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EPME 2021
EPME list of Q&A
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized? | TA CAN BE USED FOR A HIGHER DEGREE THAN YOU HAVE. RESERVISTS MUST BE DRILLING, SATISFACTORY PROGRESS. $250 PER CREDIT HR. NO FEES |
| What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors? | Suicide-Related Ideations |
| Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die? | Suicide |
| What is the result of Self-Harm Level 3? | Death |
| What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself? | Self-Inflicted Unintentional Death |
| Any interpersonal action, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future? | Suicide Threat |
| What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die? | Suicide Related Behaviors |
| What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown? | Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior |
| Dismissing _____________ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk. | suicidal ideations |
| What would self-harm with no injury be reported as? | Level 1 |
| What level of self-harm results in injury? | Level 2 |
| What level of self-harm results in no injury? | Level 1 |
| For reporting purposes, what level of suicide attempt results in injury? | Level 2 |
| In one survey more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____________ at some point in their lives. | "episode of suicidal thinking" = Suicide-Related Ideations |
| What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as? | Suicide-Related Communications |
| What type of suicide-related communications is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior? | Suicide Plan |
| What type of suicide-related communications is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors? | Suicide Plan |
| For reporting purposes, what level of self-harm results in death? | Level 3 |
| What is a Mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? | IS PATH WARM |
| _____________ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention. | Ask (of Ask, Care, Escort) |
| What may be helpful to lead into the question "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" | It may be helpful to lead into this question with a statement of your observations |
| What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide? | ACE: Ask - Care - Escort |
| During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question? | Ask |
| During the _____________ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen. | Care |
| During which step of suicide prevention you should remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury? | Care |
| During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality? | Care |
| In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief? | Care |
| During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help? | Care |
| You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention? | Care |
| During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person and this will save his/her life? | Escort |
| During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional? | Escort |
| If you ask a person "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do? | hang in there and ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious. |
| If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is? | How? (plan) Situation? (alone, drinking) History? (prior attempts, hospitalizations, fam. history) |
| Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention? | your Regional Work-Life Office |
| Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans, Form CG-6049? | All AD and SELRES |
| All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____________ per week. | 180 minutes |
| It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____________ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity. | 150 minutes |
| It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____________ minutes per week of strength training. | 30 minutes |
| Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week? | 150 minutes |
| Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week? | 2 or more |
| Who do you submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to? | to their supervisors |
| When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted? | in the months of April and October |
| Who is required to keep your most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved? | most current form must be kept on file or electronically saved by the member and supervisor |
| What is the minimum amount of time for exercise sessions, in order to be beneficial? | 10 |
| In general, physical activity should be spread out over at least how many days per week. | three |
| What levels of intensity are used to measure a training effect for physical activity? | 0-10 |
| According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity? | moderate |
| Who are required to use installed occupant restraints while operating or riding in a motor vehicle on any Coast Guard installation? | All personnel |
| Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes? | discretion to be exercised by the unit commander, commanding officer, or officer-in-charge within applicable law and regulations |
| When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents? | from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity. |
| Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle? | Unauthorized: Unofficial Purposes, Personal Business, Home-to-Work, Permissive Travel, Nonofficial Travelers, Medical Appointments/Treatment |
| Transportation of a member's dependent would be authorized in a CG owned motor vehicle in which case? | "Motor vehicles are authorized to transport an employee, spouse and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity." |
| What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan? | 10% of any taxable portion of the distribution not transferred or rolled over |
| What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one's personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family? | Personal Financial Management |
| The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances? | Personal Financial Readiness |
| What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual's or family's income and expenditures and recommending short- and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness? | Financial Planning and Counseling |
| The PFMP consists of how many elements? | 6 |
| Which of the following is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)? | Education and Training, Counseling, Information and Referral, Command Financial Specialist (CFS) |
| CFS's fall under what element of the PFMP? | Command Financial Specialist (CFS) Program |
| Onboard a ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception? | except for those rendered the commanding officer and officers senior to the commanding officer, to visiting officers, to officers making inspections, and to officers when addressing or being addressed by them |
| You must render salutes to which of the following? | Officers of the armed forces of the United States, the NOAA, the PHS, and foreign armed services |
| When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles? | Persons operating moving motor vehicles should not render or return salutes, Passengers will render and return salutes. |
| You will not render a salute if the person to be saluted does not approach within what distance? | 30 paces (render at 6 paces, or the closest they're gonna get) |
| National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories? | NTAS will now consist of two types of advisories: Bulletins and Alerts |
| Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists? | BRAVO |
| Which FPCON require the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings? | BRAVO |
| Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture? | NORMAL |
| Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely? | ALPHA |
| Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards? | CHARLIE |
| Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required? | Stearns Model I600 |
| Boat characteristics include which types of frames? | Transverse and Longitudinal |
| Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length? | 1/4 inch |
| Which grooming standard applies to moustaches? | Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth. |
| Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosis with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)? | Commanding officers or Officers-In-Charge will grant permanent shaving waivers for personnel who have received a confirmed diagnosis of Pseudo folliculitis barbae (PFB) by a medical doctor providing health care for unit personnel. |
| Whose proposal to Congress resulted in the establishment of the Revenue Cutter Service 1790? | Alexander Hamilton |
| On August 7, 1789, Congress gave responsibility for constructing and maintaining all of the Nation's aid to navigation to what entity? | Treasury Department |
| The Revenue Marine were charged with what single purpose? | assistance in the collection of customs duties and tonnage taxes |
| In 1838 Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency? | Steamboat Inspection Service |
| The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____________ cutters at a cost of $1000 each. | ten |
| The USCG celebrates its birthday on _____________ of each year. | August 4th, 1790 |
| In what year were Revenue Marine cutters ordered to begin limited cruising during the winter months to assist mariners in distress? | 1831 |
| The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date? | 1915 |
| When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation? | April 1967 |
| When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security? | 2002 |
| Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____________. | Secretary of the Treasury |
| Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard? | Commodore Ellsworth Price Bertholf |
| Which Revenue Cutter helped lead the Overland Expedition to rescue of rescue missions of marooned whalers near Point Barrow, Alaska? | Bear |
| Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator? | Elmer Stone |
| On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____________. | United States Revenue Cutter Service |
| Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942? | Signalman First Class Douglas A. Munro |
| Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue? | Point Cruz, Guadalcanal |
| SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, _____________. | Point Cruz, Guadalcanal |
| What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War? | Harriet Lane |
| The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____________ during World War I | German torpedo |
| The USCGC TAMPA was sunk with how many people onboard? | 13 |
| What legislation forced the bulk of the burden for enforcing Prohibition in U.S. waters to the Coast Guard? | The National Prohibition (Volstead) Act of 1919 |
| An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led the Congress to establish _____________ for the United States Coast Guard. | Coast Guard Captain of the Port offices |
| Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict? | World War I |
| During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain? | Six |
| When did the Coast Guard begin carrying out neutrality patrols in the North Atlantic? | September 1939 |
| Following the explosion of the French ammunition carrier SS Mont-Blanc in World War I, what was one of the Coast Guard's major related tasks at home? | Port Security |
| In what year was the Coast Guard tasked with open-ocean weather patrol duties in the North Atlantic? | 1940 |
| During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____________, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong. | Operation Market Time |
| During Vietnam, how many 82-foot patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations? | 26 |
| By the end of "Operation Market Time" the Coast Guard had boarded nearly how many sampans and junks? | 1800 |
| Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991.? | Persian Gulf |
| Who pioneered the use of aviation for law enforcement and search-and-rescue operations for the Coast Guard? | Elmer Stone |
| Women and African Americans were integrated into the United States Coast Guard by the end of _____________. | WWII |
| When was the Homeland Security Act passed? | 2002 |
| The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____. | September 11th |
| The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on _____________. | September 11th |
| In 2005, the United States Coast Guard responded to thousands of oil and HAZMAT spills, totaling over 9 million gallons, following _____________. | Hurricane Katrina |
| Nearly half of the United States Coast Guard’s Selected Reserves were used to carry out homeland security and national defense missions at home and abroad beginning in 2003, as part of what Operations? | Iraqi Freedom |
| In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina? | 2005 |
| Who served as Boarding Officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded? | Nathan B. Bruckenthal |
| DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004? | Bronze Star Medal (with combat “V”) |
| Who was the first African-American to command a U.S. Life-Saving Station? | Captain Richard Etheridge |
| Captain Richard Etheridge was appointed as Keeper to which Life-Saving Station? | Pea Island Life-Saving Station, near Cape Fear, North Carolina |
| The Life-Saving Station where Captain Richard Etheridge was appointed as keeper had a reputation as _____. | "being as good a surfman as there is on this coast, black or white" |
| The Pea Island Life-Saving Station is located near _____________. | Cape Fear, North Carolina |
| For their actions in saving the entire crew of E.S. Newman, the all African American crew of the Pea Island Life-Saving Station, were awarded _____________. | Gold Lifesaving Medal posthumously |
| Which Coast Guard officer took part of the planning effort for the liberation of Cherbourg, France, a key supply depot, as part of Operation Overlord (D-Day) preparations? | CAPT Quentin R. Walsh |
| Who was awarded the Navy Cross during World War II while serving as a Commanding Officer of a specially trained U.S. Naval Reconnaissance Party? | CAPT Quentin R. Walsh |
| What was awarded to LCDR Walsh for engaging in active street fighting with the enemy during World War II? | Navy Cross Citation |
| Which Coast Guard officer liberated 53 paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day? | CAPT Quentin R. Walsh |
| Who was the Coast Guard's first female helicopter pilot? | Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain |
| What year did LT Collen A. Cain become the Coast Guard's third female aviator? | June 1979 |
| DC3 Bruckenthal detected a small, unidentified _________ proceeding toward the Al Basra Oil Terminal in Iraqi territorial waters and moved his team into position to screen the oil terminal. | dhow |
| Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain was awarded the _______ for saving a three-year-old boy involved in a boating accident. | Coast Guard Achievement Medal |
| LT Colleen A. Cain, LCDR Buzz Johnson, and Aviation Survivalman David Thompson made the ultimate sacrifice in service to their nation and fellow countrymen when their helicopter crashed, in route to a sinking vessel, in the State of _____________. | Hawaii |
| The Union Jack is flown on the _____________ of the ship. | at the bow of the vessel while anchored or moored |
| The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white. | 16 |
| How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776? | 26 |
| The _____________ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws. | CG ensign |
| The _____________ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port. | Union Jack |
| The _____________ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel. | Union Jack |
| The _____________ is the canton of the United States Flag. | Union Jack |
| The _____________ provided a symbol of authority, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms. | CG Ensign |
| The _____________ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters. | CG Ensign |
| The current design of the _____________ has 16 red and white stripes. | CG Ensign |
