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Round 3 NMBE
FA review 3 2021
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| How does the exotoxin of V. cholerae work? | Constitutively activates Gs protein |
| Which "G" protein is activated by V. cholerae exotoxin? | Gs protien |
| Which pathogen causes disease by constitutively activation of Gs protein by an exotoxin? | V. cholerae |
| What is the range of microalbuminuria is seen early diabetic nephropathy? | 30 to 300 mg albumin/ 24 hour |
| How do ACE inhbiotors provide protection to the kidney of those with diabetes? | Reduce glomerular and intragloomerular pressure via dilation fo the EFFERENT arteriole |
| Which areteriole is most affected by ACE inhibitors dilation? | Efferent arteriole |
| What is the common presentation of Paget disease of the breast clinically? | Eczematous patch on the nipple, a serosanguinous nipple discharge, and unilateral solid mass |
| Which condition is often seen with a serosanguinous nipple discharge? | Breast disease of the breast |
| Which breast cancer is often preceded by Paget disease of the breast? | Ductal carcinoma |
| What are the histological findings of Breast ductal carcinoma? | Large cells with clear "halos" |
| What is a common treatment option of Central Diabetes Insipidus? | Arginine vasopressin |
| What is DDVAP? | Desmopressin |
| What are two ways of action of DDAVP? | 1. Treat of Central DI by supplying an ADH-like agent to concentrate urine 2. Release on Willebrand factor from endothelial cells, helping to aggregate platelets |
| What is a common type of opportunistic pneumonitis? | CMN pneumonitis |
| What is the most significant histological finding of CMV pneumonitis? | Large cells with intranuclear inclusion ("owl eyes") |
| What is the structure of CMV? | Enveloped double stranded-linear DNA virus |
| On which type of immunological cells does CMN remain latent? | Mononuclear cells |
| Which type of HIT is due to autoantibody attack? | HIT type II |
| Which type of HIT is associated with greater risk of vascular thromboses? | HIT type II |
| What are clinical features of 21B-hyodroxylase deficiency? | Virilization, hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia |
| Is 21B-hydroxylase deficiency associated with hypo- or hypernatremia? | Hyponatremia |
| Which adrenal insufficiency pathology is associated with: high androgens, low cortisol, low mineralocorticoids, and hyponatremia? | 21B-hydroxylase deficiency |
| What is the effect caused by mineralocorticoids in respect to renal functions? | 1. Increase renal Na+ reabsorption 2. Increase renal K+ secretion 3. Increase renal H+ secretion |
| What are warts? | Verrucous, hyperkeratotic papules and plaques, often on the hands and feet |
| What infectious pathogen causes Verruca Vulgaris? | Human Papilloma virus strains 1, 2, and 4 |
| What strain of HPV most often casus Verruca Vulgaris seen in the fingers? | HPV-2 |
| Example of a Thiazide diuretic? | Chlorthalidone |
| What type of diuretic is Chlorthalidone? | Thiazide diuretic |
| How does sensitivity and specific are affected by prevalence? | Not affected at all |
| What are common adverse of corticosteroids? | Cushingoid effects hypertension, hyperglycemia, immunosuppression, mood swings, and osteoporosis |
| Is hypertension or hypotension associated as adverse effect of corticosteroid therapy? | Hypertension |
| What type of anticancer is Etoposide? | Topoisomerase II inhibitor |
| What is a common Topoisomerase II inhibitor? | Etoposide |
| How does Etoposide work? | Topoisomerase II inhibitor that causes DNA strand breakage |
| What is type of immunosuppressant is Cyclosporine? | Calcineurin inhibitor |
| What is a common immunosuppressant used after organ transplant? | Cyclosporine |
| What is Sickle Cell disease? | Hemoglobinopathy that causes RBCs to become trapped in blood vessels, causing vessel occlusion, and present with Vaso-occlusive cries |
| Which hemoglobin pathology is seen with Vaso-occlusive crises? | Sickle Cell disease |
| What causes Sickle Cell disease? | Point mutation in the B-globin gene that changes the sixth amino acid |
| Glutamic acid ---> Valine. Dx? | Sickle Cell disease |
| Which amino acid position is mutated or changed in Sickle cell disease? | Sixth amino acid position |
| What type of mutation is causes Sickle cell disease? | Point mutation |
| Where does thiazide diuretics work on the nephron? | Distal Convoluted tubule |
| What is inhibited by Thiazide directs? | DCT inhibits Na-Cl cotransporter |
| What is Scoliosis? | Abnormal lateral curve of the spine |
| What is the best way to confirm the diagnosis of Scoliosis? | Standing radiograph |
| Which angle is measured in a standing x-ray to diagnose Scoliosis? | Cobb angle |
| How is Kaposi sarcoma physically manifested? | Purple papules and plaques and is often associated with AIDS |
| What condition is often the result of Herpesvirus type 8 infection in a patient with AIDS? | Kaposi sarcoma |
