Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
UWORLD
Overall review 3
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is Rituximab? | Monoclonal antibody directed against the CD20 antigen |
| What is the CD to which Rituximab is directed against? | CD20 |
| What common drug is used in non-Hodgkin lymphomas that has proven efficacy? | Rituximab |
| What substances' concentration increase as they travel along the proximal tubule? | Creatinine and Urea |
| Do the concentrations of bicarbonate, glucose, and amino acids, increase or decrease as they travel along the proximal tubule in the nephron? | Decrease |
| What are some common substances that decrease concentration as they travel along the proximal tubule of the nephron? | Bicarbonate, glucose, and amino acids |
| Which electrolytes have no change in concentration as they travel along the PCT of nephron? | Sodium and Potassium |
| Which substances are the ones with the lowest concentration as they travel along the PCT? | Glucose and amino acids |
| Does creatinine or urea has a higher concentration as the length of the PCT travel increases? | Creatine |
| Are most malignant pleural effusion exudative or transudative? | Exudative |
| What are some ways that exudative pleural effusions form in malignancies? | 1. Inflammation-induced increase in vascular permeability (leading to increase inflow), 2. Blockage of pleural fluid reabsorption by Parietal pleura lymphatics (leading to decreased outflow |
| What causes the increase inflow of fluid leading the exudative plural effusions in cancer patients? | Inflammation-induced increase in vascular permeability |
| What are some common cell adhesion molecules? | Fibronectin, collagen, and laminin |
| What is the process of adhesion of cells? | Cells adhere to extracellular matrix involves integrin-mediated binding to fibronectin, collagen, and laminin |
| What type of hormone is insulin? | Anabolic hormone that acts via receptor Tyrosine kinase to increase the synthesis of glycogen, proteins, fatty acids, and nucleic acids |
| What enzyme aids the functioning of insulin? | Receptor Tyrosine kinase |
| How is the rash of measles? | Maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads downwards |
| What is pathognomonic of Measles? | Koplik spots |
| How are the Koplik spots? | Tiny white or blue-gray lesions on the buccal mucosa |
| What disease is associated with Koplik spots? | Measles |
| What the most characteristic imaging finding of Toxoplasmosis? | Multiple ring-enhancing lesions in the brain |
| What are some clinical features of Toxoplasmosis? | Multiple ring enhancing lesions in brain imaging, seizures, and headaches |
| What are the penicillin-binding proteins to which Cephalosporins and penicillin bind to? | Transpeptidases |
| What are Transpeptidase? | Penicillin-binding proteins |
| What type of drugs use Transpeptidases in order to function? | Penicillins and Cephalosporins |
| What is a common way a Cephalosporin acquires antibiotic resistance? | A change in PBP structure that blocks the cephalosporin binding site |
| What type of antibodies are created by cold agglutinins? | IgM antibodies |
| What is common cause of CAP that result in cold agglutinins? | Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
| Cold agglutinins = | IgM antibodies |
| How do cold agglutinins work? | Bind to RBCs and cause clumping/agglutinations at low body temperatures |
| What are conditions leading to cold agglutin formation? | Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection, infectious mononucleosis and some hematologic malignancies |
| What type of virus causes Molluscum contagiosum? | Poxvirus |
| How is Mollluscum contagiousum presented? | Small, firm, round, papules that often have a central umbilication |
| Who are at greater risk for Molluscum contagiosum? | Immunocompromised (HIV) and sexually active |
| What are the histological findings of Molluscum contagiosum biopsy? | Intracytoplasmic Eosinophilic inclusion bodies of poxvirus in keratinocytes |
| What pathogens cause purely toxin-mediated watery diarrhea? | V. cholerae and Enterotoxigenic E. coli |
| What is the result of ETEC or V. choleare not causing cell death by toxins? | No erythrocytes and no leukocytes are noted on stool microscopy |
| What are the stool microscopic findings of dysentery? | - Fecal polymorphonuclear WBCs - +/- RBCs |
| What pathogen causes Enteric fever? | Salmonella typhi |
| What are the classic stool microscopic findings of Enteric fever? | Fecal mononuclear WBCs |
