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Pharmacy Tech test

Pharmacy Tech certification

Question	Answers
1. All of the following are local anesthetics EXCEPT A) dyclonine. B) lidocaine. C) etomidate. D) procaine.	C) etomidate.
2. A patient with an allergy to "sulfa" (sulfonamides) should not take A) Augmenting. B) Sumycin®. C) Geocillin®. D) Bactrim DS®.	D) Bactrim DS®.
3. A drug used to treat parasitic worms in the GI tract is A) Vermox®. B) Mycostatin®. C) Ceclor®. D) Geocillin®.	A) Vermox®.
4. An example of a drug that should not be used in children under 8 years old is A) Ceclor®. B) Sumycin®. C) Bactrim®. D) Mycostatin®.	D) Mycostatin®.
5. Drugs acting on the sympathetic nervous system are called A) cholinergic. B) hematoporetic. C) antihelminthic. D) adrenergic.	B) hematoporetic.
6. Which of the following sound-alike/look-alike drugs share the same therapeutic mechanism? A) albuterol/atenolol B) amitiptyline/aminophylline C) prednisone/prednisolone D) hydrocortisone/hydrocodone	C) prednisone/prednisolone
7. Patients should drink plenty of water while taking A) Bactrim®. B) Plendil®. C) amlodipine. D) verapamil.	A) Bactrim®.
8. An example of a drug with a side effect of coughing is A) captopril. B) hydralazine. C) hydroxyzine. D) dextromethorphan.	C) hydroxyzine.
9. The action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is both anti-inflammatory and A) immunologic. B) analgesic. C) anesthetic. D) antineoplastic.	B) analgesic.
10. All of the following are considered cardiovascular agents except A) anticoagulants. B) antihyperlipidemics. C) vasopressors. D) antimetabolites.	D) antimetabolites.
11. The term which best describes a drug which inhibits bacterial growth is A) bacteriostatic. B) bactericidal. C) antimycobacterial. D) bacterial modifier.	A) bacteriostatic.
12. At which stage of General Anesthesia would you most commonly see systemic excitement? A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III D) Stage IV	B) Stage II
13. Drugs often used therapeutically for cardiovascular disorders include all of the following except A) calcium channel blockers. B) ACE inhibitors. C) alkylating agents. D) diuretics.	C) alkylating agents.
13. Drugs often used therapeutically for cardiovascular disorders include all of the following except A) calcium channel blockers. B) ACE inhibitors. C) alkylating agents. D) diuretics.	C) alkylating agents
14. Ambien® may be best described as a A) benzodiazepine. B) narcotic. C) hypnotic. D) antidepressant.	C) hypnotic.
15. You may see the anti-platelet agent, Plavix®, commonly ordered for a patient who A) recently had a stroke. B) suffers from hyperglycemia. C) is clinically depressed. D) needs hormonal replacement.	A) recently had a stroke.
16. Opiate analgesics commonly do all of the following except A) produce hallucinations. B) cause addiction. C) relieve severe pain. D) reduce fever.	D) reduce fever.
17. Alzheimer's Disease, a progressive dementia, may often be treated with A) lorazepam. B) Aricept®. C) cephalexin. D) prednisone.	B) Aricept®.
18. Pilocarpine was one of the first drugs developed to treat A) glaucoma. B) angina. C) Parkinson's Disease. D) hypothyroidism.	A) glaucoma.
19. Drugs which act to relax the smooth muscle of the bronchi are A) mucolytics. B) antihistamines. C) xanthine derivatives. D) piperzines.	C) xanthine derivatives.
20. Common examples of antipsychotic drugs include all of the following except A) Prozac®. B) Seroquel®. C) Risperdal®. D) Thorazine®.	A) Prozac®.
21. Each of the following organizations are directly involved with the name selection of a drug except the A) FDA. B) USAN. C) USDA. D) APA.	C) USDA.
22. Store ________ A) Nitrostat® B) Vytorin® C) furosemide D) digoxin in tightly closed original container. 23. Which kind of contraceptive product least mimics natural ovarian hormones? A) triphasic B) monophasic C) triphasic D) triphasic	A) Nitrostat®
24. Albuterol and theophylline are considered drugs with _____________ action. A) anti-inflammatory B) decongestant C) bronchodilator D) antihistamine	C) bronchodilator
25. Antirrythmics regulate conduction activity of the heart. Which of the following area of the heart is not directly involved with this function? A) SA node B) Purkinje fibers C) AV node D) right ventricle	D) right ventricle
26. A patient with gouty arthritis may likely be taking any of the following drugs except a/an A) xanthine oxidase inhibitor. B) calcium channel blocker. C) uricosuric agent. D) allopurinol.	B) Purkinje fibers
27. Antitussive drugs are most commonly prescribed to treat A) colitis. B) carcinoma. C) productive/non-productive coughs. D) Athlete's Foot.	C) uricosuric agent.
