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SelTrain decisio,459
Selection3 Training4 methods5
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| On-the-job methods involve having inexperienced employees observe and learn about the job from | a supervisor or experienced employee |
| The development of a training program begins with a needs analysis, which is also known as | needs assessment and is conducted to identify training needs. It ordinarily includes four analyses: (a) an organizational analysis, a task (job) analysis to identif (KSAOs), person analysis, a demographic analysis. |
| On-the-job methods include | apprenticeships, internships, coaching, mentoring, job rotation, and cross-training. Job rotation often used to train managers |
| Two advantages of on-the-job training are | less costly than off-the-job training and it alleviates problems related to transfer of training. Major disadvantages are the potential for errors, safety problems, and a slowdown or disruption of productivity. |
| Off-the-job methods take place at a site away from the actual worksite. Includes | classroom lectures, technology-based training, behavior modeling, and simulation training. Behavior modeling is based on Bandura’s (1986) social learning theory and involves having trainees observe a model . Feedback |
| Advantages of off-the-job training are that it provides greater control over the training environment, allows a large number of employees to be trained at the same time, and permits the use of multiple training methods. Disadvantages are | in some situations, it may cost more than on-the-job training and it may not provide adequate transfer of training. |
| Mentoring is a relationship between a mentor (more experienced person) and a mentee (less experienced person) in which the mentor provides | support and guidance to the mentee to assist with the mentee’s professional development.Psychosocial functions -role model/advice. Career function |
| Coaching is “a process used to encourage employees to accept responsibility for their own performance, to enable them to achieve and sustain | superior performance, and to treat them as partners in working toward organizational goals and effectiveness” |
| In contrast to mentoring, coaching focuses on performance rather than career and personal development; is | more formal and structured and has regularly scheduled meetings, specific tasks, and measurable goals; has a shorter duration and is usually time-bound; and typically addresses the needs of both the employee and the organization. |
| Distributed practice involves providing opportunities for learning and practice in multiple sessions with periods of rest between sessions, | distributed (spaced) practice is more effective than massed practice: |
| Whole-task training is more effective when | the task is highly organized and subtasks are highly interrelated. |
| Overlearning refers to learning or practicing beyond the point of mastery and results in | automaticity, which occurs when information is recalled or a behavior is performed with little conscious effort or awareness. |
| maximize transfer of training with Identical Elements | the more similar the training and work situations are, the greater the transfer of training. Identical elements is also referred to as physical and psychological (ksaos) fidelity: |
| Stimulus Variability VS support in transfer of learning | Transfer of training is maximized when a variety of stimuli are used during training. This includes using multiple examples of a concept. affected by the amount of support trainees receive for using newly acquired skills and knowledge on-the-job. |
| Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model (1998) distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that are arranged in order from least to most informative | Reaction criteria- trainees’ impres training. (b) Learning criteria trainees acquired tg. Behavior criteria-trainees’ job performance improved as a result of training. (d) Results criteria assess the effects of training on return-on-investment (ROI), |
| Dessinger mosley Confirmative evaluation is conducted at a later time to evaluate | the long-term effects of training and involves administering measures similar to those administered as part of the summative evaluation |
| Dessinver=Meta-evaluation is an ongoing process that’s conducted during and after the formative, summative, and confirmative evaluations...why? | for the purpose of assessing their reliability and validity. |
| formative evaluation is conducted to assist with the development and improvement of a program, while a summative evaluation is conducted to | determine whether program outcomes met the program’s goals |
| Programmed decisions are repetitive and routine decisions that are governed by rules, policies, and procedures and are often made by lower-level personnel- examples? | Included in this category are decisions related to hiring, ordering, and billing |
| nonprogrammed decisions are non-repetitive and complex, require ? | unique or creative solutions, and rely on the judgment and problem-solving skills. usually made by upper-level personnel and include decisions related to developing new products or services and responding to legal issues. |
