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med emergencies

final exam

QuestionAnswer
dose for epi 1:1,000 for anaphylactic shock for pedi 0.01mg/kg up to 0.3mg IM
mechanism of albuterol b agonist with preference for B2
indications for albuterol bronchospasm, allergies/anaphylaxis, hyperkalemia
dose for albuterol adult: 2.5mg/3ml via SVN repeat every 15-20 minutes pedi: 1.25-2.5mg/1.5-3ml via SVN repeat every 15-20 minutes
dexamethasone mechanism synthetic glucocorticoid, anti-inflammatory suppresses immune system
indications for dexamethasone bronchial asthma, COPD, anaphylaxis
side effects for dexamethasone fluid retention (swelling in peripheral), may delay wound healing
dose for dexamethasone adult: 10mg IV/IO/PO pedi: 0.6mg/kg up to a max of 10mg IV/IO/PO
mechanism of epinephrine 1:1,000 potent a and b agonist
indications for epinephrine 1:1,000 bronchospasms, allergies/anaphylaxis
dose for epinephrine 1:1,000 adult and pedi: 0.01mg/kg IM max of 0.3mg
mechanisms for ipratropium anticholinergic, selectively blocks muscarinic receptors
indications for ipratropium bronchospasms associated with COPD
ipratropium dose adult: 500mcg/2.5ml pedi: 250-500mcg/1.25-2.5ml
mechanism of action for magnesium sulfate calcium channel blocker
contraindications for magnesium sulfate heart block, shock, dialysis, hypocalcemia, vfib/vtach pulseless
magnesium sulfate dose adult: 1-2 grams IV/IO over 10-20 minutes (infusion) for bronchodilation pedi: 25-50mg/kg IV/IO (max of 2 grams) over 15-30 minutes (infusion for bronchodilation
class for amiodarone antidysrhythmic
indications for amiodarone VFib/Vtach
dose for amiodarone for an adult VF/pulseless VT: 1st dose 300mg IV bolus, 2nd dose 150mg after 3-5 minutes Stable VT with pulse: 150mg over 10 minutes
mechanism for amiodarone blocks sodium and potassium channels to delay repolarization
classification for narcan opiate antagonist
dose for narcan adult: 0.4mg-2mg IV/IN/IO/IM pedi: 0.1mg/kg up to 2mg IV/IN/IO/IM
mechanism for racemic epi nonselective b sympathetic agonist
indications for racemic epi croup
dose for racemic epi adult & pedi: 0.25-0.75ml of 2.25% solution diluted in 3ml of NS
class for solumedrol synthetic glucocorticoid, anti inflammatory suppresses immune response
indications for solumedrol bronchial asthma, COPD, and anaphylaxis
dose for solumedrol adult: 125-250mg IV/IO pedi: 2mg/kg IV/IO to a max of 60mg
class for terbutaline (brethine) b agonist - causes relaxation of bronchospasm, does not exert as much cardiovascular side effects as epi
indications for terbutaline (brethine) bronchial asthma, emphysema, bronchitis, preterm labor
contraindications for terbutaline (brethine) under 12 years old
dose for terbutaline (brethine) 0.25mg IM
class for albuterol sympathomimetic
mechanism for albuterol beta 2 agonist
indications for albuterol bronchospasms in COPD and asthma
dose for albuterol 2.5mg in 3ml SVN
what are the antigens, antibodies and acceptable donor for Type A blood? Antigen A, Anti-B, Blood donor A and O
what are the antigens, antibodies and acceptable donor for Type B blood? Antigen B, Anti-A, Blood donor B and O
what are the antigens, antibodies and acceptable donor for Type AB? antigen A and B, Anti - None, blood donor A, B, AB and O
what are the antigens, antibodies and acceptable donor for Type O? antigen none, Anti - A and B, blood donor O
what is the pathophysiology of pneumonia? infection causes inflammation of lungs
is pneumonia contagious? if caused by bacteria, yes, if caused by virus or fungi, no
what are the symptoms of pneumonia? productive cough, fever, chills, colored sputum, respiratory distress and possible chest pain
how is pneumonia transmitted? via droplets from cough or sneeze
what represents hypotension in a child? 70 + 2 x age
what type of lung sounds would you hear in pneumonia? bronchial/crackles
what is ventilation? moving air in and out of lungs
what is respiration? gas exchange from the living organism and environment
what is perfusion? O2 and nutrients getting to destination cells and tissues
what is oxygenation? transposition of CO2 from blood to alveolus
what does hemoglobin have more affinity to? CO2
what are intrinsic factors? diseases inside body
what are extrinsic factors? caused by environment
what are internal factors? anything that prevents O2 from entering blood and CO2 from exiting
what is intrapulmonary shunting? pneumonia, COPD and pulmonary edema prevent gas exchange in the alveoli
what is pneumothorax? collapsed lung
what is egophony? when auscultating patient, ask them to say a long "e", instead, you hear an "a"
what is the pediatric dose for amiodarone ? 5mg/kg IV/IO over 20-60 minutes
what is the pedi dose for dexamethasone for allergic reactions? 0.6mg/kg