| The design of the Coast Guard Ensign was ordered by Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, on _____________. | 1 August 1799 |
| What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present? | Battle Streamers |
| Battle streamers are attached to the _____________, replacing cords and tassels. | Coast Guard Standard |
| During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____________. | 43 battle streamers |
| Individual units may only display those _____________ that they have earned. | Battle Streamers |
| Only _____________ may display a complete set of battle streamers. | major headquarters commands |
| The design of the _____________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack. | Coast Guard Standard |
| The presence of the _____________ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer. | Commissioning Pennant |
| The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____________. | U.S. Marine Corps |
| The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____________ battle streamers. | 43 |
| This flag is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign. | CG Standard |
| This flag is used during parades and ceremonies. | CG Standard |
| The _____________ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed. | CG Stripe |
| The _____________ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings. | CG Seal |
| The _____________ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard. | CG Seal |
| The _____________ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc. | CG Stripe |
| The Coast Guard _____________ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957. | CG Emblem |
| The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____________. | 1957 |
| The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____________ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service. | CG Shield |
| Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning: _____________. | “Always Ready” or “Ever Ready” |
| When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted? | The motto appears to have been adopted sometime between October 1896 and May 1897 |
| The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____________, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham. | New Orleans |
| What language did Semper Paratus originate from? | Latin |
| The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____________. | Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck |
| What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)? | a consistent user-friendly, 16-section format, used to communicate information on these hazards |
| The standard GHS format for a safety data sheet includes _____ sections, in a specified order. | 16 |
| What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT? | SDS |
| Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the _____________ to prevent improper use or handling. | |
| GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _____. | |
| If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS. | the manufacturer |
| What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badges assignment standard tour length? | 2 years |
| Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR? | O-6 or higher |
| If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem and conditions permit, the senior person should _____________. | gets out and salutes |
| If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem, the driver shall _____________. | Stop the vehicle |
| When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall ____________. | salute |
| When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall _____. | salute |
| Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands? | Operational Stress Control |
| How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program? | 1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com |
| Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program? | "◾Active Duty members and their dependents |
| ◾Reservists | |
| ◾Civilian Employees of the Coast Guard" | |
| Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as: | The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.) |
| Which of the following does the National Institute of Mental Health recommend to manage stress? | "• Be observant |
| •Talk to your health care provider or a health professional. | |
| •Get regular exercise | |
| •Try a relaxing activity | |
| •Set goals and priorities | |
| •Stay connected | |
| •Consider a clinical trial" | |
| What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned? | Relocation Assistance Program |
| Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned? | Transition/Relocation Managers (TRMs) |
| Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information. | Welcome Packages |
| How should you contact your Transition/Relocation Manager? | at your Regional Work-Life Staff |
| Your _______ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program. | the Family Resource Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Work-Life Staff |
| Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program? | your Family Resource Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Work-Life Staff |
| What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur? | Family Advocacy Specialist |
| What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the SNP? | DD-2792 |
| One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____. | Addresses prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment and assigns responsibilities for a coordinated community response within the CG in collaboration with services outside the CG |
| The purpose of the _____________ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment. | Family Advocacy Program |
| CGSUPRT is part of HSWL’s _____________ CG-111 Site. | Office of Work Life |
| Members can call _____________ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor. | EAP @ 1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) |
| The end of marking periods for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months? | January (all) & July (AD only) |
| The end of marking periods for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months? | January (all) & July (AD only) |
| The end of marking periods for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months? | February (all) & August (AD only) |
| The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months? | March (all) & September (AD only) |
| The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months? | April (all) & October (AD only) |
| The end of marking periods for pay grade E-6 is the last day of which month? | May (all) |
| The end of marking periods for pay grade E-7 is the last day of which month? | September (all) |
| The end of marking periods for pay grade E-8 is the last day of which month? | February (AD only) or November (Reserves) |
| The end of marking periods for pay grade E-9 is the last day of which month? | June (all) |
| How many major categories of performance are there in the EES? | Four (Military, Performance, Professional Qualities, Leadership) |
| The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ____ days after the evaluation report period ending date? | Five |
| ____________ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period. | The rating chain |
| The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES? | Familiarization, Performance, Evaluation Input, Acknowledgement, Verification |
| When do you need to need to provide evaluation input for your EER? | to the rating chain not later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period |
| What is done with the original EER counseling sheet? | The unit provides the evaluee the original counseling sheet. |
| The ____________ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance, so the Coast Guard can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence. | Enlisted Evaluation System |
| The ____________ has been designed to inform each member of the performance stands against which they are measured. | Enlisted Evaluation System |
| The ____________ has been designed to provide a means by which each enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards. | Enlisted Evaluation System |