28. A typical example of a natural neurotransmitter is A) dopamine. B) levodopa. C) carbidopa. D) Depakote®.	A) colitis.
29. Eye inflammation may be treated by NSAIDs and A) mydriatics. B) anesthetics. C) corticosteroids. D) lubricating agents.	C) corticosteroids.
30. Which of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of hypertension? A) Lotrel® B) Diovan® C) Benicar® D) Meclizine	D) Meclizine
37. Which of the following statements is true regarding the antidepressant Zoloft®? A) It is an SARI. B) It is indicated for the treatment of bipolar depression. C) It is a tricyclic. D) It is an MAOI.	A) It is an SARI.
38. ______________ is contraindicated in patients who are allergic to sulfonamides. A) Amoxicillin B) Clindamycin C) Sulfasalazine D) Suniycin®	C) Sulfasalazine
39. Antiarrythmics include all of the following except A) beta blockers. B) sodium channel blockers. C) calcium channel blockers. D) chloride channel blockers.	D) chloride channel blockers.
40. Common dermatological drugs may be any of the following classes except A) anti-infectives. B) antihistamines. C) antihyperlipidemics. D) steroids.	C) antihyperlipidemics.
41. One way vaccines offer a patient protection from disease is by providing A) impassive immunity. B) active immunity. C) inactive immunity. D) non-acquired immunity.	B) active immunity.
42. Some of the most often prescribed laxatives include all of the following except A) osmotics. B) saline. C) histamine. D) bulk forming.	C) histamine.
43. Which of the following drugs does not belong in the list? A) Paxil® B) diazepam C) Effexor® D) Wellbutrin®	B) diazepam
44. The neurological agent, Adderall®, is also classified as an A) anticholenergic. B) antimigraine. C) amphetamine. D) analgesic.	C) amphetamine.
45. The following are considered osteoporotic in effect except A) Aviane®. B) Actonel®. C) Fosamax®. D) Evista®.	A) Aviane®.
46. Zetia® and Pravachol® are examples of recently available A) dermatologicals. B) gastrointestinal agents. C) antihyperlipidemics. D) antidiabetics.	C) amphetamine.
47. The drug glyburide is used for A) depressed adults. B) geriatrics. C) asthmatics. D) non-insulin dependent diabetics.	D) Evista®.
48. For specific site treatment, all of the following can be classified as antineoplastics except A) hormones. B) radioactive isotopes. C) antipyretics. D) antibiotics.	C) antipyretics.
49. Choose the most likely agent ordered to dissolve blood clots: A) anticoagulant B) thrombolytic C) vasodilator D) ACE inhibitor	B) thrombolytic
50. Human passive immunity is most often used for the treatment of A) Tetanus. B) Botulism. C) Diptheria. D) Rabies.	A) Tetanus.
51. To treat urinary incontinence, you may see the following drug prescribed: A) Yasmin-28® B) Amaryl® C) Detrol LA® D) Hyzaar®	C) Detrol LA®
52. A distinguishing characteristic of the diuretic spironolactone is that A) it acts as a stool softener. B) it is potassium sparing. C) it prevents hypotension. D) follow-up blood work will not need to be conducted.	B) it is potassium sparing. C) it prevents hypotension.
53. Gastric acid inhibitors include all of the following drug s except A) Nexium®. B) Prevacid®. C) Pepcid®. D) metfoimin.	D) metfoimin.
54. A patient with a prescription for oral contraceptives may have this drug prescribed: A) Premarin® B) ranitidine C) Protonix® D) Trinessa®	D) Trinessa®
55. An example of a barbiturate is A) Seconal®. B) Valium®. C) chloral hydrate. D) meprobamate.	A) Seconal®.
56. The chief effect of a NSAID at higher doses is A) analgesia. B) antipyretic. C) inhibition of prostaglandins. D) nausea relief.	C) inhibition of prostaglandins.
57. Antihypertensives work to reduce blood pressure using all of the following mechanisms except A) reduction of water retention. B) increase of fluid volume. C) relaxation of blood vessels. D) reduction of cardiac output.	B) increase of fluid volume.
58. Ringworm is an example of a _________ of infection. A) fungal B) viral. C) bacterial D) parasitic	A) fungal
59. When cancer cells spread from their primary site, they are said to have A) migrated. B) traveled. C) metastasized. D) relocated.	C) metastasized.