what is peripheral vascular resistance? the resistance of blood throughout all vessels
what is cardiac output? the amount of blood pumped out of heart in one minute
what is the formula for cardiac output? stroke volume x heart rate
what is stroke volume? amount of blood ejected from left ventricle with each contraction
what is the narrowest part of airway for a child? cricoid
where is the cricoid? beneath thyroid cartilage
what is the pharynx? muscular tube from back of soft palate to esophagus
what is the larynx? joins pharynx with trachea and separates upper and lower airways
what is septum? separates right and left nasal cavities
can you reuse AED pads? no
what is ARDS? acute respiratory distress syndrome prevents gas exchange in the lungs and is deadly
what is the dose for dextrose in a pedi? 2-4ml's of D25
dose for epinephrine 1:10,000 for pedi? 0.01mg/kg or 0.1ml/kg
what is the hypotension threshold for an infant? less than 70 systolic
what is the pedi dose for atropine? 0.1mg IVP
what is hemoglobin referred to when carrying CO2? carboxyhemoglobin
what is the highest allowable joule for cardioversion of a pedi? 2 j/kg
what is croup? swelling of upper airways caused by viral infection
what is the characteristic of croup? barking seal cough and stridor lung sounds
what is the treatment for croup? change of environement/temperature and racemic epinephrine 0.25-0.75ml of 2.25% solution
what is considered hypoglycemia in a neonate? anything less than 45mg/dL
what is mallory weiss syndrome? tear in junction between stomach and esophagus
what is rales lung sound? slurping your drink or shoveling rock lung sounds characterized by fluid in smaller airways
at what age do you switch from pedi to adult defib pad? 1 yo/10 kg
what is battle signs? bruising behind ear for possible basal fracture. It is on the mastoid process/temporal bone
epi infusion for anaphylaxis dose 0.1-1mcg/kg/min
what is the correct joul setting for pedi defibrillation? 4j/kg
what is the dose for diphenhydramine? 25-50mg
what is considered a normal QRS duration in pedi? less than 0.09 seconds
what type of shock is involved with septic shock? distributive
what class is diltiazem? calcium channel blocker
what is treatment for overdose of diltiazem? calcium chloride
indications for magnesium sulfate torsade de pointes, asthma, hypertensive during pregnancy
what is the maximum suction pressure for an infant? 100mmHg
what is arteriosclerosis? thickening, loss of elasticity, and hardening of walls of the arteries from calcium deposits
what is artheriosclerosis? progressive degenerative disease of the midsize and large arteries
what is the dose for procainamide for a patient in vtach with a pulse? 20-50mg/min IV
what valves are open during diastole? tricuspid and mitral to allow filling of blood
what valves are open during systole? pulmonic and aortic valve to allow blood ejection
what are the atrioventricular valves? valves between atria and ventricle, tricuspid and bicuspid valves
what are the semilunar valves? valves between ventricles and outside the heart, pulmonic and aorta valve
what is the dose for calcium chloride? 0.5-1 gram slow IV over 3-5 minutes
what is the dose for calcium chloride for hypotension after diltiazem? 250-500mg
what is the inner layer of the heart? endocardium
what is the middle layer of the heart? myocardium
what is the outer layer of the heart? epicardium
what part of the heart does left anterior descending artery feed? LADA (4 letters) feeds V1-V4
what happens in the ascending loop of henle? sodium, potassium and chloride is reabsorbed back into blood and pumped out into renal medulla
what part of the heart does LCX feed? aVL, I, V5 and V6 (1+5+6=12; L is the 12th letter of the alphabet)
what is inotropy? cardiac contractile force
what is nosocomial infection? infection acquired in a medical setting
what part of the heart does RCA feed? RIP feeds inferior because RCA rests inferior posterior of the heart
where is angiotensin manufactured and secreted from? liver
what are the adrenergic receptors? alpha and beta receptors
what is indicated for SVT? adenosine
what are the receptors for the parasympathetic system? muscarinic and nicotinic
what is the neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic system? acethylcholine
what allows blood to bypass the pulmonary system in a fetus? foramen ovale
what is the most prevalent intracellular ion? potassium
what is the most prevalent extracellular ion? sodium
what are nephrolithiasis? kidney stones
what is stroke volume? blood ejected with each beat
what 3 factors play a role in stroke volume? contractility, preload and afterload
what is the dose for atropine for an organophosphate poisoning? 2-5mg IV