| The ____________ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade. | Enlisted Evaluation System |
| The ____________ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member. | Enlisted Evaluation System |
| Your signature on the member's signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgement of: ____________. | "The counseling and review of their evaluation report; The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility; The appeal time frame; and Their advancement potential and recommendation." |
| What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period? | Conduct |
| What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called? | Competencies |
| Which factor type in the EER measures the member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions? | Military. |
| Which factor type in the EER measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work? | Leadership. |
| Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____. | 2, 4, or 6 in each competency |
| What are the areas impacted by awarding an "Unsatisfactory Conduct Mark", as listed in CIM 1000.2(series)? | advancement and good conduct eligibility |
| Appeals to the approving official's decision on the advancement recommendation _____. | may not be appealed |
| What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations? | Ready, Not Ready, Not Reccommended |
| What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation? | the approving official must counsel the member on why this markwas assigned and on the steps necessary to earn a ready for advancement and prepare required comments |
| The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following? | Incorrect information, Prejudice, Discrimination, Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances |
| What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER? | specific examples of demonstrated performance that indicate how the member met or exceeded the written standards |
| What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process? | Request an Audience, Written Appeal, The Appeal Letter, Submission Deadline, Appealing After the Deadline |
| As a result of an appeal, what actions may an approving official take? | may raise or leave marks unchanged, but may not lower any marks |
| What actions may the appeal authority take? | raise or leave unchanged the member’s marks, but may not lower any marks an approving official assigned. |
| What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their marks? | The member must submit the appeal within 15 calendar days (45 calendar days for reservists) after the date they signed the acknowledgment section of the counseling sheet |
| What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks? | The member must submit the appeal within 15 calendar days (45 calendar days for reservists) after the date they signed the acknowledgment section of the counseling sheet |
| What are forms CG-3788A-G used for? | Enlisted Evaluation Report Form |
| Which is true of hazing and bullying? | erodes mission readiness and will not be tolerated |
| Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion” is defined as _____. | hazing |
| Which is true of hazing? | "bullying on the job occurs four times more often than sexual harassment or racial discrimination" |
| Which directive requires a commanding officer to "prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel"? | COMDTINST M5000.3 (series) |
| Hazing can include which of the following? | "any conduct through which a military member or members, or any other persons physically or psychologically injure or create a risk of physical or psychological injury |
| The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____________. | hazing |
| If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, _____. | may be held accountable as well. |
| An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case? | doing it at work, O/E's doing it, instructor/student (for 365 days), recruiter/recruitee (365 days) |
| A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point? | one year later |
| Which of the following would be a prohibited relationship? | doing it at work, O/E's doing it, instructor/student (for 365 days), recruiter/recruitee (365 days) |
| Engaging in sexually intimate behavior in which of the following situations would be prohibited | doing it at work |
| Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding _____. | 365 days |
| Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days _____. | are in a prohibited relationship |
| Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship? | doing it at work, O/E's doing it, instructor/student (for 365 days), recruiter/recruitee (365 days) |
| Which would be an acceptable romantic relationship? | not [doing it at work, O/E's doing it, instructor/student (for 365 days), recruiter/recruitee (365 days) ] |
| Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct? | doing it at work, O/E's doing it, instructor/student (for 365 days), recruiter/recruitee (365 days) |
| Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ? | Article 92 |
| Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment? | porn, bigotry, installing software, changing configurations, hacking, viruses/malware, spam/phishing, downloading or streaming media |
| What is the definition of substance abuse? | The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member's safety at risk. |
| Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program? | Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues, Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use, Provide Periodic Prevention Training, Support Commands, Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse, Support Mission Readiness, Al |
| Which of the following is an example where zero drinks is the preferred option? | when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications |
| Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model? | the 0,1,2,3 model |
| Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____. | a reason for caution |
| How many grams of pure alcohol is in a "standard" drink? | 14 grams |
| How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink? | 5 oz |
| How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink? | 12 oz |
| What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor? | 1.5 oz |
| Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol? | increase in breast cancer, birth defets if pregnant |
| What is considered binge drinking for men? | 5 drinks |
| What is considered binge drinking for women? | 4 drinks |
| Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher? | .08 |
| What is considered substance abuse? | The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member's safety at risk. |
| Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program? | Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse, Encourage, Teach, and Support, Provide Periodic Prevention Training, Support Commands, Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse, Support Mission Readiness, Align with Other Policy |
| What is a responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative? | Contact SAPS in 24 hrs, treatment strategies, 3307s, documentation, ect. |
| What is Prime for Life training used for? | substance abuse training and education |
| What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis? | $10 |
| The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____________ articles. | 6 |
| The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide that provides members of the Armed Forces with guidance _____________. | to better equip them to counter and withstand all enemy efforts against them |
| Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug? | common sense |
| Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse? | common sense |
| Which of the following constitutes a drug incident? | common sense |
| Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules? | "1. Treat all firearms as if they are loaded. 2. Always maintain proper muzzle control. 3. Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot. 4. Know your target and what is beyond" |
| Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an "UNSAT" conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced? | six months |