60. ______________ is an antihistamine. A) Hydrocodone B) Promethazine C) Pseudoephedrine D) Phenylephrine	B) Promethazine
61._______________ is a beclomethasone inhaler. A) QVAR® B) Proventil HFA® C) Atrovent® D) Mucomyst®	A) QVAR®
62. Which of the following commonly used drugs contains the component acetylsalicylic acid? A) acetaminophen B) ibuprofen C) naproxen D) aspirin	D) aspirin
63. The following drugs are cardiovascular agents EXCEPT A) Lovenox®. B) Jantoven®. C) Differin®. D) Avalide®.	C) Differin®.
64. An example of a beta adrenergic blocker is A) Digitek®. B) Coreg®. C) enalapril. D) Crestor®.	B) Coreg®.
65. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance are major concerns of prolonged vomiting. Therefore, all of the following may be considered viable supplements except A) calcium. B) magnesium. C) potassium. D) iron.	D) iron.
23. Which kind of contraceptive product least mimics natural ovarian hormones? A) triphasic B) monophasic C) triphasic D) triphasic /biphasic mix	B) monophasic
1. Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (1938) followed the fatal poisoning by A) sulfanilamide. B) thalidomide. C) penicillin. D) acetaminophen.	A) sulfanilamide.
2. The _____________________________ defines which drugs require a prescription. A) Food and Drug Act (1906) B) Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (1938) C) Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951) D) Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962)	C) Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951)
3. The Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962) required manufacturers to provide A) generic substitutes. B) category of drug as legend or OTC. C) proof of safety (only) before marketing. D) proof of both safety and efficacy before marketing.	D) proof of both safety and efficacy before marketing.
4. The ____________________________ requires pharmacists to dispense most prescription drugs in child-proof packaging. A) Orphan Drug Act (1983) B) Prescription Drug Marketing Act (1987) C) Fair Packaging and Labeling Act (1966) D) Poi	D) Poison Prevention Packaging Act (1970)
5. The DEA as a division of the A) FDA. B) HCFA. C) Justice Department. D) CMS.	C) Justice Department.
6. The_____________________________ provides incentives to promote research, approval, and marketing of drugs needed for the treatment of rare diseases. A) Orphan Drug Act (1983) B) Hatch-Waxman Act (1984) C) Durham-Humphrey Amendment (195	A) Orphan Drug Act (1983)
7. The _____________________________________________ requires pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients receiving prescriptions. A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (1996) B) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (199	B) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (1990)
8. The ___________________________________________ provides regulations for the transfer of patient health information. A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (1996) B) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (1990) C) Kefauver-H	A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (1996)
9. This law allowed for quicker introduction of lower-cost generic drugs. A) Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962) B) Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951) C) Hatch-Waxman Act (1984) D) Orphan Drug Act (1983)	C) Hatch-Waxman Act (1984)
10. It is the responsibility of A) the FDA B) the manufacturer C) the DEA D) the CDER E) F) G) to provide proof that a drug is safe and effective.	B) the manufacturer
11. Clinical trials involve A) testing drugs on people. B) testing drugs on animals in the United States. C) testing drugs on animals in countries outside of the United States. D) testing drugs in laboratories.	A) testing drugs on people.
12. An inactive substance given in place of a medication is a/an. A) element. B) compound, C) placebo. D) generic.	C) placebo.
13. The main purpose of phase I clinical drug testing is A) safety. B) efficacy. C) dosage range. D) interactions.	A) safety.
14. The main purpose of phase II clinical drug testing is A) safety. B) efficacy. C) dosage range. D) interactions.	B) efficacy.
15. The largest number of patients are in_____________ of clinical drug testing. A) phase I B) phase II C) phase III D) lND	C) phase III
16. The Waxman-Hatch Act provided for up to ______ year extensions of patent protection beyond the 17 years for a drug patent. A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 17	B) 5
17. Drug products that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients in the same dosage form are A) therapeutic equivalents. B) pharmaceutical equivalents. C) look-alikes. D) sound-alikes.	B) pharmaceutical equivalents.
18. The maximum number of 30 mg pseudoephedrine tablets that can be sold to an individual under the Combat Metharnphetamine Epidemic Act in a day is A) 74. B) 100. C) 146. D) 200.	C) 146.
19. Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, the pharmacy or store that sells pseudoephedrine-containing products must maintain written or electronic records of the transactions for a period of A) 6 months. B) one year. C) two years.	C) two years.
20. Exempt narcotics can be sold by a pharmacist to persons at least A) 12 B) 16 C) 18 D) 21 E) years of age.	C) 18
21. The sale of exempt narcotics is limited by how many dosage units can be sold in any given ___________ period. A) 24 hour B) 48 hour C) 72 hour D) weekly	B) 48 hour
22. It is necessary to have a prescription to dispense emergency contraceptives to individuals A) under 21 years. B) under 18 years. C) under 17 years. D) under 12 years.	C) under 17 years.