what is the correct dose for amiodarone slow infusion? 1mg/min over 6 hours
what does a parasympatholytic drug do? inhibits the parasympathetic system
what is the dose for lidocaine for cardiac arrest? 1-1.5mg/kg IVP
what is supine hypotension syndrome? when mom is laying supine, the baby puts pressure on inferior vena cava not allowing blood to return to heart
what causes depolarization in autorhythmic cells? sodium
what is the dose for diltiazem? 15-20mg IV
what are signs and symptoms for pyloric stenosis? projectile vomiting, unable to gain weight, always hungry and upset. Food is stuck and every time baby eats he regurgitates milk
what cranial nerve could produce deviation f the patient's tongue? 12 - hypoglossal is motor for all muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus
what is ejection fracture? 2/3 of blood left in ventricle at the end of systole
what is the formula for blood pressure? cardiac output x systemic vascular resistance or (stroke volume x heart rate) x systemic vascular resistance
what are erythrocytes? hormone that matures red blood cells
where are erythrocytes produced? kidneys
what is erythropoietin? hormone produced by kidneys to produce more red blood cells aka erythrocytes
what is the Einthoven's triangle? leads I, II and III
what delivery should never be attempted in the field? limb presentation
what is inotropy? contraction of heart
what is dromotropy? speed of electricity
what is chromotropy? the heart rate, how fast the heart beats
how does an autorhythmic cell depolarize? calcium
how does autorhythmic cell repolarize? potassium
how does myocardial contractile cell depolarize? sodium
how does myocardial contractile cell repolarize? potassium
what does prolonged PRI indicate? delay in AV node
what covers the lungs? visceral pleura that does not contain nerves
what is action potential for autorhythmic cell? -40
when is pregnancy considered full term? 38 weeks
what is the most common cause for upper GI hemorrhage? peptic ulcers
what is atrial kick? atrial systole before ventricular contraction, it boosts cardiac output
what can lose our atrial kick? atrial fibrillation
what does sodium do to the heart? depolarizes the myocardium
what does calcium do to the heart? it causes depolarization and contraction in the myocardium
what does potassium do to the heart? it causes repolarization
what does p wave represent? atrial depolarization
Lead I right arm negative, left arm positive
Lead II right arm negative, left leg positive
Lead III left arm negative, left leg positive
how do you calculate minute volume? respiratory rate x tidal volume
how do you calculate alveolar minute volume? tidal volume minus minus dead space volume x respiratory rate
what is acute coronary syndrome? coronary artery disease such as ischemia, injury and infarction
what is the connection point between arterial and venous systems? capillaries
what is the first phase of menstrual cycle? menstrual phase
what represents ischemia in ECG? inverted p waves, ST depression and hyperacute T waves
what is the respiratory drive for a person? hypercarbic drive
what is the respiratory drive for a person with COPD? hypoxic drive
what represents injury in an ECG? ST elevation
signs and symptoms of epiglottitis high fever, drooling, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), saliva, stridor, hoarseness, difficulty breathing and cyanosis
what does 02 attach to? hemoglobin
what happens with oxygen on right shift? hemoglobin more readily releases oxygen
What on an ECG usually represents the presence of an old MI? pathological Q waves and ST elevation
what consists of the visceral and parietal layer? pericardium
what does dysrhythmia mean? abnormal rhythm
After blood circulates through the lungs and becomes oxygenated, it returns to the heart by way of the: pulmonary veins
The period of time from the end of one cardiac contraction to the end of the next is called the cardiac: cycle
The three types of ECG leads include: augmented, bipolar and precordial
Leads designated aVR, aVL, and aVF are known as __________ leads. Leads designated aVR, aVL, and aVF are known as __________ leads. augmented
what separates the ventricles? interventricular septum
The QRS complex reflects ventricular depolarization
The term “collateral circulation” refers to An alternative path for blood flow in case of blockage
The cardiovascular system’s two major components are the heart and: peripheral blood vessels
Which of the following is considered the most abundant circulating antibody in the human body? IgG
what are the signs of left hearted failure? fluid back up into lungs causing rales, dyspnea and tachypnea
what are the signs of right hearted failure? fluid backs up into body
