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STEP 1
NMBE 25 review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is a common role of Vitamin D? | Serum Calcium and Phosphate homeostasis by promoting the intestinal absorption of Ca2+ and phosphate. |
| What vitamin increases intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate? | Vitamin D |
| What are laboratory measures seen with Vitamin D deficiency? | Decreased intestinal calcium absorption, hypocalcemia, increased PTH secretion, and increased PTH-mediated bone resorption. |
| What are the effects on PT in vitamin D deficiency? | Increased PT/INR secondary to impaired synthesis of factor VII |
| What is the clinical and severe symptom of Vitamin D deficiency? | Decreased factor VII leading to predisposition to bleeding. |
| What are some physical characteristics that indicate possible Melanoma? | Lesions that demonstrate asymmetry, border irregularity, variable coloration, diameter greater than 6 mm, and other changing features. |
| What are the typical features that would indicate high risk of developing RCC? | Older men with a history of cigarette smoking |
| What is the most important site of possible metastases of RCC? | Brain |
| What is shown in lab analysis of RCC? | Hematuria along with hypercalcemia or polycythemia secondary to paraneoplastic syndromes |
| Which are the possible Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with RCC? | Hypercalcemia and Polycythemia |
| What is the histology of RCC? | Polygonal clear cells related to the accumulation of lipid and carbohydrate content of the cell. |
| What are physical and clinical characteristics of Anorexia nervosa (binge eating/purging type)? | Low BMI, pubertal delay, or arrest, and purging behaivor leading to hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances. |
| What is a key or distinctive sign of Anorexia nervosa purging type? | Physical examination finding of tooth decay and knuckle scars |
| What is a suspected activity of a person with noticeable knuckle scars and extremely thin? | Purging; possible due to anorexia nervosa. |
| What semesters are the most commonly affected by syphilis infection? | Second and third trimesters |
| What are the clinical manifestations of Congenital Syphilis? | Rhinitis, rhagades, dental malformations, and organomegaly. |
| What is rhagades? | Linear cracks or fissures in the skin occurring especially at the angles of the mouth or about the anus |
| What are the centrally located primary lung cancers? | Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung and Small Cell carcinoma of the lung. |
| Which is a more common subtype of centrally located lung cancer, Squamous cell- or Small cell carcinoma of the lung? | Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung |
| What is the associated paraneoplastic syndrome of Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung? | Hypercalcemia due to PTHrP production |
| What type of lung cancer is suspected with hypercalcemia secondary to an associated paraneoplastic syndrome? | Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung |
| What are the mass effect symptoms often caused by Pituitary adenomas? | Headache and bitemporal hemianopsia form compression of the optic chiasm |
| Which structure is often compressed with Pituitary adenomas, leading to Tunnel vision? | Optic chiasm |
| What are the main effects of a Prolactinoma, especially in women? | Amenorrhea and Galactorrhea |
| What is a severe adverse effect of Lithium carbonate therapy? | Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus |
| How does Li+ lead to development of nephrogenic DI? | Impairing the ability of the collecting ducts to retain free water by interfering with the pathway of ADH in the cells |
| Which part of the nephron is affected by chronic use of Lithium? | Collecting ducts |
| What are the classic signs of Nephrogenic DI? | Polydipsia, polyuria, hyperosmolar serum, dilute urine, and failure to respond to desmopressin. |
| Central or Nephrogenic DI: Failure to respond to Desmopressin? | Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus |
| How is the presentation of H. ducreyi-chancroid? | One or more painful genital ulcers with associated inguinal lymphadenopathy. |
| What is the suspected causative pathogen of multiple, painful genital ulcers, and associated inguinal lymphadenopathy? | H. ducreyi |
| Why does H. ducreyi infection increases chances of acquiring HIV infection? | Due to epithelial discontinuity of the genital ulcers |
| What is the key factor for bone homeostasis? | Balance of osteoblast and osteoclast interaction |
| What is another way to refer to Interleukin-1? | Osteoclast activating factor |
| What is the result of increased levels of IL-1? | Bone mineral density loss |