23. The first set of numbers in the NDC indicates A) the drug name, strength and dosage form. B) the package size. C) the manufacturer. D) the patent year.	C) the manufacturer.
24. The second set of numbers in the NDC indicates A) the drug name, strength and dosage form. B) the package size. C) the manufacturer. D) the patent year.	A) the drug name, strength and dosage form.
25. The third set of numbers in the NDC indicates A) the drug name, strength and dosage form. B) the package size. C) the manufacturer. D) the patent year.	B) the package size.
26. Drugs in DEA ___ A) Schedule I B) Schedule II C) Schedule III D) Schedule IV E) have no accepted medical use.	A) Schedule I
27. Exempt narcotics are in DEA A) Schedule II. B) Schedule III. C) Schedule IV. D) Schedule V.	D) Schedule V.
28. Anabolic steroids are in DEA A) Schedule II. B) Schedule III C) Schedule IV. D) Schedule V.	B) Schedule III
29. The Controlled Substances Act was established by A) the DEA. B) the FDA. C) the U.S. Congress. D) each state board of pharmacy.	C) the U.S. Congress.
30. _____________ is required to order Schedule I or Schedule II controlled substances. A) DEA Form 222 B) DEA Form 224 C) DEA Form 41 D) DEA Form 106	A) DEA Form 222
31. Copy 2 of DEA Form 222 is eventually kept by the A) state board of pharmacy. B) purchaser. C) wholesaler. D) DEA.	D) DEA.
32. Which of the following DEA numbers is consistent with the DEA formula for Dr. John Doe? A) BD8822561 B) BJ8822561 C) BD8822566 D) AJ8822566	A) BD8822561
33. The FDA voluntary reporting program for health care professionals to report adverse effects caused by approved drugs is A) VAERS. B) MedWatch. C) Class I Recall. D) Class II Recall.	B) MedWatch.
34. Drug recalls are the responsibility of A) the FDA. B) the DEA. C) the manufacturer. D) the CDC.	C) the manufacturer.
35. The most serious classification for a drug recall is A) Class I B) Class II C) Class III. D) Class IV.	A) Class I
36. A major piece of federal legislation affecting patients' privacy rights is the A) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act. B) Kefauver-Harris Act. C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. D) Durham-Humphrey Act.	C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
37. An independent non-profit organization that establishes standards and monitors compliance for hospitals and other health care programs is the A) ASHP. B) USP. C) ASCP. D) JCAHO.	D) JCAHO.
38. The organization that accredits pharmacy residency and pharmacy technician training programs is the A) ASHP. B) USP. C) ASCP. D) JCAHO.	A) ASHP.
39. The non-profit organization that sets standards for the manufacture and distribution of drugs and related products in the U.S. is the A) ASHP. B) USP. C) FDA. D) JCAHO.	B) USP.
40. Manufacturers' containers for prescription drugs must have label. A) uses B) warnings C) "Rx Only" D) directions	C) "Rx Only"
1. It is free from bacterial. A) B) It is free from particulate material. C) It is free from pyrogens. D) all of the above	A)
2. Which is not considered a particulate material? A) cotton fibers B) rubber cores C) metal fragments D) undissolved active drug particles	D) undissolved active drug particles
3. When a solution is free from soluble products produced by microorganisms, it is said to be A) sterile. B) pyrogen free. C) isotonic. D) particle free.	B) pyrogen free.
4. A hypertonic intravenous solution can cause A) damage to the red blood cells. B) pain. C) tissue irritation. D) all of the above	D) all of the above
5. Large volume parenterals (LVPs) are packaged in containers holding________ or more. A) 5ml B) 10 ml C) 100 ml D) 2,000 ml	C) 100 ml
6. If a drug is added to a LVP solution, it should be added through the A) administration set port. B) additive port. C) medication port. D) any of the above	C) medication port.
7. The administration port on an LVP container is covered by a plastic cover. rubber tip. aluminum seal. cotton plug.	A)plastic cover.
8. Glass containers for LVP solutions are required when a drug interacts with plastic containers. a vacuum is desired inside the container. graduation marks on the container are needed. a vent to the outside air is needed in the administration set.	a drug interacts with plastic containers.
9. USP/NF Chapter <797> regulations were instituted by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). details good compounding practices for parenterals. applies only to pharmacies where parenterals are prepared, stored, and dispensed. all of the above	a drug interacts with plastic containers.