| What should you do if you find errors on your PDE? | note them on a printed copy of the PDE, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel. |
| How can you access your SWE PDE? | Direct Access - View - SWE PDE - Create Report |
| Where are deadlines for PDE verifications and corrections provided? | "Review the message for deadlines for PDE verifications and corrections." from reference but not really an answer |
| On your PDE you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date? | 1-Jan-10 |
| You will be credited Sea Time points on your PDE at what rate? | 2 pts per year, 2.33 on WMSL |
| On your PDE, award points are earned up to what point? | Award Points up to SED is the point value of all awards earned between the members Points Start Date up to the SED. |
| On your PDE, TIR and TIS are computed up to what point? | Terminal Eligibility Date |
| You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections? | Resubmit the following day |
| Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step? | "When all desired Job Basket boxes have been chosen, click Save to Job Basket." |
| What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume? | "After ranking positions in order of preference, click Return to previous page." |
| You have submitted an incorrect eResume. What can you do to delete the incorrect information? | Resubmit |
| How is risk defined within Risk Management? | the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard. |
| What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for RM controls? | Step 1 - Identify Hazards |
| In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation? | Feedback |
| Which of the following is a Risk Assessment pitfall? | Over optimism, Misrepresentation, Alarmism, Indiscrimination, Prejudice, Inaccuracy, Enumeration |
| In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, "Why" analysis is used in which action? | Action 3—List Causes |
| Develop controls is an action for which step in the RM process? | Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions |
| Within the RM process, which is a type of control can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk? | Engineering controls, Physical controls, Administrative controls, Educational controls, Operational controls |
| Which of the following is an action in step 4 or the RM process? | Action 1—Make Implementation Clear, Action 2—Establish Accountability, Action 3—Provide Support |
| In step 5 of the RM process, ensuring that changes requiring further RM are identified is part of which action? | Action 1 - Monitor |
| What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk? | STAAR (Spread out, Transfer, Avoid, Accept, and Reduce) |
| In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member, establish accountability? | Step 4 - Implement Controls |
| In step 1 of the RM process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed what model can be used? | the PEACE model (Planning, Event complexity, Asset selection, Communications, and Environmental conditions) |
| What is the control method to reduce or eliminate risks from a hazard that identifies when it is possible to avoid specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way? | Avoid |
| The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk? | Spread Out |
| Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using _____. | Transfer |
| Which of the following is the foundation of the risk management process? | Hazard identification |
| What is defined as, "the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard," in COMDTINST 3500.3A? | Risk |
| What is defined as "a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity"? | Risk Management |
| How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the RM process? | Action 1 - Assess Hazard Severity, Action 2 - Assess Hazard Probability, Action 3 - Complete Risk Assessment |
| Which is an action taken during the first step in the RM process? | Action 1 - Mission/Task Analysis, Action 2 - What Can Go Wrong Analysis, Action 3—List Causes (“Why” Analysis) |
| What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps? | a lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities. |
| Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve ________________________________. | the acceptance of some level of risk. |
| What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps in not managed? | there isnt one, there are 7: mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, and assertiveness |
| Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _________________ by reducing member exposure to hazards. | increases mission success |
| The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____. | expected risk exposure |
| What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits? | The RM process |
| What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions? | GAR 2.0 |
| When is RM most effective? | when hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure |
| Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is ________. | continuous and adaptive |
| What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions? | The PEACE/STAAR analyses |
| What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity? | PEACE |
| What outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk? | STAAR |
| Where are the steps of RM described? | "Risk Management Fundamentals” |
| What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis? | Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM) |
| What should units use at the start of each day or watch? | GAR 2.0 |
| Which models, when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management? | PEACE and STAAR |
| What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively? | Crew Endurance |
| Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 to _______________. | address unique operational realities |
| At a minimum, units must include all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0? | PEACE |
| Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic? | The PEACE/STAAR models |
| What shall all units use to conduct a real-time assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards? | GAR 2.0 |
| Which is a model to identify hazards? | PEACE |
| How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process? | Three - Monitor, Evaluate, Feedback |
| Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the RM process? | Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions |
| Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process? | Step 5 - Supervise and Evaluate/Review |
| The FIRST step in the IDP process is to _____. | Step One: Assess your competencies. |
| An IDP is not _____. | "· A one-time activity. · A performance appraisal. · A contract for training. · A guarantee of promotion to a higher paygrade. · A fix for all supervisor-personnel relations problems." |
| What is the basis for scheduling the next counselling session for an enlisted member's IDP? | "Step Eight: Schedule the next counseling session approximately six months out." |
| What is the form number for the Enlisted IDP? | CG-5357 |
| Which element of successful leaders is associated with the leadership competency "taking care of people"? | Leading Others |
| Which leadership competency is being displayed by a First-Line Supervisor who coaches others and provides sound, thoughtful advice? | Leading Others |
| The anticipated level of expertise for first-line supervisors for the effective communications leadership competency includes which of the following? | Seeks out job related knowledge and readily grasps its implication for the workplace. Seeks and provides informal feedback and learns from others. Coaches others and provides advice. Helps others to gain insight regarding professional development |
| What is trait described for Coast Guard leaders within the effective communications competency? | Leaders express facts and ideas succinctly and logically, facilitate an open exchange of ideas, ask for feedback routinely, and communicate face-to-face whenever possible. Clear, concise, and organized correspondence and reports. Effective presentations. |