| What are some adverse effects of Acarbose? | Flatulence, diarrhea, and elevated transaminases |
| On which type of patients is Acarbose contraindicated? | Liver disease |
| What is the most common and significant manifestation of Pertussis? | Post-tussive vomiting |
| What agars can be used to grow B pertussis? | Bordet-Gengou agar or Reagan-Lowe agar |
| How is Melanocytic melanoma characterized? | Large, evolving, asymmetrical nevus with irregular borders and color variation |
| What type of defect causes Xeroderma pigmentosae? | Nucleotide excision repair |
| What does the correlation coefficient measure? | Strength and the direction of a linear relationship between two variables |
| What is the range of values of "r" that would indicate a strong statistical correlation? | 0.7-1.0 |
| How does infection by visceral larva migrans is clinically presented? | Pruritic skin, liver, and lung lesions as well as peripheral eosinophilia |
| Which type (genus) of roundworm is causes visceral larva migrans? | Toxocara |
| How does pulmonary hypoplasia develop in neonates with diaphragmatic hernia? | Due to impaired growth and inflation of the newborn's lungs as result of compressing from the herniated bowel |
| What are the most significant and severe consequences of a congenial diagrammatic hernia? | Dyspnea and cyanosis due to pulmonary hypoplasia, leading to death if not surgically corrected |
| What is a common symptom or action seen in a patient with PTSD? | Refusal to return to the place where the incident was experienced |
| What is prevented using ARBs? | Binding of AT II to its receptor |
| Is ATII level increase or decrease in a patient taking ARBs? | Increased |
| What is the common pathogen that cause Postinfectious GN in adult? | Staph aureus |
| What is the most common pathogen that causes PSGN in children? | Streptococcus pyogenes |
| What is an important and widely used immunosuppressant that is used to control GVHD but may be nephrotoxic? | Cyclosporine |
| What is the definition of Incidence? | Number of new cases in a given period divided by the number of people at risk of developing the disease |
| Which renal arteriole is most affected by NSAIDs? | Afferent arteriole |
| What is the effect of NSAIDs on renal arterioles? | Afferent arteriole vasodilation to maintain GFR |
| What is an effect of NSAID therapy on renal function tests? | May cause reversible increase in serum Creatine |
| What are the only two questions that may be asked regarding the Disabilities Act? | 1. Whether the dog is needed for a disability, and, 2. What tasks does the dog perform |
| Which Apoptotic pathway is associated with FasR activation? | Extrinsic pathway |
| Extrinsic or Intrinsic apoptotic pathway is associated with FasR? | Extrinsic pathway |
| What is activated by FasR activation? | Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis |
| In an RCT study, which group receives the intervention or new medication? | Experimental group |
| From which neve root does the Ilioinguinal nerve arises? | L1 |
| On top of which structure does the ilioinguinal nerve lie? | Spermatic cord |
| What areas of the body are supplied by the Ilioinguinal nerve? | Cutaneous sensation to the scrotum/labia and medial aspect of the thigh |
| What nerve may be suspected of injury if the patient presents loss of sensation or numbness of the scrotum and medial thing? | Ilioinguinal neve |
| How is Scabies clinically presented? | Pink, excoriated papules on the trunk, extremities, and genital associated with intense itching and worse by evenings |
| What is the first line of treatment for Scabies? | Permethrin |
| What is the MOA of Permethrin? | Inhibition of the sodium (Na+) current signals on the neuronal cells and delaying repolarization |
| Which part of the action potential is delayed using Permethrin? | Repolarization |
| Which ion channel is blocked in neuronal cells with the use of Permethrin? | Sodium current channels |
| What are the most common associated Paraneoplastic syndromes with RCC? | Polycythemia, hypercalcemia, and/or fever |
| What are the most characteristics of Primary Familial hypercholesterolemia? | Xanthomas on eyelids and the Achilles tendon |
| What is the inheritance mode of Familial hypercholesterolemia? | Autosomal dominant |
| What are the defective proteins leading to Primary Familial hypercholesterolemia? | Apolipoprotein B-100 or LDL cholesterol receptors |
| Which condition is due to Apo-B-100 deficiency? | Primary Familial hypercholesterolemia |
| Which condition is due to abnormal LDL receptors? | Primary Familial hypercholesterolemia |
| What are two risks of development due to Cryptorchidism? | Development of testicular germ cell cancers and reduced fertility |
| What are some cardiac structural and functional changes of Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? | LV hypertrophy, which increases oxygen demand and can cause chest pain. |