| What are Granulosa cell tumors of the ovaries? | Malignant sex cord-stromal tumor in wien that produces female sex hormones, often resulting in abnormal postmenopausal uterine bleeding. |
| What is a common cause of postmenopausal intrauterine bleeding? | Ovarian Granulosa cell tumor |
| What are some mediators of local muscle blood flow during aerobic exercise? | Adenosine, lactate, hydrogen ions, and PaO2 and PaCO2. |
| What is the role of the autoregulatory mediators of blood flow in muscle during exercise? | Increase skeletal muscle blood flow |
| What severe and uncommon sequelae of Radiotherapy in lung cancer treatment? | Radiation pneumonitis |
| What is Atelectasis? | Alveolar collapse leading to impaired gas exchange |
| What is a possible consequence of Radiation pneumonitis? | Atelectasis |
| What are benign CNS tumors arising from the meninges? | Meningiomas |
| What areas of the CNS are compressed by Meningiomas? | Brain and Spinal cord leading to neurological defect as such as seizures. |
| What are the MRI findings of Meningiomas? | Spherical and well-circumscribed mass that indents the parenchyma |
| What are "chills"? | Involuntary, rapid muscle contractions which raise the body temperature in response to infection |
| What part of the brain responds to thermoregulatory imbalances such as chills? | Hypothalamic thermoregulatory center |
| What are the ocular effects of an aneurysm compressing the PCA? | Diplopia, mydriasis, exotropia, and hypotropia |
| What is pathology of type II hypersensitivity? | Formation of antibodies to cell surface antigens |
| What type of hypersensitivity is Erythroblastosis fetalis? | Type II hypersensitivity |
| Graves disease is type ___ hypersensitivity. | II |
| What may be compressed by Acoustic neuromas? | Cerebellar peduncles |
| Acoustic neuromas arise from which type of cells? | Schwann cells |
| Which cranial nerve is associated by Acoustic neuromas? | Vestibulocochlear nerve |
| What are some clinical signs and/or symptoms caused by Acoustic neuromas? | Ipsilateral hearing and positional dizziness |
| What clinical sign is seen with acoustic neuroma compressing the cerebellar peduncle? | Ipsilateral dysmetria |
| Effects caused by a Acoustic neuroma are ipsilateral or contralateral? | Ipsilateral |
| What is the histology of Cryptococcus neoformans? | Narrow-based budding yeast cells and bright red capsules with mucicarmine or Periodic acid-Schiff staining |
| What are the stains used for C. neoformans? | Mucicarmine or Periodic acid-Schiff stain |
| What is the location of the Spigelian hernia? | Lies between the rectus abdominis medially and the semilunar line laterally |
| What causes the Pyloric stenosis? | Hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter, resulting in gastric outlet obstruction |
| What is the common age of diagnosis Pyloric stenosis? | 3 to 6 weeks of age |
| How is Pyloric stenosis presented? | Repeated vomiting after feeds, leading to dehydration and hypochloremia, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis |
| What brain tumor should be suspected in an HIV patient with a low CD4+ count? | Primary CNS lymphoma |
| Solitary brain lesion in AIDS patients with low CD4+, and high viral load. | Primary CNS lymphoma |
| How do DPP-4 inhibitors work? | Prevent the early breakdown of incretins, which promote endogenous insulin release |
| What is a common example of DPP-4 inhibitor? | Sitagliptin |
| What type of DM medication is often used after metformin and lifestyle changes fail to control blood glucose levels? | DPP-4 inhibitors |
| What is the MCC of Primary Hyperparathyroidism? | PTH adenoma, followed by PTH hyperplasia, and parathyroid carcinoma |
| How is total blood volume calculated? | Total blood volume (L) x (100%-hematocrit) |
| How is blood volume may be calculated in a healthy adult? | = weight (Kg) x 70 mL/Kg |
| What condition is due to failed fetal swallowing? | Polyhydramnios |
| What are the craniofacial anatomy malformations leading to impaired fetal swallowing? | Anencephaly and/or esophageal atresia |
| What is polyhydramnios? | Accumulation of amniotic fluid |
| What is impaired in fetal development leading to Polyhydramnios? | Fetal swallowing |
| What is the effect of FSH increase during the menstrual cycle? | Support the developing ovarian follicle |
| At which point in the menstrual cycle is there the surge of FSH? | Time of ovulation |
| During which phase of the menstrual cycle there is a slow increase of FSH? | Luteal phase, preparing to support the developing follicle for the next cycle |
| What is the normal range for jugular venous pressure (JVP)? | 8 -10 mm Hg |
| What are some common physical findings in acute congestive heart failure? | - increased JVP - peripheral extremity edema - ascites and hepatojugular reflex - Pulmonary crackles - S3 or S4 gallop |
| Where in the GI tract are dipeptides and tripeptides formed? | Lumen of the Duodenum |
