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Treatment
Rehabilitation and reconditioning
Question | Answer |
---|---|
What does 'extension lag' mean? | Inability to fully extend the knee |
What is the best method of determining the recovery status of the hand and forearm after a flexor injury? | Hand dynamometer |
What is the correct sequence of tissue healing? | Cellular response, regeneration, remodeling |
What amount of time may it take for complete remodeling of tissues to occur after a soft tissue injury? | Up to a year |
Where is the primary location for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production in skeletal muscle? | Sarcomere |
Sensory receptors located at the musculotendinous junction, which monitor active tension generated by muscle during contraction, are called? | Golgi tendon organs |
What describes a neurapraxia? | Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to a conduction block. Heals in approx 1-2 weeks |
Bone grows via a process of apposition and resorption on its surface. Which of the following cells are responsible for the resorption of bone during its growth or repair? | Osteoclasts - reabsorb bone during growth |
Why is the repair response so limited in the articular cartilage of a joint after an injury in the adult ath? | Articular cartilage cells do not undergo mitosis in the mature ath |
Four sensations the ath experiences with cryotherapy? | Cold, burning, achy, numbness |
The effects of treating a subacute musculoskeletal injury with a warm whirlpool include? | Analgesia, stimulation of local circulation, decreased muscle spasm, decreased joint stiffness |
What cells become active after an injury to begin building collagen? | Fibroblasts |
External muscular force available for useful work is the result of _? | Depends on the velocity of muscle shortening, angle of the pull of muscle, and the length of the muscle |
Balance and coordination are critical for athletic performance. Feedback from the muscles as to what they are doing during a particular activity is know as _. The area of the brain that assists in controlling movement is _. | Propioception, cerebellum |
What stretching exercise consists of 'stretch and hold'? | Static stretch |
If hyperventilation does not adequately increase the oxygen supply in the blood during aerobic exercise, what must occur to meet the gas exchange demands? | Increased cardiac output |
Therapeutic mental process where an ath pictures them being evaluated, going through the rehabilitation process, and returning to sport. What type of therapeutic approach is this? | Visualization |
What would be the best response to an attention-seeking ath? | Set specific but reasonable time limits with the ath per treatment session so the AT does not become overtaxed |
If an ath needs to lose weight for health reasons, how many calories must his or her daily diet be reduced by in order to lost 1 - 2 lbs a week? | 500 - 1000 cal/day |
What modality is best utilized if the desired effect is decrease pain, edema, and inflammation? | Ice packs - cryotherapy |
What are heat-producing currents in the body that are formed by a magnetic field that is externally applied in short-wave diathermy? | Eddy currents |
Contraindications for using cryotherapy. | Raynaud's, vasculitis, cold urticaria |
What would be a functional skill for an ath in an ankle rehabilitation program? | Single leg hopping to assess readiness to play |
When rehabilitating a musculoskeletal injury, what is the proper progression of treatment? | ROM, strength, endurance, proprioception |
PNF stretching? | Increase ROM and flexibility. PNF increases ROM by increasing the length of the muscle and increasing neuromuscular efficiency. |
3 types of PNF stretching | Hold-relax, contract-relax, and hold-relax with agonist contraction. |
During a lower extremity D1 flexion PNF pattern, what movements are taking place at the hip? | Flexion, adduction, external rotation |
During a D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity, what is the proper timing sequence? | Shoulder extension, forearm pronation, finger flexion |
Maitland's five grades of joint motion | 1- small amplitude movement at the beginning of ROM 2 – large amplitude movement at within the ROM 3 – large amplitude movement that moves into stiffness or spasm 4 – small amplitude movement stretching into stiffness or spasm 5 - A high velocity |
According Maitland's 5 grade of joint motion, which grade is most appropriate when joint movement is limited by pain and spasm? | Grade 1 |