what is type I diabetes? autoimmune disease where immune system attacks beta cells in pancreas in isles of langerhans
what are the 3 p's for diabetes? polydipsia (drinking too much water), polyuria (peeing alot), and polyphasia
how do you calculate an ET tube for a child? 16 + age / 4
Pressure in the filled ventricle at the end of diastole is called: preload
what are ventricular escape rhythms? safety mechanisms that should not be suppressed to prevent cardiac standstill
what medications would be indicated for a pediatric patient that is found bradycardia? epi 1:10,000 0.01mg/kg
what are the 4 functions of the skin? water balance, temperature regulation, protection and sensory
A single monitoring lead can indicate: rate of heartbeat, regularity of heartbeat, time it takes to conduct impulse through various parts of the heart
What is considered the most common ECG rhythm to find in a pediatric patient that is in cardiac arrest? asystole
under what control are the skeletal muscles? somatic/voluntary
what are the skeletal muscles responsible for? swallowing, maintenance of posture, facial expressions, tongue movement and swallowing
The interval of time in the cardiac cycle when a sufficiently strong stimulus may produce depolarization is called the ______ refractory period. relative
Dysrhythmias that originate in the SA node include: sinus tachycardia
Time interval markings on ECG paper are placed at ______-second intervals. 3
Why is a right sided heart attack a contraindication for the administration of NTG? causes a significant decrease in preload
what are the joules for cardioversion on pedi? 1j/kg up to 2j/kg
what are the joules for defibrillation for pedi? 2j/kg up to 4j/kg
When would you apply Sgarbossa Criteria to a 12 lead ECG? LBBB and pace maker
what are the rules for suctioning a pedi? set less than 100mmHg for infants, avoid excessive suctioning less than 10 seconds, avoid stimulation of vagus nerve which may produce bradycardia
How does the heart receive its own blood supply and when does this occur? through coronary arteries during diastole
what is external respirations/pulmonary respiration? gas exchange in the lungs, gas exchange between blood and alveoli
what is internal respiration/cellular respiration? cells of tissues receive O2 and expel CO2 in bloodstream for removal, gas exchange between blood and cells
what is cellular respiration? cells of tissue receiving O2 and expelling CO2 into bloodstream for removal
What type of patient presentation would prompt us to consider using transcutaneous pacing? unstable bradycardia
what would you do for complete foreign body airway obstruction? CPR
What is considered the most abundant white blood cell in the human body? neutrophils
The correct dose of Benadryl to be administered to a patient suffering from a suspected allergic reaction is 25mg
What is pericarditis? inflammation of the pericardial sac, layer that surrounds the heart
how can you identify pericarditis on an ECG? spodicks sign or downsloping of the TP segment on an ECG
what is the resting potential for a myocardial cell? -90
what is the action potential for a myocardial cell? -85
what causes depolarization? sodium influx
what causes repolarization? potassium efflux
where does spinal cord end? L2
how many cervical bones do you have? 7 (neck)
how many thoracic bones do you have? 12 (upper back)
how many lumbar bones do you have? 5 (lower back)
how many sacral bones do you have? 1
how many coccygeal bones do you have? 1
what nervous system does parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system fall under? autonomic nervous system
what nervous system does the autonomic nervous system fall under? peripheral nervous system
contraindications for nitroglycerin right heart side MI, heart rate over 100 or under 50, blood pressure less than 90 and Vtach
what are two branches of the autonomic nervous system? parasympathetic and sympathetic system
What are the four parts of a neuron? dendrites, soma, axons and synaptic terminals
The presence of J waves on a 12-lead ECG with a patient who is not hypothermic is usually associated with: benign early repolarization (BER)
what is the action potential for a neuron? -55
what is the resting potential for a neuron? -70
what are signs and symptoms for right sided heart failure? ascites (swelling in abdomen), pitting peripheral edema and JVD
whats the classification for haloperidol? psychosis
what is the dose for haloperidol? 2-10mg IM/PO
what matures t cells? thymus
How does the conduction of an impulse travel down an unmyelinated versus myelinated axon of a neuron? conduction travels 30x faster on an myelinated axon due to saltatory conduction
signs and symptoms for anorexia nervosa? weight loss, refusal to maintain body weight, cessation of menstruation from severe malnutrition