| What proteins or enzymes produces dipeptides and tripeptides in the doudenum? | Trypsin and chymotrypsin |
| Which part of the GI tract is commonly known to be the site for free amino acid production? | Brush border of the intestinal mucosa |
| What are the conditions due to CMV as an opportunistic infection? | Retinitis, esophagitis, and pneumonia |
| What is the main histologic description of CMV? | Prominent intranuclear inclusion bodies within the infected cell |
| Is CMV histological findings intranuclear or intracytoplasmic inclusions? | Intranuclear inclusions |
| Description of Schizotypal personality disorder: | Endure pattern of strange or eccentric beliefs and behavior, social detachment or suspicions, and abnormal perceptual experiences such as illusions |
| What is the main distinction for Schizotypal disorder that separate them from Cluster B and C disorders? | Social indifference |
| Does a person with a Schizotypal personality demonstrates social indifference or not? | It demonstrates social indifference, unlike an avoidant person |
| What is the structural description of Bartonella henselae? | Gram-negative coccobacillus |
| Is B. henselae a gram positive or negative coccobacillus? | Gram-negative coccobacillus |
| What condition is associated with Bartonella henselae in immunocompetent patient? | Cat-Scratch disease |
| What are the histological findings of Cat-Scratch disease? | Involved lymph nodes typically demonstrate necrotizing granulomas with stellate microabscesses |
| Which bacteria is suspected if the histological findings reveal necrotizing granulomas in lymph nodes with stellate microabscesses? | Bartonella henselae |
| What is the shape described by the word "stellate"? | Star-shaped |
| Which severe and fatal syndrome may be associated with Mitochondrial dysfunction leading to fatal encephalopathy, especially in children? | Reye syndrome |
| What is the most common scenario for developing Reye syndrome? | Salicylate use (aspirin) in children during a preceding viral infection |
| What is the reason by which UMN lesion lead to hyperreflexia and spasticity? | Descending motor neuron no longer provide inhibitory inputs to the LMN of the reflex arcs |
| LMN are associated with hyper- or hyporeflexia? | Hyporeflexia |
| What is the location for a proper thoracocentesis if thepaitein is supine? | Above the 9th rib on the affected side along the midaxillary line |
| What structures are avoiding damaged or puncturing during a thoracentesis by placing the needle above the ninth rib? | Lung parenchyma and adjacent structures |
| What causes by ATP: ADP increase ratio due to insulin secretion? | Islet cell depolarization by closing potassium-ATP channels |
| What is the role of Uncoupling protein? | Prevents some of the proton gradient in a mitochondrion form being used in synthesis of ATP |
| What is used by NK cells to induce apoptosis or neoplastic cell that does not express MHC I? | Perforin and granzymes |
| What causes the recurrent abdominal pain in chronic pancreatitis? | Impairment bicarbonate release for pancreatic acinar cells, predisposing to pancreatic autodigestion an abnormally acidic duodenal contents |
| What are symptoms shared by Heroin withdrawal, with other CNS depressants? | Restless, tachycardia and HTN, tremors, nausea and vomiting |
| Which are some specific heroin withdrawal symptoms, that are not shared by other CNS depressants? | Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, piloerection, and yawing |
| What causes the symptoms of seasonal allergies? | Vasodilation and increased capillary permeability caused by histamine |
| Which substance is key in the pathogenesis of seasonal allergic symptoms? | Histamine |
| What is Polyarthritis nodosa (PAN)? | Necrotizing vasculitis involving medium-sized arteries that generally affect the kidneys and visceral organs, sparing the lungs |
| Which organs are usually not affected in PAN? | Lungs |
| What is the treatment of PAN? | Suppression of inflammation with corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide |
| Which condition is associated with Kendy microaneurysm? | Polyarteritis nodosa |
| Which medium-sized vasculitis is known to spare the lungs? | Polyarteritis nodosa |
| What are plasmids? | A genetic structure in a cell that can replicate independently of the chromosomes |
| What is contained in the plasmids? | 1. Regions of DNA that will be transcripbed for a functional purpose. 2. Regions that perit their replication (origin of DNA synthesis) by binding replicative enzymes |
| What is the result of a mutation in the origin of DNA synthesis region? | Prevention of the binding of replicative enzymes, leading to inhibit replication of the plasmids |
| How is Mixed Cryoglobulinemia presented? | Palpable purpura is association with arthralgia and peripheral neuropathy caused by immune-complex mediated vasculitis |