| What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Influencing Others? | Learns to influence others; gains cooperation, while showing respectful understanding of others’ positions. |
| What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Respect for Others and Diversity Management? | "Demonstrates sensitivity and responds considerately to others. Shows respect for cultural differences. Flexible, anticipates socially sensitive issues, and takes appropriate action. Treats all individuals fairly. Acts in compliance with CG policies. |
| What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Influencing Others? | Learns to influence others; gains cooperation, while showing respectful understanding of others’ positions. |
| What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers? | As per the Reference, Define Conflict. Realistically Identify When Parties are in Conflict (the 2nd step) |
| Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive? | Stage 3 - Escalation |
| What is the first stage of conflict escalation? | Stage 1 – Disagreement |
| In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want. | Compromising |
| In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires. | Accomodating |
| In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires. | Competing |
| The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is ___________________. | Collaborating |
| What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers? | FACILITATE a resolution. |
| Which stage of conflict represents that path for resolving a conflict without first escalating? | De-Escalation |
| What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict? | The point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive. |
| What is the third stage of conflict? | 3. IDENTIFY stages of conflict. But could be 4. DETERMINE appropriate conflict style for given situation |
| _______________________________ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, “Basic Program Elements for Federal Employee Occupational Safety and Health Programs and Related Matters”. | Unit/Workplace safety and health inspections |
| COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates that ________ rings are not authorized. | Thumb |
| According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are __________________. | authorized but must meet the specifications for watches |
| Engagement/wedding ring sets or _____ are counted as one ring. | Engagement/wedding ring or class/wedding ring sets are counted as one ring. |
| Prohibited watch colors include ____________. | diamond covered, neon, white, and bright colors |
| You can wear a maximum of _____ ring per hand. | one |
| What is an example of an authorized color for sunglasses? | Sunglass frames must be conservative (unadorned black or navy blue material; gold or silver wire) and lenses must be black or brown in color (mirrored lenses are prohibited). |
| What head gear is authorized for wear with the TBLS uniform? | Combobination cap, garrison cap, RELIGIOUS HEADGEAR AND APPAREL |
| When wearing the TBSS, what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks? | Oxfords, pumps, or flats are worn with the slacks. Pumps or flats may be worn with the skirt. Optional high-gloss. |
| When wearing the TBSS uniform, men are required to wear ____________________. | Black Oxford Shoes - Oxfords required for men. |
| What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the TBSS uniform? | Women may wear women’s shirt, Overblouse, or men’s shirt |
| When wearing the TBLS uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket? | Nametag |
| When wearing the tropical blue uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket? | Qualification Insignia - only 1 insignia |
| What is required for wear with all uniforms? | Undershirts |
| The wearing of this type of Blue Crew Neck T-Shirt is prohibited in heat/fire prone spaces. | (Moisture Wicking) A short sleeve 100% polyester T- shirt, USCG blue with a crew neck. |
| What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt? | ALTERATIONS: Sleeve of the long sleeve shirt may be shortened. Both the long and short-sleeved versions of the light blue shirt may be altered to provide a better or more athletic fit. |
| What do the short and long sleeve women’s light blue shirts have? | The SS and LS shirt has a fly front covering the button closure (right over left), a soft stand-up collar with stays, two button cuff closure (on long sleeve shirt), shoulder epaulets, a pleated patch pocket with button flap closure on each front panel. |
| When wearing the Women’s overblouse with Service Dress Blue, the bottom of the overblouse shall _________________. | not be visible under the SDB Coat. |
| What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie? | The Double Windsor tie knot |
| Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket? | AF skirt is not authorized [also wash and wear slacks] |
| In all cases, the non-tab edge of the belt must align with the _____. | fly |
| The women's shirt and women's slacks align with the belt so that the _____. | tab edge touches the wearer’s RIGHT side of the buckle. |
| Oxfords are not authorized ______________. | Oxfords are NOT authorized when the skirt is worn. |
| While wearing the Light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges and _____ from the leading edge. | 1 inch |
| What color is the service strip on the SDB jacket for an E4? | scarlet |
| What color is the service strip on the SDB jacket for an E-7? | gold |
| The service strip is placed at a ______ angle. | 45-degree |
| What is not authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS)? | Ribbons |
| What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover? | "For E-7 through E-9 and MCPOCG, the garrison cap anchor is approximately 1-3/8 inches high. |
| Which is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member? | "For E-4 through E-6 appropriate collars rate/pay grade insignia. The center of the insignia is placed 1½ inch from the bottom of the cap, and 2 inches back from the front crease." |
| Which award has the highest precedence? | 1. Personal 2. Unit 3. Campaign and Service 4. US Non Military 5. Non US/Non Military 6. Marksmanship |
| Which of the following awards would be excluded if you wanted to wear the highest three? Humanitarian Service Medal Ribbon, Coast Guard Arctic Service Medal Ribbon, Sea Service Ribbon, National Defense Service Medal, and Commandant’s LOC Ribbon? | COMDT LOC Ribbon National Defense Service Medal Coast Guard Arctic Service Medal Ribbon Humanitarian Service Medal Ribbon Sea Service Ribbon |
| While conducting a personnel inspection you notice a member is wearing their ribbons out of order. What reference can you advise them to consult to properly align their awards? | Enclosure 22 of Coast Guard Military Medals and Awards Manual (COMDTINST M1650.25E) |
| How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)? | "To launch the CGBI System, click the CGBI icon on your desktop or click "CGBI System" on the left-hand navigation." |
| What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate? | Compliant: Approaching Limits of Standard |
| What level of compliance does a red color indicator within CGBI indicate? | Non-Compliant: Corrective Action Required |
| What level of compliance does an orange color indicator within CGBI indicate? | Non-Compliant: Not Currently Compliant |
| What level of compliance does a green color indicator within CGBI indicate? | Compliant: Within Standard |
| What training code(s) direct PDCs to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid? | Train to Memory |
| What is the purpose of form CG-4903? | Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form (may be submitted anonymously) |
| What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all work spaces? | annual |
| How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained? | The reports are retained on file until the deficiencies have been corrected and for at least five years following the end of the calendar year to which they relate. |
| How do you submit a Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form? | All commands must implement a process to anonymously report hazards. Command personnel must be able to submit without fear of retribution. If used, anonymous boxes must be placed in a location where members can make a submission without being observed. |