| What is the MOA of Sulfonylureas? | Inhibit ATP-sensitive potassium channels on the pancreatic B-cell membrane, inducing depolarization and L-type Calcium channel opening |
| Which calcium channels are opened with Sulfonylureas? | L-type calcium channels |
| What is the result of increased calcium influx into Pancreatic B-cells by Sulfonylureas? | Increase insulin release independent of blood glucose concentrations |
| Is the release of insulin by Pancreatic B-cell by Sulfonylurea therapy, dependent or independent, of serum glucose concetration? | Independent from glucose concentration in blood |
| What is a possible dangerous adverse effect of Sulfonylureas? | Hypoglycemia |
| Why are sulfonylureas often causative of hypoglycemia? | They induce release of insulin by pancreas despite low serum glucose concentration |
| What is Gynecomastia? | Development of glandular breast tissue in males |
| Which SERM is known to reduce risk of gynecomastia? | Tamoxifen |
| Which type of male are at higher risk of developing gynecomastia? | Men receiving androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer |
| What is Phentermine? | Norepinephrine-releasing agent |
| Sympathomimetic weight loss drug indicated for short-term treatment of obesity | Phentermine |
| How does Phentermine work? | Stimulate and inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine |
| What is COX-2? | Inducible enzyme upregulated during inflammation by IL-1 and TNF-alpha |
| Common selective COX-2 inhibitor | Celecoxib |
| How do Selective COX 2 inhibitors work? | Decrease inflammation by inhibiting COX-2 production of proinflammatory arachidonic acid metabolites |
| Why are COX-2 inhibitors often used in patients with PUD? | Since they do not affect COX-1, they have minimal gastroduodenal toxicity |
| Proinflammatory cytokines: | IL-1 and TNF-alpha |
| What is PD-L1 role in T-cell exhaustion? | PD-L1 binds to PD-1 on cytotoxic CD8+ T-cells, resulting in inhibiting their response |
| What is a common way that cancer cell may avoid immune recognition by T-cells? | Overexpressing PD-L1, leading to PD-1 binding to PD-L1, and inhibiting CD8+ activity |
| What Ligand is associated with CD8+ T-cell exhaustion, leading cancer cells to evade immune response? | Programmed Death-Ligand 1 (PD-L1) |
| What is Mycophenolate? | Immunosuppressive drug that inhibits inosine 5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase in the denovo purine synthesis pathway |
| Does Mycophenolate affect the de novo purine or pyrimidine synthesis pathway? | De novo Purine synthesis pathway |
| Which enzyme is inhibited by Mycophenolate? | Inosine 5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase |
| What common immunosuppressive drug is known to inhibit inosine 5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase | Mycophenolate |
| What is the reason the Mycophenolate is a distinctive immunosuppressive drug? | Specific suppression to lymphocyte proliferation, due to activated lymphocytes lack an established purine salvage pathway, that is present in other hematopoietic cell lines |
| What drug is used to treat Methanol or ethylene glycol intoxication? | Fomepizole |
| What is the MOA of Fomepizole? | Competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase |
| A competitive inhibitor would (pharmacokinetic): | Increase Km without reducing Vmax |
| Is Km or Vmax increased with a competitive inhibitor? | Km |
| What is the change in Vmax with a competitive inhibitor? | None: Vmax is not altered |
| What is the expected shifting on the curve caused by an increase in Km? | Right shift of the curve |
| If the Km of a drug is increased, it is expected for the graphed curve to shift to the right or left? | Right |
| What type of metabolic acidosis is caused by Ethylene glycol and methanol? | Anion gap metabolic acidosis |
| What type of intoxication is known to result in anion gap metabolic acidosis and elevated osmolar gap? | Ethylene glycol and methanol |
| What does the use of Fomepizole help in methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity? | Reduces the rate of conversion of the alcohol into their toxic metabolites |
| If methanol and ethylene glycol are relative harmless in respect to toxicity, why then the use of fomepizole? | Both create highly toxic metabolites by enzymatic action of alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase |
| What is a common anticancer drug associated with development of Dilated Cardiomyopathy? | Trastuzumab |
| What is Trastuzumab? | Monoclonal antibody that blocks HER-2 to disrupt malignant cell signaling and encourage apoptosis |