| What condition is associated with increased cryoglobulin and arthralgias and vasculitis? | Mixed cryoglobulinemia |
| What is the most common infection associated with cryoglobulinemia? | Hepatitis C infection |
| How does IV glucose or IM glucagon treat hypoglycemia? | Stimulates hepatic glucose production via gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, which in turn stabilize blood sugar concentrations |
| How long after a new medication is started, a rash may formed as an adverse effect? | 7 to 10 days after |
| Which are the most common medication culprits of drug-induced skin eruptions? | Antibiotics, sulfa-containing drugs, and anti-epileptics |
| How is hepatic inflammation presented in the setting of viral hepatitis A or Yellow Fever? | Apoptosis in hepatocytes |
| Hepatocyte apoptosis in cases of Hep A infection or Yellow fever, uses which apoptotic pathway? | Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis |
| For which process is HGPRT an essential enzyme? | Purine Salvage pathway |
| Which enzyme is key in the Purine Salvage pathway? | HGPRT |
| What is the role of HGPRT? | Serves to recover the purines guanine and hypoxanthine by countering them to guanosine monophosphate and inosine monophosphate, respectively |
| What is a key clinical features of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome? | Hyperuricemia |
| What condition is due to defective HGPRT? | Lesch-Nyhan syndrome |
| What is a particular feature of P. ovale and P. vivax? | Both have life cycles that include exoerythrocytic liver stage of the parasite |
| What is the term used to describe the life cycles seen in P. ovale/vivax that occur exoerythrocytic liver stage? | Hypnozoite |
| What additional drug must be given to malaria caused by P. ovale/ vivax? | Primaquine |
| Which species of malaria (plasmodium) need to be treated with chloroquine plus primaquine? | Plasmodium ovale and Plasmodium viva |
| What is the benefit of treating P. ovale/vivax malaria with primaquine added to chloroquine? | Effectively kills liver forms (hypnozoite) and prevent relapsing infection |
| Is Carbidopa able to cross the BBB? | It cannot cross the BBB |
| What is the benefit of Carbidopa? | Inability to cross the BBB, leads to increase in bioavailability of Levodopa without inhibition of the conversion of levodopa to dopmine in the brain |
| What is the mode of action of Carbidopa? | Decreases peripheral dopamine concentrations, reducing the likelihood of dopamine-related side effects |
| What does an higher Km indicate? | Decreased affinity of the enzyme active site for the substrate |
| How does epinephrine play a role in glucose homeostasis? | Activating adrenergic receptors in the liver, leading to increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis |
| Which is a possible treatment option, in case of emergency, in which a patient is severe hypoglycemia? | Epinephrine |
| What is prevalence ? | Number of existing cases of a disease as a percent at the number of people in a popular under study who are at risk for such condition |
| What is Succinylcholine? | Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker |
| What deficiency (enzyme) can prolong the anesthetic effects of Succinylcholine? | Pseudocholinesterase |
| How is depolarization of skeletal muscle clinically viewed? | Fasciculation |
| How can the frequency of a dominant or recessive allele within a population can be calculated? | - P + q = 1 - P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 |
| What does the "P" and "q" represent in the Hardy-Weinberg equations for equilibrium? | Allele frequencies |
| What is the result in a patient if a stroke affects the Precentral and Postcentral gyri? | Loss of motor and sensory function of the contralateral lower extremities |
| What part of the brain gyri is known to control the lower extremities? | Precentral and postcentral gyri |
| How is acetaminophen normally metabolized? | In phase II conjugation to sulfate or glucuronides |
| When the normal path of acetaminophen is saturated or overwhelmed, how else is it metabolized? | CYP-mediated reaction to NAPQI |
| What is NAPQI? | Strong oxidizer, derivative of the acetaminophen secondary metabolic pathway |
| Which medication is associated with NAPQI? | Acetaminophen |
| What is the hallmark feature of acetaminophen toxicity? | Depletion of glutathione |
| Lab results demonstrate depletion of glutathione, it is safe to suspect what type of toxicity? | Acetaminophen toxicity |
| What is the relation between fatty acid synthesis and insulin? | The activity of fatty acid synthase is upregulated following a meal, with insulin acting as key activating signal |
| What is the deficit in Familial Hypercholesterolemia? | Mutation of the LDL receptor |
| Which part of the LDL receptor is usually the one that suffers the mutation leading to Familial hypercholesterolemia? | Cytoplasmic domain of the LDL receptor |