10. Which is considered a CSP according to the USP/NF Chapter <797> regulations? ophthalmic preparations otic preparations inhalation preparations all of the above	all of the above
11. USP/NF Chapter <797> gives requirements to develop standard operating procedures to ensure that CSPs are prepared in air quality environments equal to nonsterile compounding areas. in facilities where air quality environments are not evaluated. by	none of the above
12. Which is not a small volume parenteral (SVP)? multivitamins, two vial mixture, 5 ml each glycine 1.5% irrigation solution folic acid, 5 mg/ml, 10 ml vial magnesium sulfate, 4 g in 100 ml D5W	glycine 1.5% irrigation solution
13. When a drug is added to a parenteral solution, the resulting formulation is called an additive solution. admixture solution. additional solution. adjuvant solution.	admixture solution.
14. Which is an example of packaging for SVP solutions? minibags glass vials ampules all of the above	all of the above
15. Which is the correct procedure of adding a lyophilized drug packaged in a vial to a LVP solution? Draw the lyophilized drug into a syringe, and add to the LVP. Draw the lyophilized drug into a syringe, add to the LVP, then reconstitute. Reconstitut	Reconstitute the lyophilized drug in the vial and add to the LVP.
16. An equal volume of air is usually drawn up and injected into a SVP vial before withdrawing the solution from the vial. Why? provides room for shaking the powder in the vial helps pressurize the syringe assures the drug is dissolved in the vial aid	aids in withdrawing solution from the vial
17. What do irrigation solutions, peritoneal dialysis solutions, and total parenteral nutrition solutions have in common? Solution volumes are greater than 1,000 ml. They do not need to be sterile. They are administered through special administration s	Solution volumes are greater than 1,000 ml.
18. Adding intravenous fat (lipid) emulsion to a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution provides a concentrated source of calories. protein. fatty acids. macronutrients.	calories.
19. Central venous catheters or peripherally inserted central catheters (PICC) lines are used to administer A) hypertonic TPN solutions. B) peritoneal dialysis solutions. C) urological irrigation solutions. D) all of the above	hypertonic TPN solutions.
20. Intravenous fat emulsion, either alone or as part of a TNA solution, must be filtered with at least a ____micron filter. A) 0.22 B) 0.45 C) 1.2 D) 5.0	C) 1.2
21. Peritoneal dialysis is based on the osmosis principle that drug A) moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. B) moves from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. C) moves from a hypertonic sol	A) moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
22. Peritoneal dialysis solutions are administered A) once a day for 30-90 minutes. B) twice a day. C) three times a day. D) many times a day.	D) many times a day.
23. Laminar flow hoods provide a ____ work area. A) sterile B) stable C) zone of turbulence D) ultraclean	D) ultraclean
24. At least one HEPA filter is contained in a laminar flow hood. What does HEPA stand for? A) heavy efficiency particular air B) highly effective particulate air C) high efficiency particulate air D) heavy effective particulate air	C) high efficiency particulate air
25. The "zone of turbulence" formed in a horizontal laminar flow hood is an area of turbulent airflow formed in front of (i.e., on the opening side of the hood) a large container. over the top of a large container. behind (i.e., between the HEPA filter	in front of (i.e., on the opening side of the hood) a large container.
26. Laminar flow means air velocity of 80-300 ft./min. air flow in one uniform direction. air flow is directed over the work area. air particles greater than 0.5 microns are removed.	air flow in one uniform direction.
27. Which is a false statement about biological safety cabinets? recirculates the majority of the air inside the cabinet does not use HEPA filters recommended for preparing chemotherapy agents protects environment and operator from contamination	does not use HEPA filters
28. Which is a false statement of the USP/NF Chapter <797> regulations? Laminar flow hoods are to be housed in clean rooms. Trained personnel can enter a clean room for any purpose at any time. Clean rooms must be designated area in the pharmacy. Clea	Trained personnel can enter a clean room for any purpose at any time.
29. Which is a false statement about USP/NF Chapter <797> regulations regarding air quality in a clean room? Air must be repeatedly filtered. Air must not contain more than 20,000 airborne particles of 0.5 micron or smaller per cubic foot. Clean room m	Air must not contain more than 20,000 airborne particles of 0.5 micron or smaller per cubic foot.
30. Which is a false statement about working inside the laminar flow hood using aseptic techniques? Do not sneeze into the hood. Close all doors to the clean room. Maintain a direct clear path of 2 inches between the HEPA filter and the work area. Pla	Maintain a direct clear path of 2 inches between the HEPA filter and the work area.
1. Community pharmacies generally sell health and beauty aids. prescription drugs. over-the-counter drugs. all of the above	over-the-counter drugs.
2. Individually owned local pharmacies are called chain pharmacies. mass merchandiser pharmacies. independent pharmacies. food store pharmacies.	chain pharmacies.
