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Beth Take

Anatomy Weeks 6-12

QuestionAnswer
The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name? Rectus Femoris
Pennate muscles: Unipennate. Bipennate. Multipennate.
Groups of skeletal muscle fibers are bound together by a connective tissue envelope called the: Perimysium
Muscles that move the thigh: Adductor longus. Gracilis. Iliopsoas.
The muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the: Trapezius
Muscles may be named according to: Function. Direction of fibers. Points of attachment.
The following statement about the muscles of the thorax is incorrect: When the diaphragm contracts, it decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and expels air from the lungs.
The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee: The knee acts as a fulcrum
Origin and Insertion: The origin of the muscle is attached to the bone that does not move. The insertion of the muscle is attached to the bone that moves. When the muscle contracts, the insertion moves toward the origin.
What muscle does not move the upper arm? Trapezius
Another name for a skeletal muscle cell is a(n): Muscle Fiber
The teres major and teres minor muscles move the: Arm
The covering of individual muscle fibers is the: Endomysium
What muscle has fibers on a transverse plane? Transverse abdominis
The most common type of lever in the body is a _____-class lever. Third
Muscles of the quadriceps femoris group: Rectus femoris. Vastus medialis. Vastus intermedius.
T/F: The Achilles tendon is common to both the gastrocnemius and the soleus. True
A muscle is attached to the femur and tibia. Its function or action is to bend the knee. When it contracts, it is acting as the: Prime mover
The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name? Flexor
The flexor muscles that move the fingers are mostly located on the: Anterior medial surface of the forearm.
Muscles of the head: They are paired muscles. They have different actions depending on whether one or both parts of the pair contract.
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named for its: Points of attachment
Muscles that move the upper arm originate on the: Clavicle and Scapula
Another name for a sphincter muscle is a _____ muscle. Circular
The muscle(s) assisting in rotating the arm outward is (are) the: Teres minor
The prime mover can also be called the: Agonist
Muscles located on the lower leg move the: Foot
The muscle that flexes the semi-pronated or semi-supinated forearm is the: Brachioradialis
The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is the: Opponens pollicis
The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the: Latissimus dorsi
In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized? Biceps brachii
When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the: Posterior thigh
The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the: Triceps brachii
The pectoralis major muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. Convergent
A muscle that assists with mastication is the: Masseter
Muscles that contract at the same time as the prime mover are called: Synergists and Fixators
Skeletal muscles constitute approximately ____ of our body weight. 50%
What body systems assist the muscles in maintaining posture? Digestive. Endocrine. Excretory.
The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. Spiral
The soleus muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. Pennate
The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate: Skeletal muscles
The afferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system: Carry feedback information to integrating centers in the brain.
Which is not true of the myelin sheath? It covers cell bodies in the brain and spinal cord.
Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of: Cell bodies
Which of the following is the deepest connective tissue layer of a nerve? Endoneurium
Reflex arc: It always consists of an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron.
The largest and most numerous types of neuroglia are the: Astrocytes
In the human nervous system: There are almost equal numbers of glia cells and neurons.
Astrocytes attach to: Neurons and blood vessels.
Regeneration of nerve fibers will take place only if the cell body is intact and the fibers have: A neurilemma
Most unipolar neurons are usually: Sensory neurons
A neuron that has only one axon, but several dendrites is classified as a _____ neuron. Multipolar
The efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system consist of the ________ nervous systems. Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
Interneurons reside in the: CNS only
A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward the central nervous system is called a(n): Sensory neuron
Multipolar neurons have: Multiple dendrites and one axon.
Along a neuron, the correct pathway for impulse conduction is: Dendrite, Cell body, and Axon.
Neurons in the CNS have less chance of regenerating because: There is no neurolemma in cells of the CNS. Astrocytes fill in the path of regrowth.
The nervous system can be divided: According to its structure. According to direction of information flow. By control of effectors.