| rational model (e.g., Harrison, 1975) is also known as the classical model and the rational-economic model. It assumes that decision-makers? | choose the optimal alternative after identifying and evaluating all possible alternatives in an objective, deliberate, and orderly way. |
| What model proposes that, as a result of these factors, people often “satisfice” (rather than “optimize”) when making decisions by considering alternatives only until a minimally acceptable alternative is found? | bounded rationality model (Simon, 1957) recognizes that rational decision-making is limited by organizational and individual factors such as time restrictions, limited access to information, and the cognitive abilities |
| organizational process model (Cyert & March, 1963), says what constrains org's decisions? | organizational decisions are often made by many individuals or groups, are constrained by the organization’s routines and standard operating procedures, and often follow and depend on “small incremental choices |
| groups tend to outperform individuals in terms of decision-making when the task is ? | complex and group members have complementary skills |
| individuals outperform groups when the task is | poorly structured and requires a high degree of creativity |
| In addition to a high level of cohesiveness, the risk for groupthink is increased when the group has a strong directive leader and? | is isolated from outside opinions, and must make an important decision quickly. |
| Name a symptom of groupthink? | Symptoms include illusions of invulnerability and superior morality, use of collective rationalization, excessive stereotyping, self-censorship, and the presence of self-appointed “mindguards” who shield group members from contradictory information |
| Group leaders can reduce the risk for groupthink by remaining neutral in the beginning of a discussion AND? | encouraging members to express their opinions, appointing a member to play devil’s advocate, and bringing in outside opinions. |
| Group polarization is the tendency of groups to make more extreme (more risky or more cautious) decisions than? | individual group members would make alone |
| Research suggests that group polarization occurs after group discussions have provided opportunities for ? | social comparison and exposure to persuasive arguments (Bordens & Horowitz, 2012). (The tendency of groups to make more risky decisions is also referred to as the risky shift.) |
| Reliability refers to the degree to which a predictor is free from the effects of measurement (random) error | provides consistent scores. The various methods for evaluating reliability assess the consistency of scores over time, across different forms/items, or across different scorers, and most produce a reliability coefficient. |
| reliability coefficient ranges from 0 to 1.0 and, the closer the coefficient is to 1.0,? | less the effect of measurement error and the greater the consistency of scores. |
| Reliability measures include: | Split half, Cronbach's alpha (more items=higher alpha), Item-total correlations. |
| To determine if the predictor actually measures what it was designed to measure... means? | validity must be assessed. |
| There are three main types of validity and each type is evaluated using different methods. For many predictors used to make selection and other employment decisions, | more than one type of validity is evaluated. |
| Content validity refers to the extent to which a predictor adequately samples the knowledge or skills it’s intended to measure. How is this insured? | Basing a predictor’s content on the results of a job analysis and having subject matter experts review the content help ensure that it has an acceptable level of content validity.Job knowledge tests and work samples should have adequate content validity. |
| Construct validity refers to the extent to which a predictor measures the construct (hypothetical trait) it was designed to measure. Example? and how? | Intelligence tests and personality tests should have adequate construct validity. assessed in several ways including correlating scores on the predictor with scores on valid measures of the same, similar, and different constructs. |
| Criterion-related validity refers to the degree to which scores on the predictor correlate with scores on the criterion. It’s evaluated by? | correlating predictor and criterion scores obtained by individuals in a tryout sample to obtain a criterion-related validity coefficient; ranges from -1.0 to +1.0 and, the closer it is to 0, the lower the predictor’s crv. |
| When is CRV useful for organization? | orgs goal is to use applicants’ scores on a predictor to estimate or predict their scores on the criterion to facilitate hiring decisions, |
| Incremental validity refers to the increase in decision-making accuracy that occurs by adding a new selection technique (predictor) to the existing selection procedure. When is large CRV coefficient best? | A predictor is most likely to increase decision-making accuracy when its criterion-related validity coefficient is large. |
| When might incremental validity be okay with a mod to low CRV coefficient? | predictor’s validity coefficient is low to moderate, it can have incremental val when the selection ratio is low/ base rate is moderate: |