3. Examples of are CVS, Rite-Aid, and Walgreens. chain pharmacies mass merchandiser pharmacies independent pharmacies food store pharmacies	food store pharmacies
4. Examples of are Giant Eagle and Kroger. chain pharmacies mass merchandiser pharmacies independent pharmacies food store pharmacies	chain pharmacies
5. Almost two thirds of all prescription drugs in the U.S. are dispensed by community pharmacies. mass merchandiser pharmacies. independent pharmacies. food store pharmacies.	independent pharmacies.
6. refers to skills involving relationships between people. Customer service Monitoring drug therapy Interpersonal skills	Monitoring drug therapy
7. Federal regulation that requires community pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients is HIPAA. OBRA. CSA.	OBRA.
8. Pharmacist counseling includes but is not limited to ensuring that the patient understands such information as the chemical make-up of the drug. where to store the medication. possible side effects. b and c.	where to store the medication. possible side effects. b and c.
9. Federal regulation that requires health care professionals to respect the privacy of patients is HIPAA. OBRA. CSA.	OBRA.
10. To respect the privacy of patients' health information, it is required pharmacy practice to speak to patients in the most private areas possible. shred documents containing protected health information. never discuss health information with any ind	all of the above
11. Medicare Part D is a drug plan to benefit children. senior citizens. employees of community pharmacies. patients with low incomes.	senior citizens.
12. Legal requirements for the ratio of pharmacists to technicians are regulated at the federal level. state level.	federal level.
13. Regarding pharmacy technician certification, some states require national pharmacy technician certification. some states have their own certifying programs. states are increasingly establishing certification requirements for pharmacy technicians.	all of the above
14. Community pharmacies must have an accessible sink that must be kept clean at all times. (True or False) True False	True
15. Federal regulations require community pharmacies to have a functioning cash register within the pharmacy department. (True or False) True False	False
16. The pharmacy refrigerator in a community pharmacy must be maintained between 2 degrees C and 8 degrees C and may be used to store sealed cans of soft drinks for the pharmacy staff. must be designated for drugs only. may be used to store the pharmac	must be designated for drugs only.
17. The goal of customer service is increased profits. establishing time guarantees for prescriptions. customer satisfaction.	customer satisfaction..
18. When a patient telephones the \pharmacy to ask about the dosage for a new prescription, the call should be handled by the technician. handled by a certified technician. referred to the pharmacist.	referred to the pharmacist.
19. When a patient telephones the pharmacy to ask about the price for a new prescription, the call should be handled by the technician. handled only by a certified technician. referred to the pharmacist.	referred to the pharmacist.
20. When a patient telephones the pharmacy to order a refill of a medication that has refills at the pharmacy, the call should be handled by the technician. handled only by a certified technician. referred to the pharmacist.	handled by the technician
21. When a patient telephones the pharmacy with questions about treating poison ivy with OTC medications, the call should be handled by the technician. handled only by a certified technician. referred to the pharmacist.	referred to the pharmacist.
22. OTC medications require a prescription. can have side effects. can be recommended by pharmacy technicians. none of the above	can have side effects.
23. When a technician enters a patient's third party information into the pharmacy computer system, the group number identifies the employer of the insured. the pharmacy. the employee. the patient.	the employer of the insured.
24. When a technician enters a patient's third party information into the pharmacy computer system, the policy identification number identifies the insured individual. the pharmacy. the PBM. the patient.	the insured individual.
25. If a cream or ointment is not pre-packaged in the appropriate size tube for filling the prescription, it is necessary to fill the prescription with a larger amount if a larger amount is available. transfer the appropriate amount to an ointment jar u	transfer the appropriate amount to an ointment jar using a spatula
26. A patient may request non-child resistant caps. (True or False) True False	True
27. Small additional labels placed on prescription containers that identify important usage information including specific warnings or alerts are strip labels. auxiliary labels. prescription labels.	auxiliary labels.
28. Automated filling machines must be maintained by a pharmacy technician on a daily basis. weekly basis. monthly basis. annual basis.	daily basis.
29. A book in which, for legal and insurance purposes, patients sign for the prescriptions they receive is the exempt register. poison register. signature log.	signature log.
30. It is a good practice for cash register operation to place the customer's money within the customer's line of sight until the customer has received his or her change. (True or False) True False	True
31. Pharmacy technicians are able to make OTC recommendations. direct customers to the location of OTC products.	direct customers to the location of OTC products.
32. The mark-up is the final selling price. the acquisition cost price. the difference between the selling price and the acquisition cost.	the difference between the selling price and the acquisition cost.
33. When pharmacies provide disease state management services, the pharmacy technician may provide patient counseling. make OTC recommendations. coordinate billing, schedule appointments, and take patient information.	coordinate billing, schedule appointments, and take patient information.
34. Technicians should always respond to customers in a positive and courteous way. neutral and disinterested way. way that indicates the pharmacy is very busy. negative and agitated way.	positive and courteous way.