| What is an uncommon cause of early fetal decelerations? | Increased vagal tone because of uterine contractions exerting pressure of the fetal head |
| What cause the chest pain (syndrome) in patients with Sickle cell disease? | Abnormal sickled RBCs which can occlude small vessels |
| What is the most common abnormal heart sound associated with heart failure? | S3 |
| What type of drugs are the first line of treatment in patients with systolic heart failure? | ACE inhibitors |
| Which second messenger "G" pathway is interrupted by ACE inhibitors? | Gq |
| What is the result of Gq second messenger signaling pathway inhibition? | Decreased activity of phospholipase C in vascular smooth muscle |
| Which type of DI described with urine osmolarity not improving with water restriction or desmopressin? | Nephrogenic DI |
| What are common causes of Nephrogenic DI? | Lithium, hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, and interstitial kidney disease |
| Non-Hodgkin lymphoma associated with HTLV-1 | Adult T-cell leukemia |
| What is Adult T-cell leukemia? | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma associated with HTLV-1 |
| What is the featured blood smear fining of Adult T-cell leukemia? | "Clover leaf" cells with larger hyper lobed nuclei. |
| What are findings of histologic examination of tubular adenomas? | Mostly adenomatous epithelium arranged in glandlike structures |
| What is exhibited by the cells of Tubular adenomas? | Hyperchromatic nuclei and stratification at places |
| What is found in stool sample of a patient with Amoebic dysentery? | Trophozoites with ingested RBCs |
| What vitamin deficiency may be seen with Isoniazid monotherapy against TB? | Vitamin B6 |
| What is a severe adverse effect of Isoniazid monotherapy? | Vitamin B6 deficiency with neuropathy |
| How is Isoniazid's resistance often acquired? | Selection of mutant strains that under express KatG |
| What enzyme participates in development of INH resistance? | KatG |
| What is encoded by KatG? | Catalase peroxidases taht are necessary to activate isoniazid |
| What is the most common cause of RAS in young women? | Fibromuscular changes to the renal artery impairing perfusion to the kidney |
| What is a common cause of new-onset hypertension in an otherwise healthy young woman? | RAS due to fibromuscular changes of the renal artery |
| What is the most likely diagnosis of mases in the wall of the uterus in premenopausal women with menorrhagia? | Uterine fibroids |
| What are Leiomyomas (uterine fibroids)? | Estrogen-sensitive benign tumors of the smooth muscle that classically present witan asymmetrically enlarged uterus and tend to enlarge during the reproductive years and during pregnancy |
| How is the pneumonia caused by C. psittaci featured? | Abrupt onset of symptoms and unilateral lower lobe infiltrate |
| When is Abruptio Placentae suspected? | Obstetric patients with painful vaginal bleeding in the third trimester |
| What is C. albicans? | Common yeast and common opportunistic infection that may cause vulvovaginitis |
| What are symptoms of C. albicans vaginitis? | Vaginal itching and white, curd-like discharge |
| What is often caused by C. albicans infection in a n immunocompromised patient? | Esophagitis |
| Which small vessel vasculitis is p-ANCA (+)? | Allergic (eosinophilic) granulomatosis with polyangiitis |
| What are the associated karyotypes of a Complete Mole? | 46XX and 46XY |
| What are some risk factors leading to Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis? | HIV, injectable drug use, heroin use, morbid obesity, and lupus |
| What is the most common abnormality leading to nephrotic syndrome massive proteinuria? | Abnormally GBM structure, particularly loss of heparan sulfate proteoglycans |
| Which proteins are the main ones to be lost/mutated in the development of proteinuria seen in Nephrotic syndrome? | Heparan sulfate proteoglycans |
| What are the most common associated conditions leading to erythroderma? | Malignancy, an inflammatory disorder, or a new medication |
| What are some common symptoms of C. immitis infection? | Dyspnea, cough, fever, unintentional weight loss, night sweats, and joint pain. |
| What pathogen is known to cause Pseudomembranous colitis? | C. difficile |
| What cells are predominant in N. gonorrhea infection? | Polymorphonuclear cells |
| What are Polymorphonuclear cells? | Cellular mediators of acute inflammation that have multi-lobular and azurophilic nuclei |
| What are the first line of treatment medication of C. difficile infection? | Oral vancomycin or Fidaxomicin |
| MOA of Vancomycin: | Inhibit cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis |
| What C. trachomatis serotypes cause LGV? | L1-L3 |
| How is LGV clinically presented? | Self-limited, painless genital ulcer that can progress to ulcerated tender lymphadenopathy (buboes) after 4-6 weeks |
Created by:
rakomi
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