| What is an indirect role of HER-2? | Helps preserve cardiomyocyte function |
| How is DCM due to Trastuzumab presented? | Decrease in myocardial contractility without cardiomyocyte destruction or myocardial fibrosis |
| What is Tocolysis? | Inhibition of uterine contractions |
| What causes inhibition of uterine contractions? | B2-adrenergic receptor stimulation |
| What is the ocular (eye) effects of Alpha-1 receptor stimulation? | Contraction of the ocular pupillary dilator muscle, resulting in mydriasis (pupillary dilation) |
| What disease is due to antibodies against hemidesmosomes ? | Bullous pemphigoid |
| Where is the location at which hemidesmosomes are attacked by autoantibodies in Bullous pemphigoid? | Basement membrane of the Dermal-epidermal junction |
| What is the consequence of antibodies attacking hemidesmosomes in Bullous pemphigoid? | The entire epidermis separates from the dermis and form tense, subepidermal blisters |
| Suprasellar pituitary tumor | Craniopharyngioma |
| What is a Craniopharyngioma? | Suprasellar tumor found in children and composed of calcified cysts containing cholesterol crystals |
| What is the composition of a Craniopharyngioma? | Calcified cyst containing cholesterol crystals |
| A craniopharyngioma is a derivation of which embryonic tissue? | Remnants of Rathke's pouch |
| What is a common embryonic precursor of the anterior pituitary? | Rathke's pouch |
| What cranial tumor, especially pituitary tumor, is seen as a derivative of the remnants of the Rathke pouch? | Craniopharyngioma |
| What is the MCC of Subdural hematoma? | Rupture of Cortical bridging veins |
| How is a Subdural hematoma (SAH) often clinically presented? | Gradual onset of headache and confusion |
| If the patient presents with a gradual onset of headache and confusion, it is more likely to be an Epidural or Subdural hematoma? | Subdural hematoma |
| What is the classic shape of the Subdural hematoma in a CT? | Crescent-shaped mass (hemorrhage) |
| What is the MCC of an Epidural hematoma? | Rupture of the MMA (middle meningeal artery) |
| What is the CT classic finding of an epidural hematoma? | Biconvex hematoma |
| What are the key clinical features or symptoms presented by a patient with Epidural hematoma? | "lucid interval", followed by a loss of consciousness |
| What is Sarcoidosis? | CD4+ T cell mediated disease, in which large numbers of CD4+ lymphocytes release IFN-gamma and TNF-alpha to drive macrophage activation and granuloma formation |
| Is Sarcoidosis, CD4+ and CD8+, mediated disease? | CD4+ mediated |
| In Sarcoidosis, what cytokines are secreted by CD4+ T lymphocytes? | IFN-gamma and TNF-alpha |
| What are the findings in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid in pulmonary sarcoidosis? | Lymphocytic predominance with a HIGH CD4+/CD8+ ratio |
| What condition is associated with an high lymphocyte CD4+/CD8+ ratio? | Sarcoidosis |
| What are the features shared by all Primary Thrombotic Microangiopathy (TMA) syndromes? | Activation of platelet and diffuse microthrombosis in arterioles and capillaries |
| What are common clinical features of TMA syndromes? | Hemolytic anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, and organ injury (brain , kidneys, and heart) |
| What is Follicular Lymphoma? | The most common indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma in adults |
| What are some Follicular lymphoma features and characteristics? | - B-cell origin - Presents with painless waxing and waning (fluctuating) lymphadenopathy |
| What is the translocation associated with Follicular lymphoma? | t(14; 18) |
| What is the result of the t(14;18)? | Overexpression of the BCL-2 oncogene |
| What hematologic malignancy is associated with an overexpression of BCL-2 oncogene? | Follicular lymphoma |
| What promotes the formation of Uric acid kidney stones? | 1. Low urine pH (acidic urine) 2. GI bicarbonate loss due to chronic diarrhea |
| How does a low urine pH promote formation of uric acid stones? | Increased formation of insoluble uric acid over soluble urate ion |
| How does chronic diarrhea promote formation of uric acid stone? | It develops metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate and prosecution of acidic urine |
| What is the neoplasm most strongly associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? | Gastrinoma |
| Which ulcerative condition is strongly associated with Gastrinomas? | Zollinger-Ellison syndrome |
| Where are gastrinomas located? | Small intestine/ Pancreas |