One of the components of the blood-brain barrier is: Astrocytes
Which of the following compounds cannot cross the blood-brain barrier? Dopamine
Functions of the central nervous system (CNS): Integrating sensory information. Evaluating the information. Initiating an outgoing response.
Dendrites conduct impulses _____ cell bodies. Toward
Small distinct regions of gray matter in the CNS are called: Nuclei
Schwann cells have a function in the PNS that is similar to that of which cells in the CNS? Oligodendrocytes
The nervous system is organized to do: Detect changes in the external environment. Detect changes in the internal environment. Evaluate changes in the environment.
Fascicles are held together by a connective tissue layer called the: Perineurium
The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is the: Somatic nervous system
Nerves that contain mostly afferent fibers are called _____ nerves. Sensory
The white matter of the nervous system is made up of: Myelinated fibers
Lateral corticospinal tract fibers: Most decussate. They are referred to as pyramidal pathways. They originate in the cerebral cortex.
What cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor: Oculomotor. Trochlear. Accessory.
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons: Are usually longer than preganglionic neurons. Produce norepinephrine. Have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites.
Nerve fibers of the spinothalamic tract are: Sensory
What might occur from the stimulation of parasympathetic fibers? Increased peristalsis in the digestive tract
Plexus of the spinal nerves: Cervical. Brachial. Lumbar.
T/F: Some parasympathetic postganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in nuclei in the brainstem. False
T/F: Effectors that have single innervation by the autonomic nervous system are innervated only by the parasympathetic division. False
The innermost layer of the meninges is the: Pia mater
The peripheral nervous system includes: Only cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches
Impulses from which system play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum? Reticular activating system
Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located in: Nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord
T/F: Visceral effectors are innervated by sympathetic fibers. True
T/F: Axon terminals that secrete acetylcholine are called cholinergic terminals. True
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in: Subarachnoid space. Central canal. Third ventricle.
The main divisions of the central nervous system are the: Brain and spinal cord
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons: They secrete acetylcholine. Dendrites and cell bodies are found in the lateral gray columns of thoracic and the first four lumbar segments of the spinal cord.
The cranial nerve that arises from the spinal cord is the: Acessory
T/F: The autonomic nervous system includes only efferent neurons. False
Which part of the vertebral column has one more pair of nerves coming from it than it has vertebrae? Cervical
T/F: Sensory neurons can operate in autonomic reflex arcs. True
Which plexus contains nerves that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm? Brachial
The areas specializing in language functions are found in the left cerebral hemisphere in how much of the human population? About 90% of the population
The layer of the meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the: Dura mater
T/F: Conduction to autonomic effectors requires only one efferent neuron. False
A patient complains of numbness in the skin of the buttocks and the posterior surface of the thigh and leg. The spinal nerve or peripheral branch most likely involved with this condition is the _____ plexus. Coccygeal
The brainstem includes the: Pons. Medulla oblongata. Midbrain.
The lumbar plexus gives rise to the _____ nerve. Femoral
T/F: All cell bodies of the autonomic nervous system are located within the CNS. False
Spinal nerves are _____ fibers. Motor and Sensory
There are _____ ventricles in the brain. Four
If you were to damage some of the preganglionic fibers that enter the celiac ganglion, what effect would this have on sympathetic stimulation? Hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying the effects of sympathetic stimulation.
Beta receptors: Bind norepinephrine
The sensory cranial nerves include only the: Olfactory, Optic, and Vestibulocochlear.
The brain has _____ major divisions. Six
The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of _____ pairs. 31
Several “vital centers” are located in the: Medulla
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue? Hypoglossal
“Fight-or-flight” physiological changes include: Increased conversion of glycogen into glucose. Increased sweating. Dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscles.
Which part of the brain releases the hormone melatonin? Pineal gland
The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the _____ cranial. Tenth
The phrenic nerve is found in the _____ plexus. Cervical
The part(s) of the cerebrum associated with anger, fear, and sorrow is (are) the: Limbic system
The pyramids are formed in the: Medulla oblongata
The cervical plexus: Are found deep in the neck. Are formed by the ventral rami of the first four cervical nerves and part of C5. Includes the phrenic nerve.