what does LEMON stand for? L - look externally, E - evaluate 3-3-2, M - mallampati, O - obstructions, N - neck mobility
What is the main neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic nervous system ach
You are treating a patient you suspect may be suffering from septic shock. You should consider fluid and pressor therapy to maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of: above 60mmHg
What is class 1 for mallampati classification? full visualization of uvula
What is class 2 for mallampati classification? partial visualization of uvula but hitting tip
What is class 3 for mallampati classification? partial visualization of uvula, only half of uvula is visual
What is class 4 for mallampati classification? no visualization
In which of the following situations is hemolytic disease of the newborn most likely to occur? an Rh negative mother delivers a second Rh positive newborn
What are the different bones of the skull? cranium and face
what would you most likely find in a patient with a hematological disease resulting in production of high numbers of abdnormal red blood cells? splenomegaly (enlarged spleen)
what are normal glucose levels? 80-120
what is hyperglycemia? over 140mg/dL
what is hypoglycemic? less than 70mg/dL
How many bones make up the spine? 24
Which of the following medications would be most useful in the event of a transfusion reaction? diphenhydramine
what is polyuria? peeing a lot and frequent
what is polydipsia? increased thirst
what is polyphagia ? increased appetite
what are the 3 p's in hyperglycemia? polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia
what type of respirations will type 1 diabetes be associated with? Kussmaul's respirations
`what entails the cervical vertebrae C1-C7
what entails the thoracic vertebrae? T1-T12
what entails the lumbar vertebrae? L1-L5
The more acidic the blood is, the more readily hemoglobin: releases oxygen
when do we treat hyperglycemia? greater than 300mg/dL
what is the pathway that starts the clotting process when tissues are damaged? extrinsic pathway
signs and symptoms for grave's disease goiter (enlarged neck), exophthalmos (bulging of eyes)
what is grave's disease? autoimmune disease that leads to overactivity of the entire thyroid gland, causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
how can you control HR? beta blockers
What purpose does Cerebral Spinal Fluid provide to the body? Important in nutrition and immune function as well as protects the brain and spinal cord from injury by cushioning it
signs and symptoms for cushing's sydrome round (moon) face, weight gain in upper body, small legs, buffalo hump and purple striae
what is addison's disease? body does not produce enough cortisol and/or aldosterone and cannot handle stress very well
what can cause liquefaction necrosis? alkalis
what is humoral immunity? when you've previously been exposed to allergen and uses antibodies to protect body
what is innate/cellular/nonspecific immunity? never been exposed to antigen
what are the 1st line of defense for the immune system? skin, mucus membranes and stomach acid
what is somatoform disorder? patient believes they are sick and not even physician can convince them otherwise
what is conversion disorder? patient has an actual physical problem but no identifiable cause
what is factitious disorder/munchausen syndrome? where patient fakes symptoms and signs
what is munchausen syndrome by proxy? parent makes child sick to get attention
what are the different parts of the brain? cerebrum, cerebellum and brain stem
what is miosis? constriction of pupils
if a patient has miosis, what type of treatment would you provide? naloxone
what is the reflex arc? connects sensory impulses to muscle contractions
what is decorticate posturing? arms flexed, fists clenched and legs extended
what is decerebrate posturing? stiff and extended extremities with retracted head (arms and legs extended)
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of activated charcoal? adsorbs toxins in the stomach
what is cushing's triad? high blood pressure, low heart rate and irregular breathing
what are 2 types of strokes? ischemic and hemorrhage
what are generalized seizures? involve both hemispheres of the brain
what is the tonic stage of a seizure? tense, contracted muscles
what is clonic stage? rhythmic jerking movements of extremities
what is postictal stage? gradual return to consciousness
what is an absence seizure? generalized but no obvious convulsions
what is status epilepticus? uninterrupted tonic clonic seizures lasting more than 30 seconds or two or more tonic clonic seizures
when is chronic renal failure diagnosed? when 70 percent of the nephrons are lost and the patient is clinically unstable.