| What are the clinical signs and symptoms caused by Gastrinomas? | Peptic ulcers (especially in distal doudenum), heartburn, and diarrhea |
| Where are ulcers of ZES most likely to develop? | Distal doudenum |
| What are some hormonal responses seen with ZES? | Elevated gastrin levels that rise in response to exogenous secretin administration |
| In normal gastric G cells, what is the function of Secretin? | Inhibits release of gastrin |
| Which cells normally secrete Gastrin in the stomach? | Gastric G cells |
| How is atopic dermatitis characterized? | Epidermal barrier dysfunction due to loss-of-function mutations in filaggrin, a key epidermal component |
| What protein is very likely to mutated in Atopic Dermatitis? | Filaggrin |
| What occurs in Atopic dermatitis in respect to pathogenesis? | Increased transepidermal water loss, skin permeability, and inflammation results in erythematous dry skin and pruritus |
| What is the term used to refer to the appearance of skin in atopic dermatitis in chronic disease aggravated by repeated scratching? | Lichenification |
| What is the result to a ventricular heart chamber undergoing eccentric ventricular hypertrophy? | Dilated cavity with relatively thin ventricular wall due to addition of myocardial contractile fibers in series |
| In a dilated ventricle due to eccentric hypertrophy, why are the ventricular wall relatively thin? | Due to myocardial contractile fibers added in series in response to volume overload |
| A heart problem, that leads to a volume overload problem, will present eccentric or concentric ventricular hypertrophy? | Eccentric ventricular hypertrophy |
| What is the result of chronic aortic regurgitation? | Aortic root dilation |
| What is the MCC of nephrotic syndrome in children? | Minimal change disease |
| What specific protein is loss in urine in a kid with MCD? | Albumin |
| What is the result of hypoalbuminemia in nephrotic syndromes? | Reduced plasma oncotic pressure, which causes a fluid shift into the interstitial spaces, leading to edema |
| A reduction of plasma oncotic pressure, leads to fluid to flow in or out the cell? | Out the cell and into the interstitial space |
| What is the result of increased fluid in the interstitial space? | Edema |
| What is the result of hypoalbuminemia, or low-oncotic pressure, on lipid synthesis? | Leads to increased production of lipoproteins in liver (hyperlipidemia) |
| In the process of Nephrotic syndrome, the decrease in Oncotic pressure has to results which are: | 1. Increased liver proteins in lipid synthesis ---> hyperlipidemia 2. Hypovolemia and increased ADH and aldosterone --> increased water retention and Na+ ----> edema |
| What are two important enzymes involved in DNA synthesis during the S-phase of the cell cycle? | Dihydrofolate reductase and, DNA polymerase |
| What is the function of the active form of Rb protein? | Regulates cell cycle progression by preventing transition from the G1 phase to the S-phase |
| Is the Rb protein activated in phosphorylated or dephosphorylated form? | Dephosphorylation Rb protein - active |
| What does the phosphorylation of the Rb protein causes? | Inactivates the protein, allowing cells to progress thru the G1/S checkpoint and proliferate |
| Why is a mutated-phosphorylation of the Rb protein a cause of cancer? | It does not allow malignant cells to stay arrested in the G1/S checkpoint, and instead allows them to advance to S-phase and proliferate |
| What are some features or characteristics of REM sleep? | Dreaming and voluntary muscle paralysis, and most often in the final third of the night |
| In which third of the night, is a person most likely to be in REM sleep? | Final third |
| On which phase, of sleep are nightmares most commonly seen? | REM sleep |
| Does a nightmare or night-terror have no recollection of the dream? | Night terror |
| Which is a non-REM parasomnia, nightmare or night-terror? | Night terror |
| What are some characteristics of Night Terrors? | Incomplete arousals and lack of recall of dream content |
| If a kid wakes up in fear, and vividly explains the dream to the mother, is the kid referring to a nightmare or a night terror? | Nightmare |
| Husband wakes up wife in the middle of the night because she was clearly having a "bad dream". Upon waking he asks her about it, but she cannot remember anything. Nightmare or night terror? | Night terror |
| What are the auscultation findings of Mitral Stenosis? | 1. Loud S1 2. Early diastolic opening snap after S2 3. Low pitched diastolic rumble beast heard at the cardiac apex |
