres
In an emergency, what palpable connective tissue membrane in the neck must be cut in order to insert an airway tube directly into the trachea? Cricothyroid membrane
What nerve provides parasympathetic input to the organs from the neck to the transverse colon? CN X
What is a subarachnoid hemorrhage? A brain bleed that occurs below the arachnoid layer of the meninges
What is the most common non-traumatic cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage? Ruptured saccular aneurysm
What is hydrocephalus? A pathological condition resulting from an alteration of the normal flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), leading to compression of surrounding CNS tissue
What conditions can damage the arachnoid granulations? Meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage
How is cerebrospinal fluid reabsorbed into systemic circulation? Arachnoid granulations
From which cells and structures is cerebrospinal fluid produced? Ependymal cells of the vascular choroid plexus
What cerebral cistern lies between the cerebral peduncles and contains the bifurcation of the basilar artery? Interpeduncular cistern
What are the CSF findings in viral infections? Normal/Increased opening pressure, increased lymphocyte count, normal/Increased protein, normal glucose
What cerebral cistern lies ventral to the pons? Pontine cistern
What are the CSF findings in bacterial infections? Increased opening pressure, increased neutrophil count, increased protein, decreased glucose
What is the location of the fourth ventricle? Bordered ventrally by the pons and medulla and dorsally by the cerebellum
How does the fourth ventricle communicate with the cisterna magna? Via two lateral foramina (of Luschka) and a medial foramen (of Magendie)
What are the CSF findings in fungal/TB infections? Increased opening pressure, increased lymphocyte count, increased protein, decreased glucose
Neurologic deficits of which nerve are highly suggestive of a malignant salivary gland neoplasm? Facial nerve (CN VII)
Which gland is affected by the vast majority of salivary gland tumors (80-85%)? Parotid gland
What is the most common clinical manifestation of salivary gland tumors? A painless mass/swelling localized to a salivary gland
What is the function of the abducens nerve? Innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
A patient has a unilateral LMN lesion of CN XII. When they are asked to stick their tongue out, to which side does the tongue deviate? Same side of the injured nerve
What should a bulging fontanelle make you suspicious for? Increased intracranial pressure
What can absence of a red reflex indicate on newborn exam? Cataracts, glaucoma, retinoblastoma, severe chorioretinitis
What can a deep blue sclera on newborn exam indicate? Osteogenesis imperfecta
What nasal defect are you looking to rule out during the newborn exam? Choanal atresia (congenital disorder where back of nasal passage is blocked)
What are Epstein's pearls? Small, white, benign, lesions (or milia) on the palate that are seen in most babies
Where is the anterior fontanelle located? At the juncture of the sagittal and coronal sutures
How long is it normal for the skull to remain asymmetrical after birth? 2-3 days
Which division of the trigeminal nerve carries sensation from the eyes and conjunctiva? V1
Which division of the trigeminal nerve innervates mucosa of the upper mouth, nose, pharynx, palate and upper teeth, and cranial dura? V2
Where is thyroid hormone stored within the thyroid? Colloid
What are the actions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? Laterally flexes the head to the ipsilateral side and rotates the head to the contralateral side, and flex the cervical spine.