An ath is seen by the AT 4 wks post op shoulder arthroscopy. The AT found the ath has limited abduction secondary to capsular stiffness. What glides would be appropriate to improve this motion? | Inferior humeral glide |
What is isokinetic training? | Generation of a muscular force with visible joint movement that occurs at a constant speed but with variable external resistance |
Massage techniques of tapotement | Cupping, hacking, pinching |
When massage is utilized to induce a sedative effect, which type of massage technique is indicated? | Effleurage - deep stroking produces relaxation |
What is proprioception? | The awareness of posture, positioning, and movement as the limb is moved through space |
Running downhill requires what type of muscle contracture by the quads? | Eccentric stretching |
During the acute phase of an ankle injury, the water temperature of a whirlpool should be at what temperature? | 55-65 degree F |
What component of a rehabilitation program is most overlooked by an AT during rehabilitation? | Proprioception |
Immediately after knee surgery, what type of exercises may be safely initiated? | Isometric exercises |
What is isometric training? | No joint movement during muscular contraction |
What is isotonic training? | During joint movement, muscle shortens or lengthens as contraction occurs Concentric / eccentric |
When rehabing an ath with 'jumpers knee' what muscle group should eventually be strengthened? | Quadriceps |
When rehabing an ath with trochanteric bursitis, flexibility should be increase in which muscle? | Tensor fascia latae |
A running ath with a tight Achilles' tendon would cause _ or _ in order to allow the lower leg to move over the foot in running | Early heel-off, excessive pronation |
When rehabilitating a cervical strain, what must the AT maintain integrity of ? | Shoulder girdle - ROM and strength |
What is the proper sequence of rehabilitation in a grade 2 ankle sprain? | RICE, stretching Achilles' tendon, isometric exercises, proprioceptive exercises, isotonic exercises |
When is the best time to start a rehabilitation protocol? | Immediately |
What is DAPRE technique? | Daily adjustable progressive resistive exercise |
When following the DAPRE technique of progressive resistive exercise, the first set of 10 repetitions is performed with a weight that is _ of the weight will be lifted in set three | 50% |
When rehabing an ath with patellofemoral pain syndrome, which muscle groups should be strengthened? | Quadriceps, and hip adductors |
Which of the following exercises are appropriate in attempting to decrease the symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome? | Stretching the anterior chest wall, strengthening the posterior midthoracic area |
What are the most appropriate exercises for a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis? | Williams' flexion exercise |
When rehabbing a shoulder, in what area should strengthening exercises be initiated first? | Scapular musculature |
When rehabbing an ACL, what muscle groups should be strengthened to support the graft? | Hamstrings |
What is a closed chain exercise? | The hand/foot is fixed and in constant contact with surface (ground, base of machine) Squats, pushups |
What is a open chain exercise? | Where the hand or foot is free to move. Leg curls, bicep curls |
When rehabbing lateral epicondylitis, which muscle group needs to be strengthened? | Wrist extensors, once inflammation is under control |
When rehabbing an ath with a recent herniated lumbar disc, which of the following exercises are most appropriate? | McKenzie extension exercises |
How do you properly do a sit-up? | Cross arms across chest, tuck chin, bend knees, inhale, then exhale and pull the torso up toward knees |
Types of knee braces | Functional, prophylactice, rehabilitative |
Which type of knee brace should be worn for 1-2 wks after grad 2 MCL tear? | Rehabiliative |
Mechanical traction is indicated for..? | Degenerative joint disease, herniated discs, muscle spasm |
Muscle groups involved in bench press | Anterior deltoid, triceps, pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi |
Muscle groups involved in full weighted squat | Quadriceps, hamstrings erector spinae, gluteus maximus |
Muscle groups involved in seated military press | Trapezius, pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and triceps |
What describes a grade 3 joint mobilization technique? | Large amplitude movement throughout the full available ROM |