35. Whenever the computer system flags drug interactions, the pharmacy technician should always override the interaction alert. always bring the alert to the attention of the pharmacist so the pharmacist can evaluate the significance of the alert. scre	always bring the alert to the attention of the pharmacist so the pharmacist can evaluate the significance of the alert.
36. Miscellaneous duties of a pharmacy technician may include but are not limited to ordering stock. keeping the pharmacy neat and clean. cleaning the pill counting trays with alcohol . all of the above	all of the above
1. Examples of public health insurance are patient assistance programs. Medicare and Medicaid. health maintenance organizations. preferred provider organizations.	Medicare and Medicaid.
2. Companies that administer drug benefit programs are called co-insurance. patient assistance programs. pharmacy benefit managers. workers' relief programs.	pharmacy benefit managers.
3. An agreement for cost sharing between the insurer and insured is called co-insurance. co-pay. dual co-pay. MAC.	co-insurance.
4. A deductible represents a portion of the price of the medication that the employer is required to pay. a portion of the price of the medication that the PBM is required to pay. a discount that is applied to the cost of an insurance policy. a set am	a set amount that must be paid by the patient for each benefit period before the insurer will cover additional expenses.
5. The type of managed care program that is most restrictive is HMO. POS. PPO. major medical.	HMO.
6. The component of Medicare that covers inpatient hospital expenses is Part A. Part B. Part C. Part D.	Part A.
7. The component of Medicare that covers doctors' services and other medical services that are not covered under Medicare Part A is Part B. Part C. Part D. Part B)	Part B.
8. The component of Medicare that covers prescription drugs is Part A. Part B. Part C. Part D.	Part D.
9. The component of Medicare that covers MTMS is Part A. Part B. Part C. Part D.	Part D.
10. The type of formulary that is least restrictive is a/an closed formulary. open formulary. major medical formulary. dual formulary.	open formulary.
11. An employer compensation program for employees accidentally injured on the job is Medicare. Medicaid. Workers' Compensation. Patient Assistance Program.	Workers' Compensation.
12. Program(s) sponsored by pharmaceutical manufacturers to help provide medications for the needy is/are Medicare. Medicaid. Patient Assistance Programs. PBMs.	Patient Assistance Programs.
13. A rejected claim for invalid person code following online adjudication of a prescription claim means the birth date or sex submitted for the claim does not match the birth date or sex for the patient code submitted (01, 02, etc.). the refill is too	the birth date or sex submitted for the claim does not match the birth date or sex for the patient code submitted (01, 02, etc.).
14. A form for billing paper claims for prescription drugs that were dispensed is CMS-1500. HCFA1500. Universal Claim Form. CPT Form.	Universal Claim Form.
15. A form for billing pharmaceutical care services is CMS-1500. HCFA Form. Universal Claim Form. CPT Form.	CMS-1500.
16. A form for billing Medication Therapy Management Services is CMS-1500. HCFA Form. Universal Claim Form. CPT Form.	CMS-1500.
17. The number used to identify the provider of MTMS when billing for services under Medicare Part D is the CPT Code. DEA Number. NAB? Number. National Provider Identifier.	National Provider Identifier.
18. The number used to identify the drug dispensed when billing a PBM for a filled prescription is the group number. DAW. NPI. NDC.	NDC.
19. The code for services when billing pharmacist-provided MTMS services is the CPT Code. ICD Code. NABP Code. NPI.	CPT Code.
20. Another party, besides the patient or the pharmacy, that pays for some or all of the cost of a medication is called the first party. second party. third party. fourth party.	third party.
21. A company that administers drug benefit programs for insurance companies or employers is a/an PBM. HMO. POS. PPO.	PBM.
22. The number or code on an insurance card that identifies the employer of the insured individual is the patient identification number group number NPI PBM	group number
23. The federal health insurance program for people over age 65 or people with kidney failure is Medicare. Medicaid. PBM. NPI.	Medicare.
24. The process for using a computer to determine the exact coverage for a prescription with the appropriate third party is called resubmission. online adjudication. rejection. PPO.	online adjudication.
25. A list of medications that are covered by a third party program is called a tier. MAC. formulary. U&C.	formulary.
26. The CPT Code for pharmacist-provided services for a first encounter with a patient is 99604. 99605. 99606. 99607.	99605.
27. The CPT Code for pharmacist-provided services for a follow-up encounter with a patient that may be billed in 1-15 minute increments is A) 99605. B) 99606. C) 99607. D) 99608.	99606.
28. The CPT Code for pharmacist-provided services that is used in combination with 99605 or 99606 codes when additional 15-minute increments of time are spent face-to-face with a patient is 0001T. 00010T. 99604. 99607.	99607.