| Which cardiac murmur has a Opening snap immediately after S2? | Mitral stenosis |
| Auscultation reveals: Loud S1 + Opening snap + diastolic rumble best heart at cardiac apex. Dx? | Mitral stenosis |
| What causes the Opening snap in Mitral stenosis? | Sudden opening of the mitral valve leaflets, wh th Left-venctrilcelar pressure fall below the Left atrial pressure at the beginning of diastole |
| What is the term used for the sound made when the mitral valves open, as the LV pressure falls below the LA pressure? | Opening snap |
| In graphs depicting pressures of the Aorta, Left atrium, and Left ventricle, used in common heart murmurs, what is a good mnemonic to recall the order of valve opening and closing? | "coco" Mitral closes, Aortic opens, Aortic closes, Mitral Opens |
| What is a major consequence of atrial remodeling? | Atrial fibrillation |
| Conditions such as HF, hypertension, and mitral valve disease often cause atrial structural changes, which may cause which abnormal heart rhythm? | Atrial fibrillation |
| On top of atrial remodeling or structural changes, what other factor may lead to propagation of AFIB? | Atrial conduction system changes |
| What hormone, secreted by the hypothalamus, regulates the release of TSH? | TRH |
| Is the release of TSH controlled by Thyroid hormone, under positive or negative feedback? | Negative feedback |
| A small change in Thyroid hormone levels, may represent a large change in: | TSH |
| What is the most sensitive test to diagnose primary hypothyroidism? | Serum TSH |
| Gilbert syndrome is a hereditary _____________________. | Hyperbilirubinemia |
| What type of hyperbilirubinemia is seen in Gilbert syndrome? | Indirect hyperbilirubinemia |
| What causes the indirect hyperbilirubinemia in Gilbert syndrome? | Decreased bilirubin conjugation |
| What is the clinical profile of a patient with Gilbert syndrome? | Recurrent, self-resolving episodes of scleral icterus and jaundice triggered by stress (illness, infection, trauma) |
| What are the ways Calcium efflux is mediated in cardiac cells? | 1. Na+/ Ca2+ exchange pump 2. Sarcoplasmic Ca2+- ATPase pump |
| Does calcium efflux from the cardiac cells promote relaxation or contraction? | Relaxation |
| IV fluids increase: | Intravascular and left ventricular end-diastolic volumes |
| What is the physical effect of increasing preload on the heart? | Stretches the myocardium and increases the end-diastolic sarcomere length, leading to an increase in stroke volume (SV), and cardiac output (CO) by the Franklin-Starling mechanism |
| What is the relationship between changes in preload and CO and SV? | An increase in preload will cause an increase in CO and SV |
| What is Colonic diverticulosis? | Multiple sac-like outpouching within the sigmoid colon |
| What are the MC complication of colonic diverticulosis? | Diverticular bleeding and diverticulitis |
| What some common risk factors contributing in development of diverticulosis? | 1. High red meat dietary intake and fat 2. Low fiber diet 3. Obesity and decreased physical activity |
| What cranial is affected resulting in hyperacusis? | Facial nerve |
| What is hyperacusis? | Increased sensitivity to sound |
| What is the complication of damage of CN VII close to origin from the brainstem? | Hyperacusis |
| What is angiogenesis? | Process in which new blood vessels are formed |
| In what phase of wound healing does angiogenesis takes place mostly? | Proliferation phase |
| What are some growth factors that stimulate Angiogenesis? | Fibroblast growth factor (FGF) and VEGF |
| What wound healing process is stimulated by FGF and VEGF? | Angiogenesis |
| What are physical complications of ALS? | 1. Respiratory failure dueto inspiratory muscle weakness (reduced vital capacity) 2. Expiratory muscle weakness (weak cough) 3 Bulbar dysfunction ( dysphagia, and chronic aspiration) |
| What dysfunction causes dysphagia and aspiration in ALS patients? | Bulbar dysfunction |
| What type of necrosis is seen in Aortic disserction? | Cystic medial degeneration |
| What is the classic histologic finding in aortic dissection? | Cystic medial degeneration |
| What occurs due to cystic medial degeneration in aortic dissection? | Collagen, elastin, and smooth muscle are replaced by basophilic mucoid extracellular matrix with elastic tissue fragmentation |
| What replaces the collagen, elastin, and smooth muscle of aorta in aortic dissection? | Basophilic mucoid extracellular matrix with elastic tissue fragmentation, and cystic collection mucopolysaccharide |