When rehabbing an ath it is important that the area is stressed with a variety of intensities and duration's during conditioning. The body responds to these stresses by adapting to the specific demands, what is this principal known as? | The SAID principal - specific, adaptation to imposed demands |
What is an example of an isotonic device? | Fixed resistance at a variable speed, free weights, total gym, squat rack, wall pulleys |
What is plyometric training? | Loading a muscle eccentrically prior to performing a powerful concentric contraction. Places muscle in fully stretched position just prior to a contraction-enhancing explosieness |
What exercise improves proprioceptive feedback when rehabbing a lower extremity injury? | Single leg standing on mini-trampoline or uneven surface |
What exercise should be avoided in the early stages (phase 1) of ACL reconstruction rehab? | Full knee extension exercises- creates to much shear force on tibia |
Two exercises that are designed to stabilized the lumbar spine during low back rehab include _and _ | Partial sit ups, active trunk extension in prone - strengthen the erector spinae muscles |
Ultrasound is based on the _ effect | Reverse piezoelectric effect |
What medium does not transmit ultrasound waves? | Air - must be transmitted through a coupling medium |
What is the term used in ultrasound to describe the time that sound waves are being emitted during one pulse period? | The duty cycle - time in which sound wave are being emitted during one pulse period |
'Conventional TENS' uses a frequency in the _ pulses per sec range with a phase duration of _ u seconds. | 50-100, 2 - 50 |
Paraffin bath is a great way of superficially heating the hands and feet. What tempt should the wax be kept at? | 126-130 degrees F |
Ultrasound waves are reflected by _ and absorbed by _ | Bone, muscle |
Contraindications of massage | Inflammation, hemorrhage, infection, and phlebitis |
What is diathermy used for? | Increase local circulation, reduce spasms, and decrease pain after a musculotendinous injury |
What type of ultrasound would be used on scar tissue? | Pulsed ultrasound |
Which physical law is applied with the used of an infrared lamp? | Inverse square law - intensity of radiation from light varies inversely to the square of the distance from the source |
_ and _ deliver medication via sound waves and electricity | Phonophoresis ana iontophoreses |
What is a primary indication for cervical traction? | Reduce muscle pain and spasm |
The at of a collegiate women's swimming and dive team suspects an ath to have a severe eating disorder. To which professional should the ath be referred? | Psychologist |
Male ath notices tingling sensation in his urethra followed by a discharge of greenish yellow pus, pain with urination. What sex transmitted disease do you think and what should he be referred to? | Gonorrhea - refer ath to physician |
What should you do if an ath has never had electrical stimulation before? | Teach them about the general principles of electric stim |
Proper breathing method for ath's in lifting? | Inhale deeply at the beginning of the lift, forcefully exhale at the end of the lift |
What should the AT do when teaching an ath how to properly use crutches? | Caution the ath not to lean on the crutches so that his or her weight is on the crutches' axillary pads |
'Training staleness' what should you do when you see an ath experiencing this | Assess the ath's training schedule and diet to make sure they are not overtraining and eating healthy. |
When rehabbing an ath with a wrist injury, the ligament has healed enough to go through active motion. It is important the ath exercise only.. | Through a pain free range |
What is Larsen-Johansson disease? And what exercise is not appropriate | An apophysistis at the inferior pole of the patella and has pain and swelling and point tenderness. Isotonic exercise is not appropriate - as it causes to much stress |
What is the proper way of making an ath aware of medications when self medicating | When to take the medication, and what foods/drugs not to mix with |
What is an appropriate response when discussing a catastrophic injury with an ath.? | Tell them it is OK to feel a variety motions and to openly express needs and concerns |
Heavy lifting workouts should be limited to what seasons of an ath's year long strength-training? | Offseason and preseason |
What is Scheuermanns's disease? | Degeneration of the vertebral epiphyseal endplates, can cause the vertebral disc to herniate. An increased kyphotic curve is seen with this condition |