What is the innervation of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? CN XI (spinal accessory nerve)
Which division of the trigeminal nerve is the only one that carries motor innervation? V3
What is the pathway for the tearing reflex? V1 → spinal tract and spinal nucleus of V → bilateral projections to both facial nuclei (CN VII) → lacrimal glands and tearing of both eyes
What urgent treatment is indicated in penetrating head trauma? Immediate surgery
What are the 2 most commonly used definitive interventions to prevent aneurysmal rebleeding following subarachnoid hemorrhage? Surgical clipping and endovascular coiling
What 2 populations are at increased risk for chronic subdural hematoma? Alcoholics and the elderly due to significant brain atrophy
The ophthalmic artery is a branch of which artery? Internal carotid artery
What physical exam finding must be assessed prior to performing lumbar puncture in a patient with suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage? The presence of papilledema
What are the branches of the internal carotid artery in the neck? No branches
How does the middle meningeal artery enter the skull? Via the foramen spinosum
What structure does the middle meningeal artery supply? Dura
What are the typical CT findings of an epidural hematoma? Biconvex, lens-shaped hematoma
What 2 muscles does the accessory nerve (CN XI) innervate? Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
Besides a head CT, what other imaging is indicated in a patient with suspected basilar skull fracture? CT of the c-spine
Branches of which artery are often implicated in nosebleeds? Sphenopalatine artery
What is a terminal branch of the maxillary artery that supplies blood to the nasal septum? Sphenopalatine artery
What are the roots of the phrenic nerve? C3, C4 and C5
Where does the sigmoid sinus drain to? Internal jugular vein
Which regions of the brain does the tentorium cerebelli separate? Cerebellum from the cerebrum
Which regions of the brain does the falx cerebelli separate? Cerebellar hemispheres
What areas of the skin does the ophthalmic nerve innervate on the face? Skin of the forehead, the dorsum of the nose and the upper eyelid
The maxillary artery is a terminal branch of what major artery? External carotid artery
What areas of the skin does the mandibular nerve innervate on the face? Skin of the cheek, chin, lower lip and the posterior temple region
What nerve can be damaged during a parotidectomy? Facial nerve (CN VII)
What type of cell synthesizes calcitonin? Parafollicular cells
What muscle group receives motor innervation from the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve? Muscles of mastication
What does the meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve supply? Meninges of the middle cranial fossa via the foramen spinosum
What is the function of calcitonin? Lowers blood calcium levels
What is the major role of thyroid follicles? Synthesize, store and secrete thyroid hormone
What is the stimulus for calcitonin secretion? Increased serum calcium concentration
What areas of the brain does the falx cerebri separate? Cerebral hemispheres
What is the treatment for an epidural hematoma? Rapid craniotomy
What is the initial diagnostic test performed in the workup of a suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage? Non-contrast CT scan of the head
Calcitonin opposes the actions of what other hormone? Parathyroid hormone
What test must every patient who sustains head trauma and becomes unconscious for any period of time receive? A head CT scan
Describe the pupillary light reflex. Light hits the retina → signal sent via CN II to the midbrain nuclei → Edinger-Westphal nuclei bilaterally → parasympathetic fibers via (CN III) activate pupillary sphincter muscles → bilateral pupillary constriction
Occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery may result in: Lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome
Under normal conditions, what is the primary driver of cerebral blood flow autoregulation? Carbon dioxide
What effect does hypercapnia (high carbon dioxide) have on the brain? Vasodilation and an increase in cerebral blood flow
What effect does hypocapnia (low carbon dioxide) have on the brain? Vasoconstriction and a decrease in cerebral blood flow
What nerve innervates the radial muscle of the eye? Short ciliary nerve
From where does the short ciliary nerve originate? Ciliary ganglion
What is the function of the short ciliary nerve? Allows a contraction of the radial muscle and thus a dilation of the pupil during periods of high sympathetic activity
What is the treatment for patients with Bell's palsy? Corticosteroids
During a lumbar puncture, where is the tip of the needle located when cerebrospinal fluid is drawn? Subarachnoid space
How is a lumbar puncture performed? By inserting a needle between L3 and L4 or L4 and L5
What is the cause of lateral pontine syndrome? Blockage of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
How do patients with lateral pontine syndrome present? Ataxia, loss of gag reflex, and Horner’s syndrome
What do simple, closed linear skull fractures usually present with? Swelling overlying the fracture site
In acute subarachnoid hemorrhage, at what value should the systolic blood pressure be maintained? Below 160 mmHg
What does a positive Rinne test bilaterally and a Weber test that lateralizes to the right ear indicate? Sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear
What does a positive Rinne test bilaterally and a Weber test that lateralizes to the left ear indicate? Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear
The ophthalmic nerve exits the skull through what structure in the skull? Superior orbital foramen
What 2 structures exit the skull through the optic foramen? Optic nerve (cranial nerve II) and ophthalmic artery
How would complete occlusion of the external carotid artery present in a patient? Ischemia of the lingual artery (tongue pain), facial artery (facial pain), and the posterior auricular artery (in cyanosis of the ear)
How would a lesion of the abducens nerve (CN VI) present? Inability to abduct the affected eye
The optic nerve (CN II) enters the cranium through what structure? Optic canal
What causes optic neuritis? Demyelination of the white matter tracts of the optic nerve (cranial nerve II)
What is the most common initial manifestations of optic neuritis? Multiple sclerosis
What are the clinical manifestations of optic neuritis? Unilateral decreased visual acuity, “washed out” colors, and pain with eye movements
What are the common presenting clinical manifestations of lateral medullary (Wallenburg) syndrome? Severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, gait instability, and limb ataxia
What is the most commonly damaged nerve from a carotid artery aneurysm? Abducens nerve (CN VI)
Created by: jofreayala
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