What endocrine glands develop primarily from the endoderm of the pharynx? Thyroid and Parathyroids
Transparent structure of the eye containing regularly aligned collagen fibers. Cornea
Class of hormones secreted during chronic stress that depress immune function. Glucocorticoids
Hormone that inhibits osteoclast activity in children. Calcitonin
The anatomical stalk of the pituitary is also known as: Infundibulum
What mineral is essential for the formation of thyroid hormones? Iodine
Bony labyrinth structure containing the utricle and saccule. Vestibule
What area are Gustatory cells located in? On the posterior wall of the pharynx. On the fungiform papillae of the anterior tongue. On the inner surface of the cheeks.
Transparent mucous membrane covering the inner surface of the eyelid. Conjunctiva
Pancreatic cell type that produces insulin. Beta cells
Endolymph is made in: The stria vascularis
Pyramid-shaped gland consisting of neural crest-derived cells and endocrine secretory cells. Adrenal gland
Fluid filling the posterior segment of the eye. Vitreous humor
Membrane attached to the stapes. Oval window
Largest purely endocrine gland in the body. Thyroid gland
Endocrine gland of the thorax that is also important in immune function. Thymus gland
The hormone produced by the heart increases: The excretion of sodium in the urine
Region of the adrenal cortex that secretes DHEA (dehydroepiandrosterone): Zona reticularis
What endocrine gland stores enough of its hormone extracellularly to last several months? The thyroid
Endolymph-filled structure containing receptors for hearing. Cochlear duct
Receptors for hearing are located in the: Cochlear duct
The hypophyseal portal veins are primarily located in the: Infundibulum
What is the flow of taste sensation along the gustatory pathway to the cerebral cortex? Vagus nerve. Solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata. Thalamic nuclei.
The nerve carrying taste information from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is the: Facial
Describe the spiral organ of Corti: The "hairs" of the receptor cells are embedded in the tectorial membrane. High-frequency sounds stimulate hair cells at the basal end of the basilar membrane. The spiral organ is part of the cochlear duct, which equals the Scala media.
Melanin-containing layer of the eye's vascular tunic are: Choroid
What area of the eye has the highest concentration of cones? The fovea centralis.
Region of the hypophysis that contains secretory endocrine cells derived from the oral ectoderm. Adenohypophysis
The basilar membrane supports the: Spiral organ
Gel-like structure embedded with the tips of cochlear hair cells: Tectorial membrane
During pregnancy, what happens to the oxygenated blood returned from the placenta via the umbilical vein? It flows into the inferior vena cava
The molecule that makes up 95% of the dry weight of each red blood cell and is responsible for the red pigment is: Hemoglobin
Atria are often called _____ because they receive blood from vessels called veins. Receiving chambers
What layer of the larger blood vessels is made up of endothelium? Tunica intima
Microscopic vessels that carry blood from small arteries to small veins are: Capillaries
Platelets play an important role in: Blood clotting
Granulocytes are: Neutrophils. Eosinophils. Basophils.
The normal cardiac impulse that initiates mechanical contraction of the heart arises in the: SA node
The type of membranous tissue that lines the heart and blood vessels is the: Endothelium
A graphic record of the heart’s electrical activity is a(n): ECG
A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called: Leukopenia
The bulk of the heart wall is the thick, contractile middle layer called the: Myocardium
Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called: Diapedesis
The _____ is(are) supplied with blood from the left subclavian artery. Head and upper extremities
The heart valves that are located where the trunk of the pulmonary artery joins the right ventricle and where the aorta joins the left ventricle are called: Semilunar valves
_____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. Hematocrit
The free edges of the atrioventricular valves are anchored to the: Papillary muscles
What sphincters function as regulatory valves that reduce the flow of blood through a network of capillaries when they contract and constrict the arterioles? Precapillary sphincters
Mechanical devices that permit the flow of blood in one direction only are called: Valves
The _____ drains much of the superficial leg and foot. Great saphenous vein
The brachiocephalic vein drains blood from the: Head, Neck, and Upper extremity
What type of arteries are also called conducting arteries and include the aorta? Elastic arteries
What division of the autonomic nervous system sends fibers to the heart? Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is: Erythropoietin
The normal ECG is composed of: P wave. QRS complex. T wave.