what is the Hering-Breuer reflex? during inspiration, lungs become distended, activating stretch receptors and prevent overexpansion of lungs
what chemistry findings would suggest acute renal failure elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
what three things make up the CPSS? facial droop, arm drift and speech
presence of gallstones in a patient's gallbladder is known as cholelithiasis
What is considered the most important piece of information that you need to obtain about a patient that is presenting with a possible stroke? when symptoms began
A bowel obstruction that is caused when a portion of the small intestine twists around itself is: intestinal volvulus
what does aldosterone do? reabsorbs sodium and increases secretion of potassium
where is aldosterone produced? adrenal cortex in the kidneys
what does the middle layer of the adrenal cortex produce? glucocorticoids in response to stress
what does cortisol do? stimulates the body energy production
what does the inner layer of the adrenal cortex produce? sex hormones estrogen and testosterone
what does the adrenal medulla produce? epinephrine and norepinephrine
what is catecholamine? epi and norepi collectively and aid in the fight or flight response
what is the treatment for hyperkalemia? 1g of calcium chloride
what is addison disease? deficiency in cortisol production
what is cushing syndrome? excess of cortisol production
What medication can be administered in the hospital for a patient that has been diagnosed with an ischemic stroke? fibrinolytics
afferent fibers transmit impulses from and to where? afferent fibers are sensory nerves that transmit impulses from central nervous system to body
efferent fibers transmit impulses from and to where? efferent fibers are motor nerves that transmit impulses from central nervous system to the muscles of the body
what is a grand mal seizure? tonic clonic seizure
what is a petit mal seizure? absence seizure
what happens during petit mal seizure/absence seizure? complete lack of movement and patient does not realize what happened
Anaphylaxis is categorized as what type of shock? distributive
what is a simple partial seizure? one area of the body will begin moving or one area will lose feeling
what is a complex partial seizure? simple partial seizure symptoms including hallucinations or change in level of consciousness and will remember incident
cushing's syndrome is a disorder of what? adrenal glands
The initial exposure of an individual to an antigen is referred to as what? sensitization
what is the characteristic of synchronized cardioversion? it is timed to be synchronous with the patient's R wave
why is diphenhydramine administered in anaphylaxis? reduces histamine release from mast cells and basophils, blocks histamine receptors and is nonselective
what is the most common for upper hemorrhage? peptic ulcers
what separates lower and upper GI tract? ligament of treitz
what enzyme is found in saliva? amylase
what is the pyloric sphincter? connects stomach to duodenum
what is diverticulitis? inflamed pouches in the large intestine due to infection caused by trapped fecal matter
signs and symptoms of diverticulitis LLQ pain, fever, vomiting and malaise
what is the main function of the small intestine? absorb nutrients
where is bile created? liver
what does bile do? helps breakdown fats
what is intussusception? large intestine telescopes over itself
where is bile stored? pancreas
what is volvus? twisting of colon that causes kink where fecal matter cannot pass
where do obstructions commonly happen in the small intestine? ileum due to being the longest
what medication can you administer for seizures? midazolam or diazepam
what are the main functions of the renal system? maintain blood volume with proper pH, retain glucose and excrete urea
what is the function of the kidneys and nephron? filter blood and form urine
how do uterers carry urine from kidneys? by peristalsis
what is the functional unit of the kidney? nephron
what are antibodies? proteins that search for antigen, combine with it and destroy it
How does a benzodiazepine stop seizures? they bind to GABA receptors which slows or calms the nervous system
An allergen's most common route of entry in an anaphylactic reaction is: injection
what does QRS represent? ventricular depolarization
what does T wave represent? ventricular repolarization
What are the four different types of headaches? thunderclap, migraine, cluster and tension
cell immunity generates what? t lymphocytes
what type of complications does levothyroxine cause? afib with rvr, hypotension and seizures
what is the most common type of headache tension
what headache is known as vascular headache? migraine
A patient with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation is at an increased risk for what type of stroke? embolic
how does the parasympathetic nervous system control the heart? through the vagus nerve
what happens when parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated? bradycardia
what happens when sympathetic nervous system is stimulated? it increases heart rate, contractility, conduction and cardiac output