29. The form used to apply for an NPI or provide updated information is NPI 222. CMS 222. HCFA 222. CMS 10114.	CMS 10114.
30. Categories of drugs in third party prescription drug programs associated with different co-pays are called CPTs. POSs. PPOs. tiers.	tiers.
1. A listing of goods or items that a business will use in its normal operation is a formulary. turnover. inventory. point of sale.	inventory.
2. A listing of the medications that are approved for use within a system is a/an inventory. wholesaler. database. formulary.	formulary.
3. The type of formulary that allows purchase of any medication that is prescribed is a/an open formulary. closed formulary.	open formulary.
4. Businesses that purchase drugs from pharmaceutical manufacturers and resell their inventory to hospitals, pharmacies and other pharmaceutical dispensers are wholesalers. drug manufacturers. HMOs.	wholesalers.
5. The word pedigree reefers to the routine storage conditions of drugs. the degree of new drug in the product. chain of custody from manufacture to final dispensing pharmacy. trade name product.	chain of custody from manufacture to final dispensing pharmacy.
6. refers to minimum and maximum stock levels used to determine when a reorder is placed and for how much. Point of sale Turnover Reorder points Inventory	Reorder points
7. An example of an automated inventory machine within the pharmacy is (a) Carousel. Parata RDS. Pyxis Supply Station. Homerus.	Carousel.
8. An example of a robotic dispensing machine that produces prescription labels is Baker Cells. Parata RDS. Pyxis Supply Station. Homerus.	Parata RDS.
9. is an example of an automated point-of-use storage system for making floor stock items available to nurses in the hospital setting. Baker Cells Parata RDS Pyxis Supply Station Homerus	Pyxis Supply Station
10. Alan is a system in which medications are dispensed upon confirmation of an order communicated from a centralized computer system at their point of use. point of sale system automated dispensing system perpetual inventory system	automated dispensing system
11. OSHA, required notices on hazardous substances that provide hazard, handling, clean-up and first aid information are POS. MSDS. closed formulary. open formulary.	MSDS.
12. The purchase order number is usually created by the computer system of the purchaser. seller. FDA. DEA.	purchaser.
13. Examples of durable medical equipment include all of the following except wheel chairs. crutches. aspirin. catheters.	aspirin.
14. Most drugs are kept at 36 degrees F to 46 degrees 72 degrees F to 82 degrees F. 5 degrees F to 32 degrees F. 59 degrees F to 86 degrees F.	59 degrees F to 86 degrees F
15. A package containing a single dose of a medication is called point of use. unit dose packaging. point of sale. MSDS.	unit dose packaging.
16. The temperature for refrigeration should generally be 36 degrees F to 72 degrees 40 degrees F to 42 degrees F. 5 degrees F to 32 degrees F. 59 degrees F to 86 degrees F.	59 degrees F to 86 degrees F.
17. Expired medications should be stored with the regular drug stock. thrown into trash. kept isolated from regular stock. sent to a poor country.	stored with the regular drug stock.
18. Medications should be organized in a way that will facilitate dispensing of the oldest inventory first. the newest inventory first.	the oldest inventory first.
19. An inventory system in which the item is deducted form inventory as it is sold or dispensed is called perpetual inventory. point of sale inventory.	point of sale inventory.
20. A system that maintains a continuous record of every item in inventory so that it always show the stock on hand is called perpetual inventory. point of sale inventory.	perpetual inventory.
21. The number system assigned by the purchaser to each order for identification is the purchase order. invoice number.	purchase order.
22. The number assigned by the wholesaler to each order for identification is the purchase order. invoice number.	invoice number.
23. Shipments of broken or damaged stock should be tracked and reported to the wholesaler or supplier immediately. never -- it is a cost of doing business. monthly, to consolidate transactions. none of the above	immediately.
24. Automated dispensing systems that travel throughout a facility and deliver drugs to various nursing units and departments are automated point-of-use storage systems. mobile robots. robotic unit-dose dispensing devices.	mobile robots.
25. The EPA allows all pharmaceuticals to be disposed through the sewer supply. True False	False
26. The U.S. government agency that regulates the distribution of controlled substances is the FDA. OSHA. DEA. MSDS.	DEA.
27. Checking computer reports for accuracy is done electronically. automatically. manually.	manually.
28. To improve a computer's performance, is performed to reorganize the files of a computer that have been automatically stored in pieces or fragments. defragmentation system backup	defragmentation
29. The NDC number is used by the manufacture to indicate product expiration. product manufactured date. code of all the ingredients. none of the above	none of the above
30. Storing drugs alpha-generically organizes drugs alphabetically by the brand name with the generic next to the brand name. alphabetically by the generic name.	alphabetically by the generic name.

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