The internal iliac artery supplies blood to the: Pelvis
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: Hematopoietic stem cells
The heart has its own special covering, a loose-fitting inextensible sac called the: Pericardium
The term blood type refers to the type of blood cell: Antigen
After blood leaves the lungs and returns to the heart, it enters the: Left Atrium
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an: Antigen's epitopes fit into and bind to an antibody molecule's antigen-binding sites.
Each cortical nodule is composed of packed lymphocytes that surround a less dense area called a: Germinal center
The primary organ of the lymphatic system is the: Thymus
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? immunoglobulin M (IgM)
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? Interferon
A tumor of the lymphoid tissue is called: Lymphoma
_____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. Species resistance
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called: Phagocytosis
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as: Natural killer cells (NK)
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of: Detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are: Innate and Adaptive immunity
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? Spleen
Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are: Lymph nodes
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the: Lymphocyte
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form: Effector T cells and Memory cells
Antibodies are proteins of the family called: Immunoglobulins (Ig)
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. Thymocytes
Lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines are called: Lacteals
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called: Diapedesis
The internal environment of the human body is protected by the _____, which is(are) referred to as the first line of defense. Skin
The functions of the lymph nodes are: Defense and Hematopoiesis
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies. Clonal selection theory
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? Sebum. Mucus. Enzymes. Hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa.
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in: Cytolysis
Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? Lymphotoxin
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called: Lymphokinetic activities
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are: Fluid balance and immunity
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. Cell-mediated
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called: Tonsils
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of: Prostaglandins
The fauces, one of the seven openings found in the pharynx, opens into the: Oropharynx
The structure in the neck known as the “Adam’s apple” is the: Thyroid cartilage
T/F: Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax. False
In the right lung, the superior and middle lobes are separated by the: Horizontal fissure
The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are: Bronchioles
The lower border of the cavity of the larynx is formed by the: Cricoid cartilage
The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the: Nasopharynx
Functions of the respiratory system: Assists with homeostasis of body pH. Filters air. Warms air.
The cribriform plate separates the: Nasal and cranial cavities
The anatomical division of the pharynx that is located behind the mouth from the soft palate above to the level of the hyoid bone below is called the: Oropharynx
Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the: Alveoli
What is lined with a ciliated mucous membrane? Posterior nares. Trachea. Primary bronchi.
The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of _____ epithelium. Pseudostratified columnar
The largest of the paranasal sinuses is the: Maxillary
The structures that deflect air as it passes through the nose are called: Conchae
The external openings to the nasal cavities can be referred to as: Nostrils. Anterior nares. External nares.
The correct sequence of air as it passes through the nose into the pharynx is: Anterior nares vestibule inferior, middle, and superior meatus posterior nares.
Paranasal sinuses are normally filled with: Air
The more common name for the pharynx is the: Throat
The small, leaf-shaped cartilage behind the tongue and hyoid bone is the: Epiglottis
The intrinsic muscles of the larynx serve as: They serve in voice production
The upper respiratory tract includes: Their origin is the hyoid bone. They move the larynx as a whole.
What does not distribute air? Alveolus
The small openings in the cribriform plate function to: Allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the brain.
What are the functions of the pharynx? Aids in forming vowel sounds. Provides pathway for food. Provides a pathway for air.
The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: Provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system.
The approximate length of the trachea, or windpipe, is _____ cm. 11 cm
The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition called the: Septum
The function of surfactant is to: Prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
Olfactory epithelium is found: Covering the superior turbinate.
Created by: BethPromise99
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