what monitors pressure? Jg cells
what cranial nerve affects bell's palsy? 7
what is bell's palsy? drooping, weakness or paralysis on one side of the face due to damage to cranial nerve 7
What is considered the most common type of MI? inferior
what do liver cells convert ammonia to? urea
What is Trigeminal Neuralgia? sharp stabbing pain radiating from jaw
what are examples of narcotics (opiates)? heroin, morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl and hydromorphone
what is prinzmetal angina? sudden onset of chest pain or pressure often while at rest
what cranial nerve is responsible for trigeminal neuralgia? 5
what ECG rhythms presents with a "saw-tooth" pattern a flutter
what is manufactured in the islets of langerhans? hormones such as insulin, glucagon and somatostatin
what does insulin do? facilitates the movement of glucagon in the blood to the liver to store in glycogen and create energy for cells
what does glucagon do? stimulates liver to convert glycogen back to glucose during times of fasting or inadequate food consumption
What is Muscular Dystrophy? hereditary disorder characterized by progressive muscle weakness and wasting of muscle tissue and gradual degeneration of muscle fibers
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is found in what type of diabetic? type 1
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) is found in what type of diabetic? type 2
what is osmotic diuresis? kidneys begin to secrete sugar in urine
what does polyuria mean? large amount of urine
what are ketones? can be excreted via exhalation or urine, have a fruity smell, happens when DKA patient's cells turn fat into fuel instead of glucose
what is the difference between DKA and HHS? HHS lacks ketones
What is Multiple Sclerosis? autoimmune disorder of the central nervous system
what is the pathophysiology for multiple sclerosis? repeated inflammation of the myelin sheath surrounding nerves leads to scar tissues blocking nerve impulses
what does polydipsia mean? excessive thirst
what does polyuria mean? frequent urination
what are the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia? polydipsia, vomiting, polyuria, hot and dry skin, Kussmaul respirations and full, bounding pulses
signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia extreme hunger, rapid onset, cool, pale and diaphoretic skin, weak and thready pulse
What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome? autoimmune response to viral infection characterized by muscle weakness that leads to paralysis
What is considered the most lethal type of MI? anterior
What is Parkinson’s Disease? degenerative nervous disease characterized by tremors, muscular weakness and rigidity
A low level of what is the main cause of Parkinson’s Disease? dopamine
If the stroke volume decreased, which would occur to maintain the blood pressure at its current value? Increased heart rate and increased peripheral vascular resistance
Which of the following is the purpose of lung surfactant? Decrease the surface tension of water in the alveoli
The dorsal roots of the spinal cord contain afferent fibers that transmit impulses from ________ to ________. Sensory nerves, central nervous system
Cushing's syndrome is a disorder of the: Adrenal Glands
You have administered glucagon to a diabetic patient. Which of the following should occur? Glycogenolysis, resulting in an increased blood glucose level.
What is the correct initial dose of Amiodarone for an adult patient found in V-Tach with a pulse? 150mg IV slow over 10 minutes
statements about hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma (HHNK) is true Aside from managing the ABCs, prehospital management is primarily aimed at correcting dehydration.
A finding of exophthalmos and goiter should increase your suspicion for a problem with the: thyroid gland
In response to an increase in blood sugar, the pancreas will release insulin to: Allow the glucose to permeate the cell membrane
An increased hydrogen ion concentration in the cerebrospinal fluid results in a(n) ________ ventilation rate. increase
The first dose of Diltiazem for the treatment of A-Fib with RVR in an adult patient is: 0.25mg
what does lead I, aVL, V5 and V6 look at? left lateral
what part of the heart does lead II, III and aVF look at? inferior wall
what part of the heart does V3 and V4 look at? anterior wall
The majority of carbon dioxide that is made by our cells during metabolism is transported in the blood and to the alveoli: bicarbonate ions
Your diabetic patient asks you why diabetics need to take insulin. Which of the following answers is most accurate? "Insulin helps glucose enter the cells of the body so it can be used for energy."
Airway resistance is increased by: bronchospasms
A type II diabetic with a blood glucose of 24 mg/dL would most likely be unconscious due to: Cerebral Hypoglycemia
Which of the following endocrine substances acts as a marker for congestive heart failure? BNP
The posterior pituitary produces which two hormones? ADH & Oxytocin
Created by: dmurphy4689
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