What type of exercises are beneficial to and ath with Scheuermann's disease? | Extension and postural exercises |
An ath has a lumbar strain, what features should the ath improve in flexibility? | Hip flexor, lumbar paraspinals, hamstrings |
_ and _ are important qualities that an AT must possess when counseling an ath during a time of distress | Honesty and respect |
Pain occurring at a site distant to damaged tissue that does not follow the course of a peripheral nerve describes what pain? | Referred pain |
Contraindications to diathermy | Acute inflammation, joint effusion, pregnancy, and open wounds |
What occurs during a joint mobilization technique when a convex surface moves on a concave surface? | Roll and glide occur in opposite directions |
Contraindications to cervical traction | A positive vertebral artery test, a positive ALAR ligament test, increased radicular symptoms with treatment, nystagmus |
Manual technique in which an injured ath's muscles are actively contracted against a counterforce in a specific position? | Muscle energy techniques |
Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) normally occurs how long after strenuous exercise? | 24-72 hours after |
Physiologic adaptations of the respiratory system during aerobic endurance training include | Enhanced oxygen exchange within lungs, decreased sub maximal pulmonary ventilation, improved circulation through lungs |
Muscles involved in seated row | Latissimus dorsi, teres major, middle trapezius, pectoralis major |
Primary muscles involved in resisted wrist curl ( palms up ) | Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris |
What is responsible for relaying info regarding muscle dynamics to the conscious and subconscious parts of the CNS? | Proprioceptors |
What is the most effective motivator for compliance to rehab an injury | Goal setting |
What type of exercise can produce a spike in systolic BP and result in a potentially life threatening cardiac accident? | Isometric |
Example of muscle spindle activity? | Knee jerk reflex |
_ is when the length of a muscle prevents full ROM at the joint or joints over which the muscle crosses. | Passive insufficiency |
What positions should be avoided when rehabbing an ath who has posterior instability of the glenohumeral joint? | Internal rotation with horizontal adduction and flexion |
Upper extremity closed kinetic chain exercises are used primarily for strengthening and improving proprioception of _ | Muscles that stabilize the shoulder girdle. |
Hans Selye's phenomenon of the general adaptions syndrome (GAS) includes which three stages of stress response? | The alarm stage, resistance stage, exhaustion |
Tempt range of ice bath | 50-60 degrees F |
Most common electrode placement technique when treating an individual with 'brief intense' TENS | Stimulation point placement |
An ath has a sore spot on the back of the head. dark red, hard, later develops a lesion discharging yellowish-red pus. What type of infection? | Bacterial |
Herpes simplex labias is cause by what _ | Virus |
Pediculosis is | Lice |
Pediculosis is most efectively treated with | A parasiticide |
A puncture wound not properly treated could develop _ | A tetanus infection |
How quickly may skeletal muscle reverse if strength training is discontinued | 48 hours |
Circuit training if an effective training technique to improve _ and _ | Strength and flexibility |
Following medications that could predispose an ath to heat illness? | Decongestants, Antihistamines, diuretics, beta-adrenergic blockers |
During cardio training, how long will it take for an ath's heart rate to plateau? | 2-3 mins |
What is the efferent response to sensory info called? | Neuromusclular control |
What type of fracture fails to heal spontaneously within a normal time frame? | Nonunion |
Effects of thermal ultrasound | increase blood flow, secretion of chemotactics, reduction of muscle spasm, increased edema, muscular heating |
_ results in movement of ions into the body through the use of an electrical current | Iontophoresis |
_ is a method of massage that involves the lifting and kneading of the skin, subcutaneous, tissue, and muscle with the fingers or hand. | Petrissage |
Cardinal sign of inflammation | Loss of function |
Indications for use of a warm whirlpool | Cleaning large open wounds, relieving pain, increasing ROM, reflexation, |
Most common form of hyperthyroidism identified by tremors, weakness, difficulty in swallowing/speaking, and facial/eye tic is | Graves disease |
Labored or difficulty breathing | Dyspnea |