| selection ratio is the percent of job applicants the company plans to hire and is calculated by dividing the number of applicants that will be hired by the total number of applicants. For example, a selection ratio of .10 is | low and means that one of 10 applicants will be hired, while a selection ratio of .90 is high and means that nine of 10 applicants will be hired. A low selection ratio is best because it means the company has more applicants to choose from. |
| base rate is the percent of employees who were hired using the current selection procedure and are considered successful. | A moderate base rate (around .50) is associated with the greatest increase in decision-making accuracy. if base rate is high, adding a new predictor probably won’t have much effect- current procedure is adeq. |
| What does a low base rate suggestion in incremental validity? | base rate is low, this suggests that something other than the selection procedure (e.g., inadequate training) is the prob. |
| Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of a predictor’s incremental validity for various combinations of | criterion-related validity coefficients, base rates, and selection ratios. |
| Test unfairness occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test or other employment procedure but | the score difference is not reflected in differences in scores on a measure of job performance. i.e. more men hired them women but perform is = |
| Differential validity occurs when a selection test or other employment procedure has significantly | different validity coefficients for members of different groups. A selection test has differential validity, for instance, when its criterion-related validity coefficient is .70 for men but .20 for wome |
| The Uniform Guidelines describes the 80% rule (also known as the four-fifths rule) as a method for determining if a selection test is having an adverse impact. | adverse impact is occurring when the hiring rate for a legally protected group is less than 80% of the hiring rate for the majority group. hiring rate for Whites is 70%, the minimum hiring rate for African-American applicants is 56% (.70 times .80 = .56). |
| Utility analysis is a method for evaluating “the economic | return on investment of human resource interventions such as staffing and training” (Landy & Conte, 2016, p. 282). A commonly cited formula for assessing the utility of selection tests is the Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula |
| An employment procedure is considered valid when there is adequate evidence of ? | criterion-related, content, or construct validity. An employment procedure or requirement is a business necessity when it for the safe and efficient operation of the business. the nature of the job, their disabilities are likely to cause safety risks. |
| bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) when it is necessary for maintaining normal business operations. BFOQ may apply to ? | gender, age, religion, and national origin but not race. For example, religion is a BFOQ when a religious high school requires faculty to be members of its denomination. |
| the court determines that a selection test or other employment procedure is having an adverse impact, an employer has several options: | replace the procedure w another procedure that does not have an adverse impact, modify the procedure, or demonstrate that there is no alternative procedure available that would not have an adverse impact and that use of the procedure is job-related |
| Super’s Life-Space, Life-Span Career Theory: Super’s (Super, Savickas, & Super, 1996) theory distinguishes between five stages of career development. At ages (25 to 44), what stage are you in? | growth (birth to 14), exploration (15 to 24), establishment (25 to 44), maintenance (45 to 64), and disengagement (65+). The five stages act as a maxi-cycle over the entire lifespan. |
| Each stage involves a different set of development tasks, and “career maturity” (“career adaptability” for adults) refers to a person’s ability to successfully complete the tasks of his or her stage. Belongs to what theory? | Super’s Life-Space, Life-Span Career Theory. |
| Super used the term life-space to refer to? | the various life roles a person assumes at different times and in different contexts (e.g., child, student, worker, parent). He proposed that each person has a unique life-space due to differences in needs, interests, values, other situ. |
| The life-career rainbow is one of the illustrations Super created to assist with career counseling. It depicts? | the relationship between a person’s life stages and major life roles over his/her lifespan. |
| Self-concept is a central concept in ? theory | Super’s, how people perceive themselves and thr situations. develops over the lifespan. result of interactions between internal (personal) factors and external (situational) factors. self-concept influences and is infld by a person’s career dev proces. |
| Holland (1985) distinguished between six personality and work environment types (“RIASEC”). | realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. He depicted the types arranged around a hexagon, with the types closest to each other in the hexagon being most similar |