| How many Administrative remarks entry types are there? | 9 |
| Where is the original form CG 3307 distributed to? | The original is filed in the SPO PDR |
| For evaluations not completed in Direct Access, what must be placed inside the original CG-3788(series) and forwarded to PPC (adv)? | An additional copy of the CG-3307 to document counseling related to enlisted evaluations |
| Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307? | PD-07 |
| You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use? | PD-12 |
| Where are copies of all form CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging into the IPDR? | Commander, Personnel Service Center (psd-mr) |
| A member has requested to be removed voluntarily from the advancement list. Which CG-3307 template would you use? | AR-07 |
| What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307? | If a member refuses to sign an Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307 entry, after being counseled regarding its content, the words “member refused to sign” must be entered in the member’s signature block along with the date counseled. |
| What should you do if a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307? | If a member is not available for signature, so state, and include the reason(s). |
| When drafting a CG-3307 how many blocks are filled in? | There is a Text Area, and then you're supposed to fill out 5 blocks, leave the 6th blank, but theres not even a 6th block. So 6? Who knows. |
| What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict? | “Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person.” |
| How many stages are there in conflict? | 5 |
| What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution? | Stage-2 – Confrontation |
| In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties? | Stage-3 – Escalation |
| Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without it first escalating? | Stage-4 – De-Escalation |
| What is the final stage of conflict? | Stage-5 – Resolution |
| What is placed centered two lines below the last paragraph to indicate the end of the memorandum? | the # symbol |
| When are "Thru" lines used on a memo? | when one or more offices or units outside your own must see a memo before it reaches the addressee. List commanding officers in the “Thru” line. |
| What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing? | an endorsement |
| Every memorandum must include _____________. | a date |
| Where does the signing official place his/her signature on a memorandum? | on the From line |
| Where is the SSIC placed on a memorandum? | below the date, and on each page of the memo |
| What is the primary means of formalized correspondence to communicate both within the Coast Guard and within the framework of the Federal Government? | the Coast Guard Memorandum |
| When writing a memorandum, the most appropriate SSIC code should be used. Where can you look to find this SSIC code? | Standard Subject Identification Codes (SSIC) Manual, COMDTINST M5210.5 (series) |
| When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility a _______ may be used. | "Thru" line |
| Where can the precise title and staff symbol to include on a memorandum be found? | in the StandardDistribution List, COMDTNOTE 5605 Standard Distribution List (SDL). |
| Where is information on routing a memorandum found? | Coast Guard Organizational Manual, COMDTINST M5400.7 (series) |
| What is a parking lot within the context of meeting facilitation? | place where issues that are important but not relevant to the topic at hand can be parked out of the congestion of discussion |
| What is another form of parking lot or board? | Issues, Decisions, and Actions (IDA) record |
| What is a common team member role assigned during a meeting? | timekeeper, scribe, recorder, co-facilitator, participant, subject matter expert (SME) |
| Which step in meeting facilitation involves describing how the meeting will be run, and how decisions will be made? | Establish Ground Rules |
| What is a responsibility of a participant in a meeting? | Gives input, ideas, opinions. Listens to others. Clarifies. Uses good team process skills. |
| What is a responsibility of a timekeeper in a meeting? | Keeps track of time. Notifies group when allocated times are up |
| During a meeting, who has responsibility to capture information as accurately as possible so that non-attendees can follow the group's train of thought? | Recorder |
| During a meeting, who is required to stay out of content discussion? | Scribe |
| How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there? | four (round robin, consensus discussion, plus/delta, meeting surveys) |
| What type of meeting evaluation process involves making a chart? | Plus/delta |
| Action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less than how many hours to complete? | 80 hours |
| When should items in the Parking Lot be discussed? | During 6. Conduct a Meeting … "after the main meeting purpose has been met." |
| Consensus discussions are part of what step in meeting facilitation? | Step 8. Evaluate the Meeting |
| The round robin process is part of what step in meeting facilitation? | Step 8. Evaluate the Meeting |
| Which step of meeting facilitation are ground rules established? | Step 3. Establish Ground Rules |
| Time spent planning your meeting will ensure _______________. | a better outcome |
| There are _____ items to include on a meeting agenda. | 10 |
| How many days does a supervisor have to counsel an active duty evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date? | 21 days |
| How many days does a supervisor have to counsel a reservist evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date? | 45 days |
| Within the EES each competency is defined in terms of _____ performance standards. | three. Low, middle, and high |
| Who is responsible for timely processing of an EER so that it may be reviewed by an evaluee no later than 30 days following the report period? | Approving Official |
| Who has appeal authority for any annual or semiannual evaluation report? | the first flag officer in the evaluee’s chain of command |
| For first-term members reporting to a new duty station, supervisors conduct the first formal IDP review and counseling session within _____ days of reporting. | 30 days (wrong reference. IDP Answers found here |
| An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is mandatory for _____. | "first-term military members. (Enlisted: first four years of Coast Guard service. Officers: ensign through lieutenant, including those with prior enlisted) service, first four years of commissioned Coast Guard service" |
| The IDP shall be introduced and discussed by the supervisor no later than how many days after the reporting date? | "As the first-termer progresses through the unit check-in and indoctrination interviews, the IDP shall be introduced and discussed." No days mentioned in reference. |
| When meeting with a service member during the IDP process, what is the mentor’s primary objective? | "ensure that the specific needs of the member are met" (the question's specific terminology is not used in either reference) |
| How well the supervisor clearly communicates the member’s past performance and methods in which to improve are primary to _____. | ensuring future success. |
| An Individual Development Plan is, in part, a means to _____. | • A developmental partnership between the member and supervisor, • A vehicle to address the needs of the member and the needs of the organization. • An active and ongoing process. |
| Creation of short/long term professional and personal goals together using the IDP ensures that they are _____. | realistic and achievable. |
| Supervisors have which of the following responsibilities in relation to the IDP? | Become familiar with the IDP process, Assess the unit’s/organization’s mission, Act as a coach and mentor, Identify unit resources to support the IDP |
| Requests for exceptions to policy for awards will be _____. | approved only in extraordinary circumstances and considered on a case-by-case basis. |