| What is the structural pathogenesis of Obstructive cardiomyopathy? | The left ventricular septum is asymmetrically thicker in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, leading to outflow tract obstruction and diastolic dysfunction |
| Is HCM associated with systolic or diastolic heart dysfunction? | Diastolic dysfunction |
| Why do medication the decrease heart rate are used in HCM? | They improve symptoms by allowing more time for diastolic filling, which lead to increased LEFT ventricular preload and decreases the degree of left ventricular outflow tract obstruction |
| Is LV preload increased or decreased in HCM treated with a agent that slows the HR? | Increased LV preload |
| How do corticosteroids exert their anti-inflammatory properties? | By inhibiting the production and function of T-lymphocytes |
| What is measured by Tumor Grading? | Amount of mitosis per unit |
| Which psychiatric condition is associated with both, negative and positive psychotic symptom? | Schizophrenia |
| What are some negative symptoms of psychosis? | Lack of affect, avulsion, apathy, and alogia |
| How are negative effects of schizophrenia demonstrated in a patient? | Poor hygiene and a flattened affection during the mental status examination |
| What is Rheumatoid arthritis? | Autoimmune disease characterized by joint destruction, pain, and upregulation of immunomodulatory cytokines |
| What is the result of complement activation in rheumatoid arthritis? | Consumption of complement proteins, resulting in decreased concentration within the synovial fluid |
| What is a common place to insert a Central venous catheter? | Internal jugular vein |
| What are some possible complications for placing a CVC? | Pneumothorax and hematoma or hemorrhage |
| What is the complication of a CVC insertion puncturing the lung? | Pneumothorax |
| What is the complication of a CVC insertion puncturing the Carotid artery? | Hematoma or hemorrhage |
| What is the Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome? | Autoimmune condition in which the presence of circulating antiphospholipid antibodies predisposes to venous and arterial thrombus |
| What is a common symptom of Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome in pregnant women? | Recurrent pregnancy loss |
| What is a possible immediate complication of a vasectomy? | Spermatozoa may leak into the surrounding interstitium |
| What is prevented by a TAP (Peptide transporter) mutation? | Presentation of foreign antigens on MHC-1 to CD8+ T-cells |
| How is the number of lymphocytes (WBC) affected by TAP mutations? | Unaffected |
| What enzyme is necessary for the formation of ROS in phagocytes? | NADPH |
| What is the role of NADPH in phagocytes? | Allows for the phagocyte's bactericidal activity |
| What caues Chronic Granulomatous dissease (CGD)? | Mutations in the proteins that make up the NADPH oxidase compled |
| What is the most typical and key symtpms of CGD? | Recurrent pyogenic bacterial infections |
| In which phase of cell replication does recombination take place? | Prophase I meosis |
| What happens durin Recombination in meiosis? | Two alles closely located on the same chromatid can be separated |
| What are the physcial consequences of nicotic acid supplementation? | Facial flushing secondary to increased protaglanding production |
| What can be used to avoid facial flusing caued by Nicotinic acid supplementation? | Aspirin pretreatment |
| Why is Aspirin used to prevent facial flushing caused by niacin? | It inhibits COX production of prostaglandins |
| Which location of CRC in the colon tends to preoduce less symtoms of bostruction? | Ascending colon |
| What are the most likely symtoms seen with CRC in hte asceding colon? | Chronicn, slow blood loss, which may manifest as progressive, graula-onst microcytic anemia |
| What is the main element of excitation-contraction coupling? | Calcium |
| What is Calsequestrin? | Buffered form of calcium of Sarcoplasmic reticulum |
| What is the next step in excitation-contraction of muscle right after calcium is released from SR? | Displacement of Tropomyosin and triggers sarcomere contraction through myosin and actin cross-bridging |
| What is a common complication of urinary tract malformations? | Vesicourethral reflux and urethral obstruction |
| What are some common Urinary tract malformations? | Duplex collecting system, ureteral stricture, ureteropelvic junction stenosis, or posterior urethral valves |
| Does prothrombin (factor II) have a short or long half life? | Long half-life |
| Which hepatic coagulative factors are reduced in synthesis by Warfarin? | Factors II, VII, IX, and X |
| How long after the effects of Warfarin are evident? | Until circulating prothrombin has been depleted |