| A biologist should score high on ? for Holland's types/ | Investigative |
| An accountant should score high on ? for Holland's types. | Conventional |
| A lawyer or salesman should score high on ? for Holland's types. | Enterprising. |
| Holland proposed that people are most productive and satisfied at work when there’s a high degree of congruence (“goodness-of-fit”) between | a person’s personality and the characteristics of the work environment. |
| on the Self-Directed Search indicates a high degree of differentiation means? | personality/work environment match is most predictive of job outcomes. |
| Holland defined vocational identity as “the clear and stable picture of one’s goals, interests, and talents” (1997, p. 5) and argued that people | with well-formed (versus diffuse) vocational identities feel more confident about making career decisions. |
| person-environment congruence is central to what two career theories? | Holland’s and Dawis and Lofquist’s theories. |
| Dawis and Lofquist (1984) propose that congruence between certain characteristics of an employee and the employee’s work environment predict the person’s job tenure; which is? | which they identify as the primary indicator of work adjustment |
| tenure is the result of what two factors? Which factor is the employer in charge of? | Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job. match between the employe needs+job reinforcers determines stays on-the-job or quits. Satisfactoriness = employer’s satisfaction w the employee. employee’s skills match the skill req of job |
| What theory? views vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process that’s linked to Erikson’s psychosocial stages of ego identity development | Tiedeman’s Career Decision-Making Model |
| Tiedeman’s Career Decision-Making Model, what are the two stages? | anticipation phase:exploration, crystallization, choice, and clarification stages. familiar with different jobs, makes a tentative job choice. implementation ph: induction, reform, integration stages. begins the chosen job, becomes proficient. |
| According to Tiedeman et al., career decision-making is not always a single linear process; instead | stages may be repeated, skipped, or occur in a different order. |
| Krumboltz’s (1996) theory combines what three theories? | elements of classical behaviorism, Bandura’s social learning theory, and the cognitive behavior therapies of Ellis and Beck. |
| four factors that contribute to career decisions in Krumboltz's theory? | genetic endowment and special abilities that may enable or limit. Environmental conditions + events beyond the person’s control. Instrumental and assoc learning experiences. task approach skil(prob-solving, work habits) result from interactions other 3. |
| Krumboltz’s theory also proposes that interactions among these factors contribute to two types of generalization that guide a person’s career decisions and behaviors? | Self-observation generalizations are beliefs that people have about their own attitudes, values, interests, and skills. worldview generalizations are beliefs that people have about the world and are used to predict future events. |
| According to Krumboltz, to promote their career development, individuals must ? | have opportunities to “be exposed to the widest array of learning experiences” |
| Driver and Brousseau’s Career Concept Model: distinguishes between four career concepts that differ in terms of key motives, direction of career movement, and frequency of career change. They are what concept is the linear? | People with a linear career concept are motivated primarily by a desire for power and achievement and view careers as involving upward movement with infrequent career changes |
| According to Driver and Brousseau, situations favorable to traditional linear and expert concepts are being replaced with ? | situations more consistent with spiral and transitory concepts. They recommend that organizations adopt a pluralistic approach that “provides opportunities for diverse career experiences to meet changing business conditions more effectively |
| Driver and Brousseau’s Career Concept Model People with an expert career concept are motivated by? | desire to have job security and develop expertise and view careers as involving a lifelong commitment, with the mastery of skills being more important than upward advancement. |
| Driver and Brousseau’s Career Concept Model People with a transitory career concept are motivated by | a desire for variety and independence and view careers as involving lateral movements across different occupations that occur every 2-4 years. |
| People with a spiral career concept are motivated by a need for personal growth and opportunities to be creative and view careers as involving lateral, according to Driver and Brousseua how often would they change careers? | People with a spiral career concept are motivated by a need for personal growth and opportunities to be creative and view careers as involving lateral movements across similar occupations that occur every 5 -10 years. |
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