| As a general rule, military members are not entitled to _____. | cash awards, gratuities, gift certificates, or coupons for recognition of superior performance of duty |
| Where can you look to find examples in writing a citation for a member? | Enclosure 24 of COMDTINST M1650.25(series) |
| The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared ______________ | typed and error-free. “landscape” orientation one-inch side and top margins, and at least a two-inch bottom margin where a gold seal, two inches in diameter, will be embossed with the awarding authority’s official seal. |
| "Sexual assault" is defined as _____, characterized by use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent. | any sexual contact or physical contact, if done with an intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person |
| Discussions of individual personal finances with the PFMP are ____________. | confidential. |
| It is Coast Guard policy to _____ tobacco products. | discourage the use of all forms of |
| The entire Coast Guard Nicotine Use Policy can be found in _____. | Chapter 3 of the Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual - COMDTINST M6200.1E |
| What is a fact about quitting smoking found at the Work-Life Tobacco Cessation Program site? | 24 Hours, lungs clear out mucous 72 hours you can breathe easier and have more energy 12 weeks, coughing, breathing and wheezing problems will improve one year, your risk of heart disease is reduced to 50% 10-15 years same risk of cancer as nonsmoker |
| Scholarships and school liaison programs within the Office of Work-Life (CG-111) are located under which dropdown tab? | Family Support |
| What type of facility provides programs for groups of children from age 6 weeks to kindergarten that are federally licensed and nationally accredited? | Military Child Development Centers (CDC) |
| What is the objective of the Work-Life Subsistence Program? | to provide policy and support to over 1,200 Culinary Specialists; furthermore, to enable the successful and efficient operation of 360 CGDFs (CG Dining Facilities) service wide. |
| How can you access tobacco cessation resources available through EAP? | The CG SUPRT program provides tobacco cessation resources. Could also be interpreted as "your Health Promotion Manager." |
| What are members of the Substance Abuse Prevention Team called? | Substance Abuse Prevention Specialist (SAPS). |
| Which resource should you refer a member from another branch of the military serving in the Coast Guard to if they have a family member who may be at risk of suicide | Coast Guard’s Suicide Prevention Program |
| Who can offer unit-wide tobacco cessation education and training upon request? | Your Health Promotion Manager |
| What acronym should you use to respond to a member who is contemplating suicide? | Ask, Care, Escort (ACE) |
| If your roommate confides that he/she has been sexually assaulted, what should you do? | "If the person to whom the information is confided is a Coast Guard member, that person will not have a duty to report that sexual assault." Nothing? |
| When can you make an unrestricted report of sexual assault? | When you're assaulted. I think the question should have been when can you make a restricted report |
| What information can be found at the SAPRR program site? | All sorts bro |
| The Health Promotion Program encourages members to utilize Tobacco Cessation services available at what web site? | WWW.UCANQUIT2.ORG |
| What is the telephone number for the SAPS Duty Line? | SAPS Duty Line (757) 628-4329. "The Duty SAPS phone is down until further notice. If you need assistance please contact HS1 Ashley Garrett at (757) 390-9502" |
| What is the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline number? | 1-800-273-TALK (8255) |
| What is the purpose of the Critical Incident Stress Response (CISR) program? | to help individuals exposed to critical incidents to identify and cope with their responses to these events |
| What is the purpose of the Sea Legs, found at the Work-Life site? | to help support a smooth transition into military life. |
| Where can you find information on the command appointed representative who serves as a vital link between the Coast Guard commands and families? | Family members can contact their ombudsmen at www.cgombudsmanregistry.org. |
| Which Work-Life Program site offers a link to download Parental Leave Policy Flyers? | Parent Resources |
| Which Work-Life Program offers telephonic assistance for financial and legal concerns? | CG SUPRT |
| Which Office of Work-Life Program site allows you to download the ACE card? | Suicide Prevention Program |
| Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers information on psychological first aid? | Critical Incident Stress Response Program |
| The Unit Health Promotion Resources site provides a link to which directive, which includes physical fitness responsibilities for all CG AD and SELRES personnel? | Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual - COMDTINST M6200.1E |
| Which Health, Safety, and Work-Life staff has the overall objective to support the well-being of active duty, reserve and civilian employees and family members? | the Office of Work-Life, reporting to the Assistant Commandant for Human Resources. |
| At which Office of Work-Life Program site can you find a list of EAPCs? | Critical Incident Stress Response Program |
| Which Office of Work-Life Program can you refer members to who are seeking a business opportunity for their spouse by providing child care in a home environment? | Family Child Care (FCC) |
| Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers the Coast Guard Nutrition Video Series by LDCR Trocchio? | Personal Wellness |
| Where can you print the two page document from Office of Work-Life Programs, Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) to provide financial counselling resources? | Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) |
| A friend asks you for help in reporting a sexual assault. How can you find answers about how ALCOAST 292 changed reporting requirements? | Sexual Assault Prevention Response & Recovery (SAPRR) Program has a FAQ |
| When would a reserve member be eligible for substance abuse screening? | On IDT or ADT |
| What information can you provide to members requesting information about self-referrals and seeking treatment for substance abuse? | Office of Work-Life (CG-111) : Substance Abuse Prevention Program (SAPP) and COAST GUARD SUBSTANCE ABUSE PREVENTION AND TREATMENT MANUAL - COMMANDANT INSTRUCTION M6320.5 |
| What would you be able to provide to members who ask what Work-Life resources are available for spouses? | Ombudsman, Spouses' Clubs, everything in EAP |
| What would be the minimum number of Victim Advocates assigned to a unit with 250 members? | 3 |
| How can you view information for NRT provided to TRICARE beneficiaries? | |
| Which Office of Work Life program can you refer members to in order to assist them to stop smoking cigarettes? | Tobacco Cessation Program |
| Where can you access a comprehensive list of recovery assistance resources for sexual assault survivors? | Sexual Assault Prevention Response & Recovery (SAPRR) Program website |
| Where can you refer members for information about child care? | Office of Work-Life Programs : Child Development Services (CDS) |
| What program can you refer members to improve communications between the command and Coast Guard family members? | Ombudsman Program |
| Which Office of Work Life program is responsible for ensuring that necessary financial information and resources are available to Coast Guard personnel and their family members? | Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) |
| Which mobile app can find a unit Ombudsman using the “Ombudsman Locator” feature? | "USCG HSWL" |
| You can download a PDF version to provide members with the SAPRR program's "How Do I report a Sexual Assault?" from what source? | Office of Work-Life (CG-111) : Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program (SAPR) - How Do I Report a Sexual Assault? Website |
| Where can you refer members for information about the Coast Guard support programs and services to members and their families, using a mobile app? | "USCG HSWL" |
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