| Why is it not uncommon to have unchanged PT/INR in patient started on Warfarin in the last 24 hours? | Warfarin effects will take effect until all prothrombin has been depleted |
| How is Leishmaniasis diagnosed histologically? | Visualization of amastigotes within macrophages |
| How is Leishmaniasis transmitted? | Bite of a sandfly |
| What are the most common type of manifestations of Leishmaniasis? | Both cutaneous and visceral symptoms |
| Which diseases is transmitted by a bite of a sandfly? | Leishmaniasis |
| Which bronchus is used to reach the lingula of the lung? | Left upper lobe bronchus |
| Which stage of sleep is characterized by increased total brain synaptic activity? | REM sleep |
| Which stage of sleep is characterized by an increase n cerebral blood flow, REM or non-REM sleep? | REM sleep |
| At which site do partial agonist act? | Same site as full agonists |
| What is the difference between a partial agonist and a full agonist? | Partial agonist has a decreased efficacy |
| The combination of a full agonist and partial agonist for the same site leads to: | Diminished receptor response |
| Which main artery's branches supplies the inferior thoracic esophagus? | Aorta |
| What is the arterial irrigation of the esophagus below the diaphragm? | Left gastric artery, a short gastric branch |
| Which receptor is regulated by Vasopressin (ADH)? | V2 receptors |
| WHich location does ADH work on? | V2 receptors in the collecting tubule |
| What is the role or function of Vasopressin? | Promotes the uptake of free water via aquaporins |
| Which pores or channels are used by ADH to collect free water in the collecting tubule? | Aquaporins |
| Which part of the collecting tubule is affected in Renal papillary necrosis? | Renal papillae |
| What are common triggers of Renal papillary necrosis? | Infections, DM, sickle cell disease, or NSAIDs |
| How is ADH functionality affected in Renal Papillary necrosis? | ADH unable to acti on the collecting ducts of the nephron |
| What is the process of V(D)J rearrangement? | Process that occurs in B lymphocytes in the bone marrow and in T-cells in the thymus resulting in the generation of new immunoglobulins and T-lymphocyte receptors, respectively |
| Why are T-cells applied a region-specific probe (J-region) and not B cells? | T-cell may circulate as either completely rearranged or unrearranged cells |
| What is the use for J-region in T-cells? | To demonstrate presence of a single J gene (1.5 Kb) or multiple J-genes (6Kb) |
| What does the presence of 6kb band indicate? | T-lymphocyte with an unarranged Ig gene |
| What are clinical features of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome? | Syndrome characterized by hamartomas polyps in the colon, and pigmented ulcers in the mouth, lips, hands, and genitalia |
| What is the mode of action of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome? | Autosomal dominant |
| What is another name for Paget disease of the bone? | Osteitis deformans |
| What is the pathogenesis of Paget disease of the bone? | Increased osteoclast activity during the lytic phase, followed by osteoblast activity during the blastic phase, resulting in the synthesis of sclerotic, woven bone |
| What are lab findis of Paget disease of the bone? | Increased serum alkaline phosphatase concentration with otherwise normal electrolyte concentrations |
| Which muscle group demonstrates clear weakness in Duchenne muscular Dystrophy? | Adductor muscle group of the lower limb |
| What is the main role of the leg's adductor muscle group? | Hip adduction |
| What is the origin of the adductor muscle group? | Ischium and inferior pubes |
| How does Praziquantel exerts its actions? | Alters parasite calcium homoeostasis through increasing membrane permeability |
| What does the increase inflow of calcium to the parasite cell cause? | Paralysis, dislodgement of the parasite position within host organs, and death of the parasite |
| Which electrolyte is the main factor in the function of Praziquantel? | Calcium |
| What enzyme helps the removal of acetyl groups from histones? | Histone deacetylase |
| What is the role of Histone acetyltransferase? | Addition of acetyl groups to histones |
| What is the importance of "acetylation" during gene transcription? | It resulting relaxation of the DNA-histone complex (euchromatin), which allows for gene transcription |
| What is the term given to the DNA-Histone complex? | Euchromatin |
| What are the main characteristics of COPD? | Airflow obstruction and hypoventilation |
| What is the ABG analysis of COPD? | Primary chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation |
| What is the role of Schwann cells? | Form the myelin sheath around axons |
| What is needed for Wallerian regeneration to occur effectively? | Schwann cells and myelin sheath create a pathway for the axon to regenerate |
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