| What causes most commonly Spinal Cord compression? | Local extension of vertebral metastases into the epidural space |
| In order to produce Spinal Cord compression due to vertebral metastases, into which area is the malignancy spread? | Epidural space |
| What are the early and more common signs and symptoms of Spinal Cord compression? | Severe back pain worse at night, motor weakness, and/or sensory deficits |
| What are common risk factors associated with AAA? | 1. Age > 60 2. Smoking, 3. Hypertension 4. Male gender 5. Family hx |
| What changes in the vessel cause Abdominal Aortic aneurysm? | Chronic transmural inflammation and extracellular matrix degradation with the wall to the aorta |
| AAA is usually below with arterial bodies? | Renal arteries |
| What severe, and possibly fatal condition of the aorta is often found below the renal arteries? | Abdominal Aortic aneurysm |
| What is Rhabdomyolysis? | Release of intracellular muscle contents (myoglobin, electrolytes) due to myocyte injury |
| What are common causes of Rhabdomyolysis? | Crash injury, seizures, or drug use (statins) |
| What secretes Heme pigment? | Pigment released from myoglobin after degradation in the kidney |
| What condition can be caused by the release of heme pigment? | Toxic tubular cells and can cause acute tubular necrosis |
| What is a key vignette UA description of Myoglobinuria? | Positive blood on urine dipstick in the absence of RBCs on microscopic urinalysis |
| What are two main causes of Cushing syndrome? | 1. Pituitary adenoma 2. Ectopic (paraneoplastic) ACTH secretion |
| What condition is associated with elevated ACTH levels? | Cushing syndrome |
| The elevated secretion of ACTH in Cushing syndrome suggest which primary etiology if a high dose dexamethasone test suppresses ACTH secretion? | Pituitary adenoma |
| What etiology is suggested or most likely causative of Cushing syndrome, if a high dexamethasone test DOES NOT suppress ACTH secretion? | Ectopic ACTH secretion, most likely due to Small cell Lung cancer |
| Which lung malignancy is associated with developing Cushing syndrome, that does not suppress ACTH release with high DEXA test? | Small cell lung cancer |
| What is the pathogenesis of Cardiac tamponade? | Restriction of diastolic filling of the right-sided heart chambers, with engorgement and decrease with inspiratory collapse of the IVC |
| Which side heart chambers are seen affected by reduced diastolic filling in cardiac tamponade? | Right-sided heart chambers |
| What is an important feature involving blood pressure in Cardiac tamponade? | Pulsus paradoxus |
| What is 'pulsus paradoxus'? | > 10 mmHg drop in systolic BP during inspiration |
| Decrease in BP >10 mmHg during inspiration | Pulsus paradoxus |
| Which Starling force is mainly changed or modified in development of Transudative effusions? | Hydrostatic or oncotic pressures |
| What are the main conditions that lead to Transudative effusions development? | Heart failure (HF), cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome |
| What is the most common cause of Exudative effusions? | Inflammation and consequent increase vascular membrane permeability |
| What are conditions often associated with Exudative effusions? | Infection, malignancy, and rheumatic diseases |
| Transudative or Exudative effusion. High ratio of pleural fluid to serum total protein (>0.5) | Exudative effusion |
| Transudative or Exudative effusion. High ratio of pleural fluid to lactate dehydrogenase (>0.6) | Exudative effusion |
| Which type of effusion is expected to bee seen in a patient with high absolute levels o f lactate dehydrogenase? | Exudative effusion |
| A patient with an reduced ejection fraction, and dyspnea, is likely to to develop transudative or exudative pleural effusion? | Transudative effusion |
| AAT-1 deficiency patient with abnormal AST/ALT, will most likely develop transudative or exudative effusion? | Transudative effusion |
| Which levels are measured to definice either transudative or exudative effusion? | Serum total protein and Lactate Dehydrogenase in relation to pleural fluid level |
| How is VSD auscultation description? | Harsh, holosystolic murmur of the LLSB |
| What is the anatomical site best to auscult a VSD? | Lower Left Sternal Border (LLSB) |
| Which chamber of the heart is seen with an increased oxygen saturation in setting of VSD? | Right-ventricle |
| What producers the increase in oxygen saturation seen in the RV seen in VSD? | Left-to-Right shunt of oxygenated blood from the Left ventricle to the right ventricle |
Created by:
rakomi
Popular USMLE sets